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- December 22, 2012 at 8:50 pm#325107carmelParticipant
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 18 2012,12:28) Quote (carmel @ Dec. 14 2012,12:05) NOW REFLECT ON THIS STATEMENT FROM PAUL! 1Corinthians 11: 3 But I would have you know,
Paul definitely wanted to reveal something extraordinary with the above address to his listeners!
Yep. And he did. He revealed that man is the head of woman. Christ is the head of man. And God is the head of Christ.Quote Yep. And he did. He revealed that man is the head of woman. Christ is the head of man. And God is the head of Christ. Mike,
Those are your words.
read again:
Yep. And he did. He revealed that man is the head of woman.
NOW ANSWER ME:
IS THAT A REVEALATION???
WAS THAT SOMETHING THAT THE JEWS MUST KNOW???
WAS THAT SOMETHING THAT THE JEWS DIDN'T KNOW???
PEACE AND LOVE IN JESUS
Charles
December 22, 2012 at 10:02 pm#325111carmelParticipantGene wrote:[/quote]
Quote for thou art the “ONLY TRUE GOD” Now ask you self what does the word “thou” or you mean , it is obvious that term means someone other then the person saying it and the word “ONLY” means there is No OTHER> Gene,
Reflect:
If a teacher succeed in having all his students graduated, HE WOULD BE KNOWN AS THE BEST TEACHER NO???
SO THE STUDENTS MADE KNOWN THE TEACHER THE ONLY TRUE TEACHER.
IN THE SAME CIRCUMSTANCES, JESUS THROUGH HIS GRADUATION ,
THROUGH HIS UNIFICATION WITH THE FATHER,
THEREFORE BECAME SPIRIT AND FLESH,
MADE KNOWN THE FATHER THAT HE IS THE ONLY TRUE GOD,(SPIRIT)AND JESUS CHRIST,(FLESH)
SINCE THEY ARE ONE SUBSTANCE OF SPIRIT AND FLESH.
Peace and love in Jesus
Charles
December 23, 2012 at 4:58 pm#325143mikeboll64BlockedQuote (carmel @ Dec. 22 2012,13:50) Mike, Those are your words.
read again:
Yep. And he did. He revealed that man is the head of woman.
NOW ANSWER ME:
IS THAT A REVEALATION???
Charles,What if I “REVEALED” to you right now that I'm wearing blue underwear? Would you consider this to be some wonderfully important revelation from God?
You are just playing with words.
The bottom line is, and has always been, that God is the head of the one He anointed (His Christ).
God is one being, and the one God anointed as His Christ is a DIFFERENT being – one who is LOWER than the God who chose him and anointed him.
Jesus is the Christ, Son, Servant, prophet, and Lamb OF God, Charles. He is not the God he is all those things OF.
December 23, 2012 at 5:10 pm#325146GeneBalthropParticipantCarmel……………..Mike is right about this brother.
peace and love to you and yours Charles…………………………………………………………………gene
December 23, 2012 at 9:20 pm#325158carmelParticipantmikeboll64,Dec. wrote:[/quote]
Quote You are just playing with words. Mike,
Answer:
What did Paul reveal when he said:
THE HEAD OF WOMAN IS MAN
MIND YOU TO BE EXACT WITH SCRIPTURE AND NOT MESS IT LIKE YOU DID THIS IS THE PROPER STATEMENT:
and the head of the woman is the man;
SO NOTICE IT SAYS : THE WOMAN and THE MAN
WITH AN ARTICLE SO IT IS DEFINITELY A REFERENCE TO A
PARTICULAR WOMAN AND A PARTICULAR MAN IF YOU UNDERSTAND SCRIPTURES!
ALSO FOR THE TIME BEING LEAVE THE REST OF THE VERSE.
I AM RESPECTING YOUR SUGGESTION AND DISCUSS ONE ITEM AT A TIME!!!
SO ANSWER THAT FIRST SINCE IT IS DIRECTLY REGARDING, AS YOU SAID,
HIERARCHY
DON'T TELL ME THAT YOU ARE TRYING TO FLEE FROM ANSWER SUCH A SIMPLE QUESTION!
come on Mike, demonstrate your worldly wisdom
Peace and love in Jesus
Charles
December 24, 2012 at 4:54 am#325186jamminParticipantQuote (Gene Balthrop @ Dec. 23 2012,03:48) Charles…………Mike is right on this Jesus is called a Servant of God, but Jesus is never called the only true God. In fact it was Jesus himself that said for thou art the “ONLY TRUE GOD” Now ask you self what does the word “thou” or you mean , it is obvious that term means someone other then the person saying it and the word “ONLY” means there is No OTHER> Now understanding this, how can you say Jesus and GOD are one and the same person. They certainly are one in agreement but not One in Identity. IMO
peace and love to you and yours………………………………………………………..gene
he is referring to the father when he said ONLY TRUE GOD. we do not have two GOD THE FATHER
it does not mean that Christ is not God.
Christ is God just like his father.
he is the ONLY SON of God. as a Son, he is like his father. he is the image of the invisble God. he is God just like his fatherpaul said that
Philippians 2:6New Living Translation (NLT)
6 Though he was God,[a]
john said that
1 John 5:20GOD’S WORD Translation (GW)
20 We know that the Son of God has come and has given us understanding so that we know the real God. We are in the one who is real, his Son Jesus Christ. This Jesus Christ is the real God and eternal life.
thomas said that Christ is his Lord and God
John 20:28GOD’S WORD Translation (GW)
28 Thomas responded to Jesus, “My Lord and my God!”
read your bible well
December 24, 2012 at 7:52 am#325191carmelParticipantGene wrote:[/quote]
Quote In fact it was Jesus himself that said for thou art the “ONLY TRUE GOD” Gene,
THIS IS THE WHOLE VERSE:
JOHN 17:3 Now this is eternal life: That they may know thee, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.
GET THIS INTO YOUR MIND:
YOU SIMPLY CANNOT USE A PEACE OF SCRIPTURE WHICH IS PART OF A SENTECE AND DEFINE IT UNLESS YOU CONSIDER ITS CONTEXT.
WHICH MEANS ITS PARTICULAR SITUATION,BACKGROUND, AND CIRCUMSATNCE!!!
SO READ:
The first statement is:
THIS IS ETERNAL LIFE
MY QUESTION IS:
IN YOUR OPPINION WHAT WAS JESUS REFERRING TO???
WHO IS ETERNAL LIFE???
DO NOT RUSH TO CONCLUSIONS SO REFER TO SCRIPTURES IN ORDER TO BE ALWAYS IN THE TRUTH!!!
I ASKED THIS QUESTION, BECAUSE JESUS ASSERRTED THAT DUE TO THE ETERNAL LIFE:
THAT THEY,HIS ENEMIES OF HEAVENLY HOSTS, WOULD BE AWARE THAT THE Father is the only true God!!!
Also the fact that Jesus stated so BEFORE HE SATED THAT THE Father would be known as the only true God,, HE MADE US AWARE THAT NOTWITHSTANDING THE FACT THAT HE WAS ABOUT TO DIE,IN REALITY HE WAS GOING TO LIVE ETERNALLY THROUGH HIS OWN INITIATIVE. HE WOULD RAISE HIS OWN BODY HIMSELF.
THEN AFTER HE WOULD GLORIFY IN THE STATE OF THE FATHER
THROUGH HIS UNIFICATION WITH THE HOLY SPIRIT OF FROM THE FATHER .
SO TWO SEPARATE SUBSTANCES GENUINELY ORIGINATED FROM GOD:
ONE SPIRIT FROM THE FATHER IN THE HOLY SPIRIT
AND ONE FLESH FROM THE SON
BECAME ONE SUBSTANCE OF BOTH SPIRIT AND FLESH FOR ETERNITY WHICH IN THE PRESENT TIME IS OWNED BOTH BY THE SON AND THE FATHER THROUGH HOLY SPIRIT TILL THE LAST DAY WHEN THE FATHER WOULD BE
ALL IN ALL
Quote .Mike is right on this Jesus is called a Servant of God, As a reference to the above regarding JESUS IS CALLED THE SERVANT OF GOD.
THE FATHER HIMSELF CONFIRMED THAT HE IS RIGHT NOW SERVING HIS GLORIFIED SON, WHEN HE IS MAKING HIS SON'S ENEMIES HIS FOOTSTOOL.
Hebrews 1:13 But to which of the angels said he at any time: Sit on my right hand, until make thy enemies thy footstool?
I, THE FATHER,
MAKE YOUR ENEMIES,SERVE YOU
AGAIN NOT THE FATHER'S ENEMIES SO IT IS THE FATHER'S JOB TO WORK, AND TO CONVINCE HIS SON'S ENEMIES, SO SERVING HIS SON THROUGH HIS OWN INITIATIVE,
FOR THE SIMPLE REASON THAT HIS SON IN SPIRITUAL FLESH SUBSTANCE AFTER RESURRACTION, WHICH UNITED, THEREFORE GLORIFIED THROUGH THE INSERTION OF THE HOLY SPIRIT FROM THE FATHER AS THE ONLY SPIRIT AND FLESH BEING,THEREFORE VISIBLE FOR ALL THE HEAVENLY HOSTS TO CONFIRM THAT HE IS
THE ONLY TRUE GOD AND JESUS CHRIST
THEREFORE IT IS THE GLORIFICATION
OF THE SON,
IN THE SON,
AND FOR THE SON,
WHICH ESTABLISHED THAT THE FATHER,WHO IS ONLY A MYSTERIOUS UNKOWN SPIRIT, IS THE ONLY TRUE GOD, AND JESUS CHRIST.
Peace and love in Jesus Christ
Charles
December 24, 2012 at 8:48 am#325192kerwinParticipantTo all,
John 20:28 does not say “you are my Lord and my God”.
does not say “Thomas responded and called him my Lord and my God.”
does not say “Thomas responded and exclaimed my Lord and my God.”I find it strange that certain people will discard “exclaimed” because it is not literally written and accept “called him” which is also not written.
Why add words without using reason of why they should be there and are not.
What is there is that Lord(kyrios) in John 20:28 is not the same word as Lord(kyrion), which is used in John 20:25 to refer to Jesus.
that Thomas had previously declared he would not believe Jesus was alive without certain evidence.
that Jesus presented that evidence and instructed him to believe.
that Thomas' words were in response to finding Jesus alive and Jesus' words.December 24, 2012 at 6:02 pm#325233GeneBalthropParticipantCarmel……….If you believe Jesus you would believe God was “in” him but you don't believe God was “IN” Jesus, you believe Jesus was the GOD that was “IN” him. So what do you do with these word of Jesus, the son of man can do nothing of himself, the father “IN” He dothe the Works. Why did Jesus seperate himself from the Father that was “IN” Him if they were one and the same Biing? Again Who was Jesus Praying to when he said You are the “ONLY” true GOD. Was the YOU HIM or was it someone else , if i say you, do i mean Me? According to you Trinitrians and Pressistence it means Jesus was (IN) himself as a GOD.
Jesus said the Fathr was in Heaven even while he was on earth , You Problem is you do not understand what a SPIRIT IS. And you are not alone on that question either, hardly no one can explaine what a Spirit is. Spirit are not flesh and blood humans and Jesus was a flesh and blood human, and Jesus also said that the Father was a SPIRIT and we must worship him in sprit and truth, But Jesus was flesh and blood and Had a GOD and that GOd was NOT HIM> Or why would he have said “my” God “my God, has thou forsaken “me”. Can God forsake God? I am telling you Just as i have told others you must drop all that false teaching of the Trinity and preexitence that Doctrine That seperates Jesus from our “EXACT” indenity With Him all whoi seperate Jesus from his human Idenity are false teachers, and have corrupted the words of Jesus and God the Father. IMO
peace and love to you andn yours……………………………………………………………..gene
December 24, 2012 at 6:13 pm#325236mikeboll64BlockedQuote (carmel @ Dec. 23 2012,14:20) What did Paul reveal when he said: THE HEAD OF WOMAN IS MAN
He simply pointed out what was already obvious to all: In the hierarchy of God's order, man is above woman. Man was created first, and woman was created as a helper/possession of man.December 24, 2012 at 6:22 pm#325238mikeboll64BlockedQuote (kerwin @ Dec. 24 2012,01:48) What is there is that Lord(kyrios) in John 20:28 is not the same word as Lord(kyrion), which is used in John 20:25 to refer to Jesus.
that Thomas had previously declared he would not believe Jesus was alive without certain evidence.
that Jesus presented that evidence and instructed him to believe.
that Thomas' words were in response to finding Jesus alive and Jesus' words.
It seemed like you were beginning to set up some “defense” or “explanation” of Jesus' words in 20:28, but then just stopped short of your findings.What CONCLUSION does all this info lead you to, Kerwin?
December 24, 2012 at 9:36 pm#325260carmelParticipantmikeboll64,Dec. wrote:[/quote]
Quote
He simply pointed out what was already obvious to all: In the hierarchy of God's order, man is above woman. Man was created first, and woman was created as a helper/possession of man.Mike,
He simply pointed out what was already obvious to all
That's right,
SO HE REVEALED NOTHING!
BUT HE STILL FELT TO INTRODUCE HIMSELF WITH THE WORDS:
BUT I WOULD HAVE YOU KNOW
NOTICE:
HE STARTED WITH THE WORD BUT
SO IT WAS NOT REGARDING HIERARCHI, BUT HE WANTED TO EXPLAIN THE ORIGIN OF THE HIERARCHI!!!
HOW IT WAS ORIGINATED!!!
ESPECIALLY THE JEWS!!!
ALSO I PIN POINTED OUT THAT BOTH HAD THE ARTICLE THE TO MAKE US AWARE THAT IT WAS A REFERENCE TO A PARTICULAR MAN AND WOMAN.
SO WE SHOULD READ GENESIS 3:16
To the woman also he said: I will multiply thy sorrows, and thy conceptions: in sorrow shalt thou bring forth children,
and thou shalt be under thy husband's power, and he shall have dominion over thee.
SO IT WAS DUE TO THE FACT THAT EVE CAUSED ADAM'S FALL, THAT GOD ESTABLISHED THE DOMINION OVER EVE!
SO WHAT ACTUALLY HAPPENED TO ADAM TO MAKE GOD TAKE THIS ACTION AGAINST THE WOMAN
SINCE GOD MENTIONED THIS DOMINION AFTER THE SIN, THERE WAS NOT ANY DOMINION AT ALL.
IN FACT SHE WAS FREE TO ACT ANY WAY SHE WANTED TO.
SO SHE DID!
AND THROUGH THAT ACTION ADAM LOST HIS HOLINESS, HE LOST HIS SOUL, HE DIED SPIRITUALLY, HE BECAME THE PROPERTY OF SATAN.
NOW THIS IS INTERESTEING FOR THE SIMPLE REASON, THAT ADAM BECAME ALIVE IN THE FLESH AND BLOOD FOR THE FIRST EVER TIME.
AND FLESH AND BOOD IS NOT OF GOD,BUT OF EARTH, SATAN'S.
SO GOD MADE IT CLEAR TO EVE, THAT SINCE SHE OBEYED SATAN, AND NOT ADAM, AND ADAM BECAME POSSESSED BY SATAN SHE THEREFORE WOULD REMAIN UNDER SATAN DOMINION THROUGH ADAM, TILL THE REDEEMER COMES!!!
NOW PAUL WAS MAKING IT CLEAR TO THEM THAT THE REDEEMER CAME, AND SINCE THE REDEEMER REMOVED SATAN FROM HUMAN’S SOULS, FROM THEN ON:
THE MAN MUST BECOME THE RULER OVER THE WOMAN REGARDING THE CHURCH,SINCE GOD GAVE THE SOUL TO ADAM AND ALSO TO RULE IN THE GARDEN.
ALTHOUGH THE WOMAN ALSO WAS REDEEMED.
PAUL’S INTEREST WAS THE CHURCH.
SO HERE COMES THE QUESTION:
WHY DID HE USE THE WORD HEAD
WHY DID HE SAY THAT THE HEAD OF THE WOMAN IS THE MAN
WHEN WE REFER TO STRONG’S WE REALIZE AN INTERESTING DEFINITION
2776. kephalé
Definition: (a) the head, (b) met: a corner stone, uniting two walls; head, ruler, lord.
THE CORNER STONE IS A STONE WHICH BINDS TO WALLS.
MET: THE TWO WALLS ARE THE SPIRIT, AND THE FLESH.
AND THE CORNER STONE WHICH BINDS THE TWO OPPOSING ENTITIES IS JESUS CHRIST AS THE MEDIATOR BETWEEN GOD(SPIRIT) AND MAN(FLESH)
BUT JESUS WAS NOT ONLY THAT KIND OF MEDIATOR, BUT ALSO A HIDDEN MEDIATOR BETWEEN THE FLESH BODY AND THE SPIRIT, THEREFORE THE SOUL, WHICH IS DEFINITELY JESUS’SPIRIT SUBSTANCE.
SO PAUL WHEN HE USED THE WORD HEAD HE WAS REFERRING TO THE, SOUL, WHICH IS THE FOCAL ENTITY OF THE CHURCH, JESUS’SUBSTANCE.
,
NOW LET’S SEE HOW IT FITS,REGARDING THE MAN ADAM, AND THE WOMAN EVE,ADAM ONLY WAS GIVEN THE SOUL DIRECTLY FROM GOD,THEREFORE HE BECAME A LIVING SOUL.
BUT EVE RECEIVED A KIND OF SOUL FROM ADAM SINCE SHE WAS BUILT THROUGH ADAM’S RIB.
SO THIS MAKES SENSE NOW IF WE CLARIFY IT AND SAY THAT:
THE (HEAD)SOUL OF THE WOMAN IS THE MAN.
ALSO THIS MAKE US UNDERSTAND THAT THE SOUL ENTERS THE WOMB OF THE WOMAN THROUGH THE SPERM OF MAN, THERFORE EVERY FEMAIL CHILD RECEIVES THE SOUL THROUGH THE SPERM OF MAN ON CONCEPTION.
NOW WHEN WE SAY THAT;
THE (HEAD)SOUL OF EVERY MAN( PLURAL) IS CHRIST.
THIS MAKE US UNDERSTAND THAT SINCE ADAM RECEIVED THE SOUL FROM GOD, AND THE SOUL IS A SUBSTANCE OF JESUS’ SPIRIT, IT IS OBVIOUS THAT EVERY MAN DESCENDANT OF ADAM IS CHRIST
NOW WE COME TO THE MOST IMPORTANT ONE WHICH SAYS:
THE (HEAD) SOUL OF CHRIST IS GOD.
AND THIS MAKE US UNDERSTAND THAT:
JESUS IS GOD
NOW THIS IS CONFIRMED IN:
Isaiah:42:1 BEHOLD my servant, I will uphold him: my elect,
MY SOUL DELIGHTETH IN HIM……….. SO JESUS’ SOUL IS THE HOLY SPIRIT OF GOD,AND GOD IS DELIGHTED IN JESUS FLESH BODY.
GOD DEFINITELY HASN’T GOT A SOUL, SINCE SOULS ARE GIVEN ONLY TO HUMANS AS A MEDIATOR BETWEEN GOD AND HIS CREATURES.
Peace and love in Jesus
Charles
December 25, 2012 at 3:53 am#325287jamminParticipantQuote (kerwin @ Dec. 24 2012,18:48) To all, John 20:28 does not say “you are my Lord and my God”.
does not say “Thomas responded and called him my Lord and my God.”
does not say “Thomas responded and exclaimed my Lord and my God.”I find it strange that certain people will discard “exclaimed” because it is not literally written and accept “called him” which is also not written.
Why add words without using reason of why they should be there and are not.
What is there is that Lord(kyrios) in John 20:28 is not the same word as Lord(kyrion), which is used in John 20:25 to refer to Jesus.
that Thomas had previously declared he would not believe Jesus was alive without certain evidence.
that Jesus presented that evidence and instructed him to believe.
that Thomas' words were in response to finding Jesus alive and Jesus' words.
the bible said that jesus is Thomas' Lord and God.cant you read john 20.28?
wear eyeglasses
John 20:28Easy-to-Read Version (ERV)
28 Thomas said to Jesus, “My Lord and my God!”
thomas SAID TO JESUS not to the father.
jesus is his LORD and GOD!December 25, 2012 at 6:47 am#325292carmelParticipantMIKE,
PERMIT ME TO CORRECT A DETAIL:
I WROTE:
SO IT WAS NOT REGARDING HIERARCHI, BUT HE WANTED TO EXPLAIN THE ORIGIN OF THE HIERARCHI!!!
HOW IT WAS ORIGINATED!!!
ESPECIALLY THE JEWS!!!
IT SHOULD BE:
SO IT WAS NOT REGARDING HIERARCHI ITSELF, BUT HE WANTED TO EXPLAIN THE ORIGIN OF THE HIERARCHI!!!
HOW IT WAS ORIGINATED!!!
ESPECIALLY CORINTHIANS!!!
WHO WERE NOT MOST PROBABLY AWARE OF THE JEWISH BIBLE.
December 25, 2012 at 6:55 am#325293carmelParticipantGene wrote:[/quote]
Quote and have corrupted the words of Jesus and God the Father. IMO Gene,
WITH EVERY RESPECT:
I POSTED A LONG POST FOR THE SIMPLE REASON TO PROVE TO YOU THAT I AM ONLY INTERESTED IN DISCUSSING SCRIPTURES.
SO I WOULD MOSTLY APPRECIATE IT, IF YOU WERE TO PICK ANY VERSE FROM MY POST AND CONTRADICT ME USING SCRIPTURE.
SO PLEASE DO NOT BOTHER POSTING YOUR:
OPPINION
AGAIN WITH EVERY RESPECT
ALL THE BEST
Peace and love in Jesus
Charles
December 25, 2012 at 7:18 am#325294kerwinParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 24 2012,23:22) Quote (kerwin @ Dec. 24 2012,01:48) What is there is that Lord(kyrios) in John 20:28 is not the same word as Lord(kyrion), which is used in John 20:25 to refer to Jesus.
that Thomas had previously declared he would not believe Jesus was alive without certain evidence.
that Jesus presented that evidence and instructed him to believe.
that Thomas' words were in response to finding Jesus alive and Jesus' words.
It seemed like you were beginning to set up some “defense” or “explanation” of Jesus' words in 20:28, but then just stopped short of your findings.What CONCLUSION does all this info lead you to, Kerwin?
Mike,I suspicion Thomas was responding and stating his faith just like some say God is good.
December 25, 2012 at 1:32 pm#325302Ed JParticipantQuote (kerwin @ Dec. 24 2012,18:48) To all, John 20:28 does not say “you are my Lord and my God”.
does not say “Thomas responded and called him my Lord and my God.”
does not say “Thomas responded and exclaimed my Lord and my God.”I find it strange that certain people will discard “exclaimed” because it is not literally written and accept “called him” which is also not written.
Why add words without using reason of why they should be there and are not.
What is there is that Lord(kyrios) in John 20:28 is not the same word as Lord(kyrion), which is used in John 20:25 to refer to Jesus.
that Thomas had previously declared he would not believe Jesus was alive without certain evidence.
that Jesus presented that evidence and instructed him to believe.
that Thomas' words were in response to finding Jesus alive and Jesus' words.
Hi Kerwin,Excellent post brother.
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgDecember 25, 2012 at 6:44 pm#325328mikeboll64BlockedQuote (kerwin @ Dec. 25 2012,00:18) Mike, I suspicion Thomas was responding and stating his faith just like some say God is good.
Such as, “Praise God, my Lord Jesus lives!” ?Give me an example, please.
December 25, 2012 at 6:47 pm#325329mikeboll64BlockedQuote (carmel @ Dec. 24 2012,23:47) SO IT WAS NOT REGARDING HIERARCHI ITSELF, BUT HE WANTED TO EXPLAIN THE ORIGIN OF THE HIERARCHI!!! HOW IT WAS ORIGINATED!!!
Okay, if you say so. Personally, I think you are PURPOSELY reading alot into Paul's words – simply because you WANT to.Either way, the “origin” of the hierarchy is God first. THEN His holy servant Jesus. THEN man. THEN woman.
December 25, 2012 at 8:42 pm#325345kerwinParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 25 2012,23:44) Quote (kerwin @ Dec. 25 2012,00:18) Mike, I suspicion Thomas was responding and stating his faith just like some say God is good.
Such as, “Praise God, my Lord Jesus lives!” ?Give me an example, please.
Mike,Yes you have the idea he was expressing though it seems his literal words are more like stating Jehovah is my God; but from a person that avoids saying “Jehovah”.
In John 20:24-25 we are told Thomas doubted that his fellow disciples saw Jesus. His words in John 20:28 he now believed that he was seeing a miraculously raised Jesus.
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