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Hi Berean,
You asked:
Don’t you think it would be fairer to say that there are two divine beings called YHVH: THE ONLY TRUE GOD THE FATHER AND HIS ONLY BEGOTTEN SON
No. Why would you think that is “fairer?”
NOTE: THE SON HAS INHERITED THE NAME OF THE FATHER AS SAID HEBREWS 1: 4
Being made so much better than the angels, as he hath by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they.I believe that the name he inherited is “The Son of God.” No one else is a son by heredity.
LU
Lu…..Know you not that“now we are the sons of God”, well it looks like we are inheritors of the same thing, right?
LU that scriptures has nothing to do with inheriting the name of a son of God, we all are son of God, according to Jesus , “call not man on earth your father , for one is your father who is in heaven.” But we are indeed heirs and joint heirs “with” CHRIST . if you believe what the scriptures say, that is.?
Peace and love to you and yours. ………..gene
Hi Lu
You
I believe that the name he inherited is “The Son of God.” No one else is a son by heredity.
Me
Son of God IS not a name strictly speaking. Although in Luke 1:35 it says that
human children in general inherit the name of the father and it does not surprise me at all that the Son of God has inherited the same name as God the Father.
Jeremiah tells us in chapter 23: 5,6
Darby’s English Translation
23: 5 Behold, the days come, saith Jehovah (God the Father), when I will raise unto David a righteous Branch, who shall reign as king, and act wisely, and shall execute judgment and righteousness in the land.
23: 6 In his days Judah shall be saved, and Israel shall dwell in safety; and this is his name whereby he shall be called, Jehovah our Righteousness.
EXPOSITORY (ENGLISH BIBLE)(6) Judah shall be saved, and Israel shall dwell safely.—The true King shall reign over a re-united people. The Ten Tribes of the Northern Kingdom, as well as the two of the Southern, should find in Him deliverance and peace.
Whereby he shall be called.—Literally, whereby one shall call him, the indefinite, almost impersonal active having the force of the English passive.
The Lord our Righteousness.—It is significant that in Jeremiah 33:16 the same name is given to Jerusalem. There it is clearly not, in logical language, the predicate of the city, but that which she takes as her watchword, and blazons, as it were, on her banner; and we cannot consistently press more than that meaning here. So in Ezekiel 48:35 the new name of Jerusalem is “Jehovah-shammah” (= the Lord is there). So in Exodus 17:15 Moses calls the altar which he builds “Jehovah-nissi” (= the Lord is my banner). The interpretation which sees in the words (1) the identification of the Messianic King with Jehovah, the Eternal, and (2) the doctrine of imputed righteousness, must accordingly be regarded as one of the applications of the words rather than their direct meaning. That meaning would seem to be that the King, the righteous Branch, will look to Jehovah as giving and working righteousness. Some commentators, indeed, refer the pronoun “he” to Israel, and not to the righteous Branch. We cannot forget that, at the very time when Jeremiah uttered this prophecy, a king was on the throne whose name (Zedekiah = righteous is Jehovah) implied the same thought. His reign had been a miserable failure, and the prophet looks forward to a time when the ideal, which was then far off, should at last be realised. If with many critics we refer the prediction to the reign of Jehoiakim (see Note on Jeremiah 23:1), we might almost see in Mattaniah’s adoption of the new name a boast that he was about to fulfil it. The Christ, we may say, answered to the name, not as being Himself one with Jehovah, though He was that, but as doing the Father’s will, and so fulfilling all righteousness (comp. Matthew 3:15).
God bless
YHVH is an ETERNAL DIVINE NAME.
AND SINCE JEREMIAH PROPHETIZED THAT THE NAME OF THE SAVIOR WOULD BE YHVH OUR RIGHTEOUSNES, IT IS THAT NAME ALREADY BELONGED TO HIM IN THE DAYS OF ETERNITY.Hi Berean,
You quoted Elliott’s commentary to defend your position about what name is being referred to as “inherited” in Hebrews 1:5.
if you actually read Elliot’s commentary specifically regarding Hebrews 1:5, you will see that the name inherited is “Son of God.”
Ellicott’s Commentary for English Readers:
Name.—The verses which follow show that we are to understand by this all the dignity and glory contained in the name SON OF GOD.
Blessings, LU
Berean,
Sorry it is unclear to you. I appreciate you wanting clarity.
I do believe that one of the Son’s names is YHVH, another is YHVH our Righteousness, another “The Son of God” etc. It just so happens that in Hebrews 1:5, the name inherited is “The Son of God” as you can see in many commentaries on the specific verse if you do your research. The chapter in Hebrews 1 goes on to compare Jesus to the angels who are not sons by inheritance but in a general way by creation.
I believe the Son has always been YHVH as long as the Father has been YHVH. I can’t see how a name which represents eternal existence can be inherited since one would have to always have eternal existence to bear that name. In other words, the Son as YHVH, reflects His eternal existence. His name “YHVH our Righteousness”, demonstrates the One who eternally existed has become OUR righteousness which He did through His life, death and resurrection as the Messiah. BTW, the name YHVH our Righteousness cannot belong to the Father since it is not the Father that is our righteousness but the Son.
Lu
The bride of Christ will also bear the name of her HUSBAND
Jer. 33
[16] In those days Judah will be saved, and Jerusalem will dwell in safety. And this is the name by which SHE will be called: The Lord our righteousness.Berean,
Jer 33 is about the city here which is a feminine word in both Hebrew and Greek and gets feminine pronouns such as “she.”
Ellicot again (since you like to look to his commentary):
In those days shall Judah be saved, and Jerusalem shall dwell safely: and this is the name wherewith she shall be called, The LORD our righteousness.(16) This is the name wherewith she shall be called, The Lord our righteousness.—It will be noticed that, while this reproduces the language of Jeremiah 23:6, it does so with a remarkable difference. There the title, “The Lord our Righteousness,” is given to the future King, and the passage has accordingly been used as a proof of the full divinity of the Christ, who is that King. Here it is given to the city, and, so given, can only mean that that name will be, as it were, the motto and watchword of her being. She will be a city marked by a righteousness which will be the gift of Jehovah; He will inscribe that name on her banners, and. grave it on her portals. It is obvious that this throws light on the meaning of the title as applied to the King.
Gene,
You said:
it looks like we are inheritors of the same thing, right?
Believers don’t inherit the name “son of God,” they receive it by adoption. Do you know anyone that is adopted? The adopted child gets called “son” through the legal process of adoption, not by heredity as would be the children actually born into the family.
Romans 8:15
For you have not received a spirit of slavery leading to fear again, but you have received a spirit of adoption as sons by which we cry out, “Abba! Father!”
Romans 8:23
And not only this, but also we ourselves, having the first fruits of the Spirit, even we ourselves groan within ourselves, waiting eagerly for our adoption as sons, the redemption of our body.
Hi Proclaimer,
The Psalmist David says, “Awake, O Lord, and attend to my judgment, even to my cause, my God and my Lord.”
David was addressing only one person.Who was that one person he was addressing?
Please reflect:
The Psalmist David says,
“Awake, O Lord,
WHO NEEDED TO BE
AWAKE???
OBVIOUS THE ONE WHO WAS SLAIN!!! NO?
JESUS WAS SLAIN LIKE A LAMB FROM THE BEGINNING OF THE WORLD!!! Rev 13:8
….and attend to my judgment, even to my cause
my God and my Lord.”
WHO IS THE ONLY
JUDGE
YET TO BE???
WHEN DAVID,
REFERRING TO HIS SOUL IN HELL
SPOKE THOSE WORDS???
JESUS WAS/IS THE ONLY JUDGE OF ALL SOULS! HENCE:
OUR GOD AND OUR LORD!
WHY OUR GOD AND OUR LORD???
OBVIOUS: HE IS THE ONLY HUMAN IN ALL THINGS LIKE US,
GOD THE FATHER IS SPIRIT, HE IS NOT THE FATHER OF FLESH!
FROM THE OTHER HAND,
JESUS, PRECISELY
WHEN HE WOKE UP FROM
THE DEAD AS OUR BROTHER IN THE TRUTH,
HE JUDGED AND JUSTIFIED HUMANITY ALL IDENTICAL ONE BODY IN HIM
ON HIS RESURRECTION! NO???
BY WHICH ACT THE ENTIRE HUMAN RACE
RESURRECTED WITH JESUS AND IN JESUS!
ALL EMBODIEDMIN HIM!!!
THE MAN/BORN AGAIN FROM ALL THE DEAD, SPIRITUALLY DEAD! John3;3
THEN A FEW HOURS LATER THEY BECAME
A NEW PURE HUMAN RACE:
ALL GODLY!
AS SOON AS JESUS, THE MAN BORN AGAIN,
INTEGRATED WITH THE HOLY GHOST IN
JESUS CHRIST!
ALREADY GLORIFIED ON THE CROSS
GODMAN ON EARTH!
BY WHICH ACT
THE ENTIRE HUMAN RACE
GLORIFIED and became
ALL SONS OF GOD IN!
JESUS CHRIST
GOD AND FATHER OF THE HUMAN RACE???
John2o:17 Jesus saith to her: Do not touch me,
for I am not yet ascended to (THE STATE OF) my Father.
But go to my brethren, and say to them:
I ascend to(THE STATE OF) my Father and to your Father, to my God and your God.
John17:1 THESE things Jesus spoke, and lifting up his eyes to heaven, he said:
Father, the hour is come,
glorify thy Son, that thy Son may glorify thee.
2As thou hast given him
power over all flesh,
that he may give eternal life to all whom thou hast given him.
JESUS ON HIS RESURRECTION
GAVE US HIS DIVINE BODY,
HE SIMPLY DIED AS A SACRIFICE, IN ORDER TO GIVE HIS DEAD BODY TO THE HUMAN RACE, SATANIC ON ADAM SIN.
WHILE HE,
EVEN BEFORE HE SUFFERED,
SPIRITUALIZED HIS BODY, THUS
READY TO DIE, AND ON HIS DEATH
HE GAVE IT BACK TO THE FATHER,
GLORIFIED IN SPIRIT IN
THE HOLY GHOST,
ATTRIBUTED TO THE SON!
JESUS CHRIST
GODMAN ON EARTH!
JESUS SIMPLY SWOPPED HIS BODY WITH OURS,
SINCE OURS WAS SATANIC ONLY GOOD TO RETURN TO
DUST! Satan’s substance!
Peace and love in Jesus Christ
Lu……so your bible does not say , “we are heirs and “joint heirs” with Jesus Christ? The word joint dosen’t seperate Jesus idenity from us, in fact it ties him to us.
Even a adopted child is made up of “exactly” the same material as the the none adopted child is, they are both human beings from humanity right?
So please tell us again how does being called an “adopted” son of God make us any “different” then Jesus?
Peace and love to you and yours. ……….gene
@t8
So Jesus is not the God of the Old Testament Danny Dabs?
Not necessarily. We know that the Father is Yahweh.
Ok, now let’s talk about Jesus.
Why did Thomas call Jesus “My Lord and my God”?
It’s the same Greek grammatical structure as in Psalm 35:23 (Septuagint).
“Awake, O Lord, and attend to my judgment, even to my cause, my God and my Lord.”Hi Danny,
Do you believe that the name YHVH also can apply to the Son of God?
Yes, of course, because Jesus inherited everything from His Father.
Hi Lu
About the bride OF the Lamb….
Jeremiah 33:16
[16] In those days shall Judah be saved, and Jerusalem shall dwell safely: and this is the name wherewith she shall be called, The LORD our righteousness.
Zechariah 8:2,3
Thus said the Lord of hosts;
«I was jealous for Zion with great jealousy, and I was jealous for her with great fury.»
Thus said the Lord;
«I am returned to Zion, and will dwell in the middle of Jerusalem: and Jerusalem shall be called a “City of Truth”; and the mountain of the Lord of hosts, “the Holy Mountain”.»
Revelation 21
And I John saw the holy city, new Jerusalem, coming down from God out of heaven, prepared as a bride adorned for her husband.
…..
And there came unto me one of the seven angels which had the seven vials full of the seven last plagues, and talked with me, saying, Come hither, I will shew thee the bride, the Lamb’s wife.
[10] And he carried me away in the spirit to a great and high mountain, and shewed me that great city, the holy Jerusalem, descending out of heaven from God,
[11] Having the glory of God: and her light was like unto a stone most precious, even like a jasper stone, clear as crystal;
….By designating the New Jerusalem as the bride, prophecy does not speak of the city walls, but rather of its inhabitants, God’s redeemed people.
In fact, the city is given the qualifiers which fall to its inhabitants: if the inhabitants are true and holy, the city is then called true and holy.
Danny said:
Hi Danny,
Do you believe that the name YHVH also can apply to the Son of God?
Yes, of course, because Jesus inherited everything
Danny. You have some contradictions to clear up. You said YHWH is one person.
The Psalmist David says, “Awake, O Lord, and attend to my judgment, even to my cause, my God and my Lord.”
David was addressing only one person.You also say that YHWH is the Father meaning Jesus is the Son of YHWH.
Yahweh is the Father of Jesus Christ!
I never denied that.But now you say YHWH is not one person, but 2 persons. And now that Jesus is YHWH, then who exactly is the Son of YHWH? Because Jesus can’t be his own son or own Father.
Confusion proves your doctrine has been tampered with by the Spirit of man. This is part of the wisdom of this world which God considers foolishness.
Further, your flip flopping on how many persons YHWH is shows you are double minded. This makes you unstable according to scripture.
he is a double-minded man, unstable in all his ways.
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