Did Jesus pre-exist before his birth on Earth?

Where did Jesus come from?

John 6:38-40
For I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will, but the will of him who sent me; and this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise it up at the last day. For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who sees the Son and believes in him should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.

The first verse suggests that Jesus came down from Heaven. This seems to contradict that belief which suggests he first existed as a man when he was born into this world. For if Jesus came into existence for the first time when he was conceived through Mary, how could he come down from Heaven? We (Man) came into existence when we are born into this world, but would it be correct to say that we came down from Heaven too? If a verse said that we came down from Heaven, would you think that we pre-existed in Heaven? If so, then why not Jesus?

John 3:17 is another verse that provides support that Jesus came down from Heaven or was sent rather than created.

For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.

The word ‘send’ is the Greek word ‘apostello’.

apostello {ap-os-tel’-lo}
1) to order (one) to go to a place appointed
2) to send away, dismiss
2a) to allow one to depart, that he may be in a state of liberty
2b) to order one to depart, send off
2c) to drive away

To be sent surely implies existence otherwise you would just say born or created. In fact this word (sent) is similar in meaning and sound to the word Apostle (apostolos), which means “one sent forth with orders”. To be sent forth with order, you must exist.

John 6:62
What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?

Jesus is clearly stating here that he came from above since he eventually ascended into Heaven to be at the right-hand of God.

How old is Jesus?

John 1:15
15 John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.‘ “

John the Baptist was six months older than Jesus Christ. So it is physically impossible for Christ to be before him in age. If this verse is referencing age, then it shows preexistence. Jesus existed before  John the Baptist in the least.

John 8:58
“I tell you the truth,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!

Jesus claimed to exist before Abraham, the father of the Jews. The words ‘I am’ mean ‘I exist’. So Jesus claimed existence before Abraham. We can see that Jesus is getting older as we explore the scriptures. But how old?

Jude 1:25
to the only God our Savior be glory, majesty, power and authority, through Jesus Christ our Lord, before all ages, now and forevermore! Amen.

Here we can see that majesty, power, and authority through Jesus Christ is before all ages (all worlds) and forever more into the future. This strongly implies that Jesus existed even before all things. But can we substantiate this?

Did Jesus exist before all creation?

Colossians 1:17
He is before all things, and in him all things hold together.

Colossians answers the question outright. It states that “He is before all things“.  But are there other verses that support this idea?

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus being there. This verse alone answers the question because the universe, angels, and men were made and Jesus was present when they were created according to these verses. In case that is not enough to convince you, I also add another clear verse that says the same thing.

Hebrews 1:1-2
1 In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways,
2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe.

Is Jesus the Word of God?

But some say that this is talking about the Word and not all believe that Jesus is the Word of God. They argue that Jesus came from the Word, but is not the Word itself that was with God in John 1:1. If you believe this, then please explain the next two verses within their wider context:

Revelation 19:13
He is dressed in a robe dipped in blood, and his name is the Word of God.

Colossians 1:15-18
The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him. He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. And he is the head of the body, the church; he is the beginning and the firstborn from among the dead, so that in everything he might have the supremacy.

Okay, if you are honest, this is a closed case. God created all things through the Word. Jesus is called the Word of God and also the son of God. We are also told that God created all things through the son of God. Even if you do not believe that Jesus is the Word, then you still have to believe that Jesus pre-existed on account of him being the son of God. But what we know from scripture is that Jesus existed as the Word of God before he came as a man called Jesus. We know that the Word became flesh.

More proof verses

If Jesus pre-existed, then you might expect that even though the above verses are clear, there would be more verses that teach or at least imply that he pre-existed. So let’s see if this is the case.

Revelation 22:16
“I, Jesus, have sent my angel to give you this testimony for the churches. I am the Root and the Offspring of David, and the bright Morning Star.”

Here we see that Jesus is the offspring of David, yet he is also the root of David, which at appears to show existence before King David. He also claims to be the bright Morning Star and we read in Job how the Morning Stars were present when God created the Earth.

Job 38:6-7
“On what were its bases sunk? Or who laid its cornerstone, When the morning stars sang together And all the sons of God shouted for joy? 

Luke 10:18
He replied, “I saw Satan fall like lightning from heaven.

Comparing Luke 10:18 with Revelation 12:1-10, some say that Satan and his angels fell to the earth before the birth of Christ as a man. If this was the case, then Jesus saw an event that took place before he was born as a man. However, others argue that Satan hasn’t fallen to the Earth yet, or that he has, but Jesus saw this in a vision. Regardless, it certainly doesn’t contradict that Jesus pre-existed.

Micah 5:2
“But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, though you are small among the clans of Judah, out of you will come for me one who will be ruler over Israel, whose origins are from of old, from ancient times.”

The above verse talks about someone who will rule Israel and whose origin is from ancient times. Who but Jesus could fit that description?

John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God/Divine.

John 1:14
The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only,[ 1:14 Or the Only Begotten] who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Clearly, Jesus was with God in the beginning as the Word of God. This places his existence as before all things and thus comes as no surprise that he was there when God created all things.

The Angel of YHWH

We know from certain scriptures that Jesus is Lord of the Sabbath and many assume that Jesus gave the Law of God. We are told in Acts:7:30-39 for instance that an Angel of the Lord appeared to Moses through whom God spoke and this is the same Angel who spoke to Moses on Mount Sinai and passed on the living words (The Law) to Moses.

30 “After forty years had passed, an angel appeared to Moses in the flames of a burning bush in the desert near Mount Sinai.
31 When he saw this, he was amazed at the sight. As he went over to look more closely, he heard the Lord’s voice:
32 ‘I am the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.’Moses trembled with fear and did not dare to look.
33 “Then the Lord said to him, ‘Take off your sandals; the place where you are standing is holy ground.
34 I have indeed seen the oppression of my people in Egypt. I have heard their groaning and have come down to set them free. Now come, I will send you back to Egypt.’
35 “This is the same Moses whom they had rejected with the words, ‘Who made you ruler and judge?’ He was sent to be their ruler and deliverer by God himself, through the angel who appeared to him in the bush.
36 He led them out of Egypt and did wonders and miraculous signs in Egypt, at the Red Sea and for forty years in the desert.
37 “This is that Moses who told the Israelites, ‘God will send you a prophet like me from your own people.’
38 He was in the assembly in the desert, with the angel who spoke to him on Mount Sinai, and with our fathers; and he received living words to pass on to us.
39 “But our fathers refused to obey him. Instead, they rejected him and in their hearts turned back to Egypt.

So is this Angel of the Lord, Jesus? Well it seems possible. Perhaps the correct model to look at is the one mentioned in Revelation 1:1

The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,

Here we can see that the order of the Revelation started with the Originator which is God. He then passed the message to Jesus Christ who in turn sent it to his Angel and then to John. So perhaps it is possible that the angel in Revelation is the same angel mentioned in Acts:7:30-39.

But the Angel of YHWH or Angel of the LORD is described as one like the son of gods.

Daniel 3:24-25
Then Nebuchadnezzar the king was astounded and stood up in haste; he said to his high officials, “Was it not three men we cast bound into the midst of the fire?” They replied to the king, “Certainly, O king.” He said, “Look! I see four men loosed and walking about in the midst of the fire without harm, and the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods!”

The idea that a preincarnate Jesus was this Angel of the LORD is a popular one. We know that this Angel of the LORD is never mentioned while Jesus is walking the earth which supports this idea. But it could also be a coincidence. One connection that can be made with Jesus being this messenger is found in Judges 13:18.

Manoah said to the angel of the LORD, “What is your name, so that when your words come to pass, we may honor you?” But the angel of the LORD said to him, “Why do you ask my name, seeing it is wonderful?”

Now read what Isaiah prophesied in Isaiah 9:6 .

For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

Clearly, Isaiah was speaking of Jesus Christ and note that he was called Wonderful Counselor. Is there a connection here? Perhaps. What we do know is the word ‘angel’ is the same word messenger in the Old Testament, and while it is held that Jesus is not an angel in kind, we know he certainly was a messenger of YHWH and would be fair to say even ‘The Messenger of YHWH’.

So the idea that he may be this angel is not that far fetched. Some vehemently oppose this idea, but they are not aware that both Jesus and John are called angels in the messenger sense.

More to come here……

More proof that Jesus pre-existed

Rev 3:14
And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God.

Moving on we read the following in Philippians 2:5-11
5 Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus:
6 Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,
7 but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.
8 And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to death even death on a cross!
9 Therefore God exalted him to the highest place and gave him the name that is above every name,
10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

Surely the above verses assumes preexistence.  Look at verse 7: ‘but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness’. This verse points out that Jesus humbled himself to become a (or like a) human and also a servant. So this suggests to us that he preexisted in a higher state because to humble oneself is to become lower. If he started life in this humbled state, then it would be incorrect to say that he humbled himself. Further, he “found himself in appearance as a man” is a weird statement to make if he first existed as a human baby.

This verse is often used in support of the trinity doctrine because of the word ‘equal’. But if you are equal to something it means that you are not that thing, rather you are like that thing. This scripture is also very clear about the following: The Father is God and Jesus is Lord and that God exalted Jesus to the highest place.

A closer look at verse 9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: Now I am not sure if Jesus was exalted higher than he was before he came to this world or whether he was exalted to the exact position that he had before. But if we look at John 17:5 again we can see that Jesus asked to return to his former glory.

John 17:5
And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began.

The above verse is clear about Christ’s pre-existence in glory before the world began. Just to prove this is not an isolated scripture here is a similar verse:

John 16:28
I came from the Father and entered the world; now I am leaving the world and going back to the Father.”

The next verse also confirms that Jesus pre-existed in Heaven.

John 3:12-15
12 I have spoken to you of earthly things and you do not believe; how then will you believe if I speak of heavenly things?
13 No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven, the Son of Man.
14 Just as Moses lifted up the snake in the desert, so the Son of Man must be lifted up,
15 that everyone who believes in him may have eternal life.

Ezekiel 8:1-3
1 In the sixth year, in the sixth month on the fifth day, while I was sitting in my house and the elders of Judah were sitting before me, the hand of the Sovereign LORD came upon me there.
2 I looked, and I saw a figure like that of a man. From what appeared to be his waist down he was like fire, and from there up his appearance was as bright as glowing metal.
3 He stretched out what looked like a hand and took me by the hair of my head. The Spirit lifted me up between earth and heaven and in visions of God he took me to Jerusalem, to the entrance to the north gate of the inner court, where the idol that provokes to jealousy stood.

This verse is interesting in the sense that the description is very similar to the description of Jesus Christ in Revelation 1:12-18,

12 I turned around to see the voice that was speaking to me. And when I turned I saw seven golden lampstands,
13 and among the lampstands was someone “like a son of man,” dressed in a robe reaching down to his feet and with a golden sash around his chest.
14 His head and hair were white like wool, as white as snow, and his eyes were like blazing fire.
15 His feet were like bronze glowing in a furnace, and his voice was like the sound of rushing waters.
16 In his right hand he held seven stars, and out of his mouth came a sharp double-edged sword. His face was like the sun shining in all its brilliance.
17 When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. Then he placed his right hand on me and said: “Do not be afraid. I am the First and the Last.
18 I am the Living One; I was dead, and behold I am alive for ever and ever! And I hold the keys of death and Hades.

Have a look at the next verse. 1 Corinthians 11:3 (English-NIV)
Now I want you to realize that the head of every man is Christ, and the head of the woman is man, and the head of Christ is God.

Now the word head in the Greek is ‘kephale’ which can mean head, source or master. Now if we notice the order in a time sense, we have to admit that God is the first as he is the only one who has existed for all eternity with no beginning. We also know from scripture that the man came first and the woman came from the man. So that part is correct if we use a timeline. That just leaves Christ. Did he come between God and Man. I think so, as I believe that all things came from him and this opinion does fit perfectly into this model in a time sense at least. Anyway the word Christ here is ‘Christos’ which means “anointed”. So the anointed is the head of Man.
God > Christ > Man > Woman

If God created all things for his Son and his Son was the channel for that creation to come into being, then we can only assume that Christ existed at this point. As Genesis says: Let us make Man in our image. God was talking to Christ at this point and we know that Christ is the image of God and we are the image of Christ. Therefore the image of the image of God (man) is still the image of God. But Christ is the original and first image and we can only assume again that that image existed before the image of the image. A bit like a mirror that reflects a mirror, the original mirror has to exist in order to reflect the second mirror.

So we know that Christ preexisted before creation and now we will look at some more scriptures that show that he was born before creation itself?

Colossians 1:15-16
15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.
16 For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him.

The above verse is quite clear that ALL things were created by or through Jesus.

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So again, there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus/The Word being there. Only the Father and Son were not made. God has always existed and the Son was born from God before the creation of the universe, before anything was made. The next verse describes clearly who/what was the first of God’s works.

Proverbs 8:22-30
22 “The LORD brought me forth as the first of his works, {[22] Or ; or } {[22] Or ; or } before his deeds of old;
23 I was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
24 When there were no oceans, I was given birth, when there were no springs abounding with water;
25 before the mountains were settled in place, before the hills, I was given birth,
26 before he made the earth or its fields or any of the dust of the world.
27 I was there when he set the heavens in place, when he marked out the horizon on the face of the deep,
28 when he established the clouds above and fixed securely the fountains of the deep,
29 when he gave the sea its boundary so the waters would not overstep his command, and when he marked out the foundations of the earth.
30 Then I was the craftsman at his side. I was filled with delight day after day, rejoicing always in his presence,

This verse is talking about Wisdom, whom many believe is Christ. This scriptures compliments other scriptures that that teach that Jesus was given birth by God and then created all THINGS though him.

So from this verse we can see the following points.

Wisdom was brought forth as the first of Gods works.
Wisdom was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
Wisdom was given birth before creation.
Wisdom was the craftsman at his side and rejoiced in his presence before creation.
Some say that Wisdom isn’t Christ, rather this is just wisdom in a conceptual sense and it is true that wisdom is being spoken of in that way. But from verse 22 onward it changes tempo. With terms like I was given birth, I was the craftsman at his side and I was filled with delight, we have to admit that it seems to be talking about a person. Now have a look at the following verses:

1 Corinthians 1:24 (English-NIV)
but to those whom God has called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God.

1 Corinthians 1:30 (English-NIV)
It is because of him that you are in Christ Jesus, who has become for us wisdom from God–that is, our righteousness, holiness and redemption.

Let’s look at some other concepts that Jesus personifies:

Jesus is the Truth. Yet truth is also a concept.
Jesus is the Way. Yet the way is also a concept.
Jesus is the Life. Yet life can also be a concept.
Now look at the following mystery:

1 Corinthians 2:6-9
6 We do, however, speak a message of wisdom among the mature, but not the wisdom of this age or of the rulers of this age, who are coming to nothing.
7 No, we speak of God’s secret wisdom, a wisdom that has been hidden and that God destined for our glory before time began.
8 None of the rulers of this age understood it, for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.
9 However, as it is written:
“No eye has seen,
no ear has heard,
no mind has conceived
what God has prepared for those who love him”

Ephesians 3:8-10
8 Although I am less than the least of all God’s people, this grace was given me: to preach to the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ,
9 and to make plain to everyone the administration of this mystery, which for ages past was kept hidden in God, who created all things.
10 His intent was that now, through the church, the manifold wisdom of God should be made known to the rulers and authorities in the heavenly realms,

Perhaps another scripture alluding to Jesus being the Wisdom of God.

Finally I leave you with the following OT scripture that suggests that God had a Son before the birth Of Jesus Christ on earth.

Proverbs 30:4
Who has gone up to heaven and come down? Who has gathered up the wind in the hollow of his hands? Who has wrapped up the waters in his cloak? Who has established all the ends of the earth? What is his name, and the name of his son? Tell me if you know!


Discussion

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  • #271544
    Frank4YAHWEH
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Jan. 10 2012,09:16)

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Jan. 09 2012,14:26)
    Mike,

    Who do you believe the following verse speaks of or pertain to:

    “The days are coming,” declares Yahweh, “when I will raise up to David a righteous Branch, a King who will reign wisely and do what is just and right in the land (Yeremyah 23:5.


    Jesus.

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Jan. 09 2012,14:26)
    Now, who do you believe the following verse speaks of or pertain to:

    THIS IS THE NAME BY WHICH HE WILL BE CALLED: Yahweh Our Righteousness ().


    The verse refers to Jesus, but your translation is incorrect.  The name by which Jesus would be called is “Yahweh IS Our Righteousness”, not “Yahweh, our Righteousness”.

    In fact, Israel is also called by this same title in scripture.

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Jan. 09 2012,14:26)
    Whoever you believe the last part of this verse in speaking of or who it pertains to, do you believe that they are LITERALLY “Yahweh or Righteousness”?


    No to both counts.  It is similar to the name “Jesus”, which means “Jehovah is Salvation”.  The MANY people who have borne this name in history were neither “Jehovah Himself”, nor “Salvation”.


    Mike,

    I would agree that 'Yahweh Tzidhenu' (Yahweh Our Righteousness) would be better translated into our English language as 'Yahweh [IS] our Righteousness', to save confusion in one believing Yahshua is Yahweh, there are two Yahwehs or possibly that Ysryl and Yahdah are LITERALLY Yahweh as many have done in privately interpreting Yeremyah 23:6b). But, this is not the case, since names/titles given to nations and mere men do not always give direct reference to the one being named or titled as I had made known in a previous post. So, to say that this is properly translated as “Yahweh [IS] Our Righteousness” is not established from what has been translated from. What I had posted previously is as follows:

    “The Word of Yahweh”

    Yahshua's Name Is Called “The Word of Yahweh”
    Revelation 19:13

    Many erroneously believe since Yahshua is called or named “The Word of Yahweh” in Revelation 19:13 that he is and LITERALLY was the word of Yahweh and that he pre-existed as a separate being apart from his and our Father Yahweh in the beginning. This is not true! Father Yahweh's word is just that, His word. Father Yahweh's word is not a separate being apart from Himself. Yahshua is simply called or named “The Word of Yahweh” because he is the spokesman of his and our Father Yahweh's word in this last time period as Hebrews 1:1-2 makes perfectly clear. Following is a list of Hebrews names and their meanings. Note that the meanings of these names do not LITERALLY mean that they are the meanings of their names:

    Hagyah [Haggai]: meaning – 'Feast of Yahweh'
    Moadyah [Moadian]: meaning – 'Appointed Feast of Yahweh'

    Hagyah and Moadyah were not LITERALLY Yahweh's feasts!

    Pelalyah [Pelaliah]: meaning – 'Judgment of Yahweh'

    Pelalyah was not LITERALLY Yahweh's Judgment!

    Tobyah [Tobiah]: meaning – 'Righteousness of Yahweh'
    Yahshaphat [Jehoshaphat, Joshaphat]: meaning – 'Judgment of Yahweh'

    Tobyah and Yahshaphat were not LITERALLY Yahweh's Judgment!

    Uzzyah [Uzziah]: meaning – 'Strength of Yahweh'
    Yliyah [Elijah]: meaning – 'Strength of Yahweh'

    Uzzyah and Yliyah were not LITERALLY Yahweh's strength!

    Yahshabbth [Jehoshabeath]: meaning – 'Sabbath of Yahweh'

    Yahshabbth was not LITERALLY Yahweh's Sabbath!

    Zedekyah [Zedekiah, Zidkayah]: meaning – 'Righteousness of Yahweh'

    Zedekyah was not LITERALLY Yahweh's righteousness!

    Kolayah [Kolaiah]: meaning – 'Voice of Yahweh'

    Kolayah was not LITERALLY the voice of Yahweh!

    The same is true with Yahshua being called by the name/title “The Word of Yahweh”. Yahshua was not LITERALLY the word of Yahweh! Yahshua most certainly was not his and our Father Yahweh's word in the beginning as a separate being apart from Himself!

    SOURCE

    Following is the study that I had promised that I would present when you answered my question:

    YAHWEH OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS
    Jeremiah 23:5,6
    4/17/97

    “Behold, the days come, saith Yahweh, that I will raise unto David a righteous Branch, and a king shall reign and proper, and shall execute judgment and justice in the earth. In his day Judah shall be saved, and Israel shall dwell safely, and this is the name whereby he shall be called, The LORD [Yahweh] Our Righteousness” (Jer. 23:5,6 KJV).

    Just as the name Yahshua means “Yahweh's salvation,” so in the future time someone will, at least ceremonially, be called “Yahweh our righteousness.” The question is, who? If indeed this speaks of Yahshua the Messiah, as some believe, wonderful. If not, so be it.

    The subject in verse 5 is The Branch, but in verse 6 the salvation of Judah and Israel. The Berkely Version has a footnote on Jer. 23:6 which reads as follows:

    “Receiving a name symbolizing the ideal character displayed by the NATION [Isa. 1:26; 61:11], for God, as we now know, in Christ, is the source of our righteousness” (Emphasis added).

    Notice How It Reads

    To arrive at a perfectly clear understanding, let us again carefully review Jeremiah 23:5,6.

    “Behold, the days come, saith Yahweh, that I will raise unto David a righteous Branch, and a king shall reign and proper, and shall execute judgment and justice in the earth” (Jer. 23:5, KJV).

    In verse 5, two parties are spoken of: (1) David, and (2) David's descendant, The Branch (Yahshua, the Messiah). At some future time, The Branch will reign and prosper.

    In his [Yahshua'a] day Judah shall be saved, and Israel shall dwell safely: and this is his name whereby he shall be called, Yahweh Our Righteousness” (Jer. 23:6).

    Notice: Judah and Israel will be saved (verse 6a). The first HIS (verse 6a) speaks of The Branch; not Judah, not Israel. Now for the second HIS. “And this is HIS name whereby HE shall be called, Yahweh Our Righteousness” (verse 6b). Question: To whom does the second His and He refer? To Judah and Israel, or to The Branch (Yahshua)?

    The correct answer is, the second HIS and HE refer to Israel and Judah, not to The Branch (verse 6b). I say this with confidence because of the related prophecy which is almost identical:

    “Behold, the days come, saith Yahweh, that I will perform that good thing which I promised unto the house of Israel and to the house of Judah. In those days, and at that time, will I cause the Branch of
    righteousness [Yahshua] to grow up unto David; and He [The Branch, Yahshua] shall execute judgment and righteousness in the land. In those days shall Judah be saved, and Jerusalem shall dwell safely: and this is the name wherewith SHE [Jerusalem] shall be called, Yahweh Our Righteousness” (Jer. 33:14-16).*

    Is The Branch (Yahshua) a SHE? No. But Jerusalem was often referred to as “she;” sometimes a homonym for Judah aslo (Ezek. 16:1-8). Both Israel and Judah were sometimes spoken of as women {she} (Hosea 2:1-18; Amos 5:12; 6:2). Jerusalem will be called, “Yahweh is there” (Ezek. 48:35). Jerusalem will be called “the city of righteousness, the faithful city” (Isa. 1:1,26).

    Of several other versions which agree fully with the King James Version, the Beck Version is crystal clear:

    “Then Judah will be saved and Jerusalem live without danger, and the CITY will be called “The-LORD-our-righteousness” [Yahweh-our-righteousness] (Jer. 33:16 Beck Version).

    Conclusion

    The title, Yahweh Our Righteousness” is not a reference to Yahshua, but to Judah, Israel, and especially to Jerusalem. This will occur at a future time when Yahweh and Yahshua the Messiah execute judgment and justice in the earth (Jer. 23:6) Obviously, that time has not yet come, because justice is not in the earth today. We wait for that day with patience (Rom. 8:18-26).

    Blessed will be the day when Jerusalem will be called “Yahweh our righteousness.”

    Come Yahshua Messiah.

    * A footnote in the Berkely Version reads as follows” “Our righteousness due to God: expression of the ideal character which the NATION will then display [ch. 23:6]; future ideal king, see the symbolic name, 'the LORD is there,' in Ezek. 48:35” (Emphasis added).

    JEREMIAH 33:16 – SHE = THE CITY OF JERUSALEM

    VERSIONS WHICH AGREE WITH THE KING JAMES

    King James Version (Companion Bible; see Bullinger's Notes)
    New King James Version
    Revised Standard Version
    New Revised Standard Version
    American Standard Version
    New American Standard Version
    New English Bible
    Beck Version*
    Amplified Version
    New American Bible
    Good News Bible*
    Moffatt Translation
    Bethel Bible
    Jerusalem Bible*
    Jewish Publication Society O.T. (1985)
    New World Translation
    Bible In Basic English
    NIV Interlinear Hebrew/English/ Translation
    Zodhiates Complete O.T. Word Study

    SOURCE

    #271547
    Frank4YAHWEH
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Jan. 10 2012,11:29)

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Jan. 09 2012,18:17)
    Mike,

    Do you not believe that one can have esteem for his own son (daughter, children) before they are even born or come into existence?


    No Frank, I don't.  I'm not trying to be rude, but I would call that as illogical as thinking a “thought in God's head” could be said to be WITH Him, or said to “EXIST”.

    But what about the second part of my question?  What did it mean for the now existent Jesus to be asking to be returned to the same glory he had “as a thought in God's head”?  Did Jesus want to cease from existing and go back to being a thought in God's head?  ???

    Also Frank, you are looking at this as if GOD is the one speaking about Jesus' past glory.  So whether or not GOD had a “fore-esteem” for who He knew His Son would someday be, it doesn't add up to JESUS knowing about this esteem HE HAD, or wanting to go back to that “thought” esteem.

    And don't forget that THE PERSON JESUS is the one who said “the glory I HAD WITH YOU……..”  In other words, it was THE PERSON JESUS saying that THE PERSON JESUS had glory alongside his God before the world was created.

    A person would have no idea about any esteem they were held in before they existed, nor could it logically be called “their glory” since “they” did not exist to “have” that glory.

    According to Jesus' own words, HE HAD this glory in the past.


    Mike,

    Sorry to hear that you would not have esteem for a son (daughter, child) that had not yet been born or came into existence. Would you express such a rude thought to your wife who was expecting a son (daughter, child) of yours? The truth is, I do not really believe that you would fell this way. I believe you simply do not want to give up your doctrine of a false pre-existent “Jesus”.

    Quote
    ]I would call that as illogical as thinking a “thought in God's head” could be said to be WITH Him, or said to “EXIST”.

    Or as illogical as me saying “My thoughts are with you!”, right? :;):

    Yahshua did not ask “to be returned to the same [esteem] he had “as a thought in Yahweh's head”.

    #271572
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Frank, how many people have you told the following about yourself.

    You existed in the form of God, emptied yourself, came in the flesh, and will eventually die and be in the glory you had with God before the world began.

    Is the answer none? I thought so.

    So why is it that if Jesus is like us and started life on his birthday like us, that you do not go around saying the same thing about yourself.

    Seems a bit strange don't you think? Try to think why that is.

    #271622
    Frank4YAHWEH
    Participant

    Quote (t8 @ Jan. 10 2012,15:49)
    Frank, how many people have you told the following about yourself.

    You existed in the form of God, emptied yourself, came in the flesh, and will eventually die and be in the glory you had with God before the world began.

    Is the answer none? I thought so.

    So why is it that if Jesus is like us and started life on his birthday like us, that you do not go around saying the same thing about yourself.

    Seems a bit strange don't you think? Try to think why that is.


    t8,

    What kind of useless crap are you spewing now? ???

    #271632
    Frank4YAHWEH
    Participant

    To ALL,

    I have placed a new “FEATURE LINK” on my web page “Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?” to a book entitled The Restitution of Jesus Christ by Servetus the Evangelical (a.k.a. Kermit Zarley). Following is an article based on the book:

    Did Jesus Empty Himself of Any Divine Attributes?
    by Servetus the Evangelical

    The Apostle Paul wrote to the Christians at Philippi, exhorting them to be humble
    and love one another (Philippians 2.1-4). Then he added what all modern scholars insist
    is a pre-existing hymn whose composer remains unknown. Paul introduces this hymn by
    telling readers, “Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus” (v. 5).
    Then he begins the hymn by saying, “who, although He existed in the form of God, did
    not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, but emptied Himself, taking the form
    of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men …” (vv. 6-7).
        Philippians 2.6-11 has had a most profound impact on the history of Christology.
    H.E. Todt says of it, “Christological doctrine has been developed in Protestantism mainly
    with regard to the concepts expressed in Phil. 2. The synoptic texts were interpreted to
    conform to this passage.” It should have been vice versa.
        Consequently, Philippians 2.6-11 has been hotly debated among modern scholars.
    N.T. Wright says the main reason is that it “is one of the most notoriously complex
    passages” in all of Paul’s New Testament (NT) letters. Due to the necessary brevity of this
    article, we will only be able to scratch the surface of this scholarly discussion.
        Two contrasting interpretations of Philippians 2.6-11 have prevailed among scholars.
    The traditional “incarnational” or “preexistent interpretation,” which still dominates to
    the present, means that vv. 6-7 presents Jesus as personally existing in heaven prior to his
    earthly life and being equal with God the Father. The “anthropological” or “human
    interpretation,” which is gaining favor with scholars, means that vv. 6-8 refers only to
    Jesus’ earthly life and therefore has nothing to do with preexistence or incarnation.
        Those who adopt the preexistent interpretation of this Philippians 2 hymn view it in
    three stages: preexistence in v. 6, incarnation in vv. 7-8, and heavenly exaltation in vv. 9-
    11. They interpret “form of God” in v. 6 as Jesus having preexisted eternally as a distinct
    hypostasis or Person, being the Logos of John 1.1-18, by possessing the same divine
    nature as that of God the Father, which makes him equal with the Father.
        How one interprets the expression, “in the form of God” (Gr. en morphe theou),
    largely determines the interpretation of the remainder of the hymn. This critical phrase is
    difficult partly because, except for cognates, morphe (“form”) occurs only twice in the
    Greek NT, both being here in vv. 6-7. In most Greek literature, morphe means “outward
    appearance,” that is, what can be perceived only by the senses. So, “form of God” seems
    to refer to Jesus’ bodily existence rather than a pre-temporal, ontological preexistence.
        Proponents of the human interpretation of Philippians 2.6-11 have searched the Old
    Testament (OT) for links to this hymn as the key to understanding its author’s intended
    meaning. Thus, they link Jesus existing “in the form of God” with Adam being made in
    the “image (of God),” as in Genesis 1.27; 5.3. In support, Paul elsewhere describes Jesus
    as God’s “image” (Greek eikon; 2 Corinthians 4.4; Col 1.15). Accordingly, the hymn
    begins by saying Jesus was in the image of God, like Adam, called Adam Christology.
        What does the hymn mean by saying that Jesus “did not regard equality with God a
    thing to be grasped”? Scholars who adopt the preexistent interpretation usually insist it
    means that prior to Jesus’ incarnation, as the Logos, he possessed “equality with God”
    and relinquished it at the moment of incarnation. But if the Logos could have grasped at
    equality with God, He did not possess it and thus could not have been equal with God.
        Proponents of the human interpretation of this hymn link “equality with God” to
    “like God” in Genesis 3.5. Recall that Adam sinned because Satan deceived Eve, saying
    that if she ate the forbidden fruit, “you will be like God, knowing good and evil.” This lie
    means they could attain “equality with God” regarding knowledge and wisdom (v. 6).
        What does the hymn mean by saying that Jesus “emptied Himself”? Proponents of
    the preexistent interpretation of the hymn have understood this mostly in one of two
    ways, that at Jesus’ incarnation he divested himself of his relative divine attributes or he
    merely chose not to exercise some of them during his incarnation. These suggestions are
    called Kenotic Christology because the root word for “emptied” in the Greek text is
    kenosis. But either of these suggestions raises serious problems. A divesture of any of
    these divine attributes—for example, omniscience, omnipresence, and omnipotence—
    would have been necessary because they are incompatible with being human, yet such
    divestiture necessarily results in something less than full deity.
        Some proponents of the human interpretation have linked “emptied Himself” (Gr.
    heauton ekenosen) with “poured out Himself to death” (Heb. nephesho lamoot herah) in
    Isaiah 53.12. Joachim Jeremias convincingly championed this background for the hymn.
    He said of these words in Philippians 2.7, “The use of Is. 53:12 shows that the expression
    heauton ekenosen implies the surrender of life, not the kenosis of the incarnation.”
        Indeed. Paul introduced this hymn by saying, “Do nothing from selfishness or empty
    conceit, but with humility of mind” (Philippians 2.3), which he says was Jesus’ attitude
    (v. 5). Therefore, Paul likely understood this hymn to mean that Jesus emptied Himself of
    self by submitting to God’s plan for his life. It is the cross of Christ, not incarnation,
    which is the epitome of Jesus’ self-denial depicted in the NT. And it is only in this sense,
    rather than incarnation, that Paul can legitimately set forth an example for his readers to
    follow. Therefore, Jesus did not deny himself by laying aside or suppressing certain
    divine attributes at his birth, but by doing acts of moral character throughout his life that
    culminated in death on a cross, resulting in salvation for all those who believe in him.
        In my book, The Restitution of Jesus Christ, I devote 21 pages to the interpretation of
    Philippians 2.5-11. In doing so, I cite 45 scholars and their works plus 4 church fathers.

    [PDF] SOURCE

    #271647
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    Quote (t8 @ Jan. 10 2012,15:49)
    Frank, how many people have you told the following about yourself.

    You existed in the form of God, emptied yourself, came in the flesh, and will eventually die and be in the glory you had with God before the world began.

    Is the answer none? I thought so.

    So why is it that if Jesus is like us and started life on his birthday like us, that you do not go around saying the same thing about yourself.

    Seems a bit strange don't you think? Try to think why that is.


    T8………My hope is for you and all of us we are doing the same thing Jesus did now, Or have you not read NOW we are the Son of the Living GOD Yes T8, rigth now brother while we walk this earth everyday brother. And you are also in the Form or Image of the Living GOD If Christ be formed (IN) YOU.

    peace and love brother…………………………………..gene

    #271653
    terraricca
    Participant

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Jan. 11 2012,14:25)
    To ALL,

    I have placed a new “FEATURE LINK” on my web page “Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?” to a book entitled The Restitution of Jesus Christ by Servetus the Evangelical (a.k.a. Kermit Zarley). Following is an article based on the book:

    Did Jesus Empty Himself of Any Divine Attributes?
    by Servetus the Evangelical

    The Apostle Paul wrote to the Christians at Philippi, exhorting them to be humble
    and love one another (Philippians 2.1-4). Then he added what all modern scholars insist
    is a pre-existing hymn whose composer remains unknown. Paul introduces this hymn by
    telling readers, “Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus” (v. 5).
    Then he begins the hymn by saying, “who, although He existed in the form of God, did
    not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, but emptied Himself, taking the form
    of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men …” (vv. 6-7).
        Philippians 2.6-11 has had a most profound impact on the history of Christology.
    H.E. Todt says of it, “Christological doctrine has been developed in Protestantism mainly
    with regard to the concepts expressed in Phil. 2. The synoptic texts were interpreted to
    conform to this passage.” It should have been vice versa.
        Consequently, Philippians 2.6-11 has been hotly debated among modern scholars.
    N.T. Wright says the main reason is that it “is one of the most notoriously complex
    passages” in all of Paul’s New Testament (NT) letters. Due to the necessary brevity of this
    article, we will only be able to scratch the surface of this scholarly discussion.
        Two contrasting interpretations of Philippians 2.6-11 have prevailed among scholars.
    The traditional “incarnational” or “preexistent interpretation,” which still dominates to
    the present, means that vv. 6-7 presents Jesus as personally existing in heaven prior to his
    earthly life and being equal with God the Father. The “anthropological” or “human
    interpretation,” which is gaining favor with scholars, means that vv. 6-8 refers only to
    Jesus’ earthly life and therefore has nothing to do with preexistence or incarnation.
        Those who adopt the preexistent interpretation of this Philippians 2 hymn view it in
    three stages: preexistence in v. 6, incarnation in vv. 7-8, and heavenly exaltation in vv. 9-
    11. They interpret “form of God” in v. 6 as Jesus having preexisted eternally as a distinct
    hypostasis or Person, being the Logos of John 1.1-18, by possessing the same divine
    nature as that of God the Father, which makes him equal with the Father.
        How one interprets the expression, “in the form of God” (Gr. en morphe theou),
    largely determines the interpretation of the remainder of the hymn. This critical phrase is
    difficult partly because, except for cognates, morphe (“form”) occurs only twice in the
    Greek NT, both being here in vv. 6-7. In most Greek literature, morphe means “outward
    appearance,” that is, what can be perceived only by the senses. So, “form of God” seems
    to refer to Jesus’ bodily existence rather than a pre-temporal, ontological preexistence.
        Proponents of the human interpretation of Philippians 2.6-11 have searched the Old
    Testament (OT) for links to this hymn as the key to understanding its author’s intended
    meaning. Thus, they link Jesus existing “in the form of God” with Adam being made in
    the “image (of God),” as in Genesis 1.27; 5.3. In support, Paul elsewhere describes Jesus
    as God’s “image” (Greek eikon; 2 Corinthians 4.4; Col 1.15). Accordingly, the hymn
    begins by saying Jesus was in the image of God, like Adam, called Adam Christology.
        What does the hymn mean by saying that Jesus “did not regard equality with God a
    thing to be grasped”? Scholars who adopt the preexistent interpretation usually insist it
    means that prior to Jesus’ incarnation, as the Logos, he possessed “equality with God”
    and relinquished it at the moment of incarnation. But if the Logos could have grasped at
    equality with God, He did not possess it and thus could not have been equal with God.
        Proponents of the human interpretation of this hymn link “equality with God” to
    “like God” in Genesis 3.5. Recall that Adam sinned because Satan deceived Eve, saying
    that if she ate the forbidden fruit, “you will be like God, knowing good and evil.” This lie
    means they could attain “equality with God” regarding knowledge and wisdom (v. 6).
        What does the hymn mean by saying that Jesus “emptied Himself”? Proponents of
    the preexistent interpretation of the hymn have understood this mostly in one of two
    ways, that at Jesus’ incarnation he divested himself of his relative divine attributes or he
    merely chose not to exercise some of them during his incarnation. These suggestions are
    called Kenotic Christology because the root word for “emptied” in the Greek text is
    kenosis. But either of these suggestions raises serious problems. A divesture of any of
    these divine attributes—for example, omniscience, omnipresence, and omnipotence—
    would have been necessary because they are incompatible with being human, yet such
    divestiture necessarily results in something less than full deity.
        Some proponents of the human interpretation have linked “emptied Himself” (Gr.
    heauton ekenosen) with “poured out Himself to death” (Heb. nephesho lamoot herah) in
    Isaiah 53.12. Joachim Jeremias convincingly championed this background for the hymn.
    He said of these words in Philippians 2.7, “The use of Is. 53:12 shows that the expression
    heauton ekenosen implies the surrender of life, not the kenosis of the incarnation.”
        Indeed. Paul introduced this hymn by saying, “Do nothing from selfishness or empty
    conceit, but with humility of mind” (Philippians 2.3), which he says was Jesus’ attitude
    (v. 5). Therefore, Paul likely understood this hymn to mean that Jesus emptied Himself of
    self by submitting to God’s plan for his life. It is the cross of Christ, not incarnation,
    which is the epitome of Jesus’ self-denial depicted in the NT. And it is only in this sense,
    rather than incarnation, that Paul can legitimately set forth an example for his readers to
    follow. Therefore, Jesus did not deny himself by laying aside or suppressing certain
    divine attributes at his birth, but by doing acts of moral character throughout his life that
    culminated in death on a cross, resulting in salvation for all those who believe in him.
        In my book, The Restitution of Jesus Christ, I devote 21 pages to the interpretation of
    Philippians 2.5-11. In doing so, I cite 45 scholars and their works plus 4 church fathers.

    [PDF] SOURCE


    frank

    it seems you spend lost of time for very little true knowledge in return,

    it take you many studies to come to the same understanding as a simple and honest man that only need to read the scriptures,

    why is that ??

    Pierre

    #271656
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    Pierre…………That is because of all the confusion out there in the world about , Jesus Preexisting as a Angels or a GOD or a what ever. Your fellow Preexistences the Trinitarian have done their Job of confusing people well brother They like you have muddied the waters of truth so much no one can see the truth hardly, unless God is With them and brings them out of all that confusion out there. IMO

    peace and love …………………………………………….gene

    #271657
    terraricca
    Participant

    Quote (Gene Balthrop @ Jan. 11 2012,16:39)

    Quote (t8 @ Jan. 10 2012,15:49)
    Frank, how many people have you told the following about yourself.

    You existed in the form of God, emptied yourself, came in the flesh, and will eventually die and be in the glory you had with God before the world began.

    Is the answer none? I thought so.

    So why is it that if Jesus is like us and started life on his birthday like us, that you do not go around saying the same thing about yourself.

    Seems a bit strange don't you think? Try to think why that is.


    T8………My hope is for you and all of us we are doing the same thing Jesus did now, Or have you not read NOW we are the Son of the Living GOD Yes T8, rigth now brother while we walk this earth everyday brother.  And you are also in the Form or Image of the Living GOD If Christ be formed (IN) YOU.

    peace and love brother…………………………………..gene


    gene

    Quote
    T8………My hope is for you and all of us we are doing the same thing Jesus did now, Or have you not read NOW we are the Son of the Living GOD Yes T8, rigth now brother while we walk this earth everyday brother. And you are also in the Form or Image of the Living GOD If Christ be formed (IN) YOU.

    so if I read you clearly ;you have for God the same LOVE that Christ Has right ?

    and so you have the same attitude toward Gods will as Christ had right ??

    and so you lips are not in no way try or do deceitful comments
    but only the truth comes out of you ,right ???

    and your understanding are all in according to the scriptures and the will of God,right ??

    and so their is no doubt in your heart ,about your faith ,so that now you can move mountains ,right ??

    it takes all the above to be in Christ and be one with him ,

    can you say that this is all your case,??

    Pierre

    #271658
    terraricca
    Participant

    Quote (Gene Balthrop @ Jan. 11 2012,17:07)
    Pierre…………That is because of all the confusion out there in the world about , Jesus Preexisting  as a Angels or a GOD or a what ever. Your fellow Preexistences the Trinitarian have done their Job of confusing people well brother They like you have muddied the waters of truth so much no one can see the truth hardly, unless God is With them and brings them out of all that confusion out there. IMO

    peace and love …………………………………………….gene


    gene

    no,that is not the answer,that is finger pointing

    Pierre

    #271662
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Jan. 09 2012,20:52)
    Mike,

    Sorry to hear that you would not have esteem for a son (daughter, child) that had not yet been born or came into existence. Would you express such a rude thought to your wife who was expecting a son (daughter, child) of yours?


    Come on now, Frank.  :)  I haven't the foggiest idea what “glory” my 10 year old son will someday have.  I pray he will be a fisher of men.  God forbid he become a murderer.  But who knows – he could die in a car accident tomorrow for all I know.

    Holding him in some future esteem he might have seems silly, and you know that about your children as well.

    But, you are missing the main point here, and I hope this time you WILL address it:

    THE PERSON JESUS is the one who said “glorify me now with the glory I HAD alongside you before the creation of the world.”  

    Frank, it was THE PERSON JESUS saying that THE PERSON JESUS had glory alongside his God before the world was created.

    How do you explain THE PERSON JESUS having glory with God before the world was, if THE PERSON JESUS didn't yet exist?

    #271664
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Jan. 10 2012,10:45)

    Quote (t8 @ Jan. 10 2012,15:49)
    Frank, how many people have you told the following about yourself.

    You existed in the form of God, emptied yourself, came in the flesh, and will eventually die and be in the glory you had with God before the world began.

    Is the answer none? I thought so.

    So why is it that if Jesus is like us and started life on his birthday like us, that you do not go around saying the same thing about yourself.

    Seems a bit strange don't you think? Try to think why that is.


    t8,

    What kind of useless crap are you spewing now?  ???


    Let me rephrase it for t8, since you're pretending not to get his point:

    I existed in the form of God.  Then I emptied myself and was made into a human being.  But I know that when I eventually die, God will return me to the glory that I already had alongside Him before the world was created through me.

    Frank, can YOU make that statement?  Jesus could.  See the difference?

    #271667
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Jan. 09 2012,20:37)
    Mike,

    I would agree that 'Yahweh Tzidhenu' (Yahweh Our Righteousness) would be better translated into our English language as 'Yahweh [IS] our Righteousness'……………

    Many erroneously believe since Yahshua is called or named “The Word of Yahweh” in Revelation 19:13 that he is and LITERALLY was the word of Yahweh and that he pre-existed as a separate being apart from his and our Father Yahweh in the beginning. This is not true!


    Frank,

    You have not yet answered my query about this:
    A title often describes the function served or the duty performed by the bearer. So it was with the title Kal-Hatzé, meaning “the word of the king,” that was given an Abyssinian officer. Based on his travels from 1768 to 1773, James Bruce describes the duties of the Kal-Hatzé as follows. He stood by a window covered with a curtain through which, unseen inside, the king spoke to this officer. He then conveyed the message to the persons or party concerned. Thus the Kal-Hatzé acted as the word or voice of the Abyssinian king.—Travels to Discover the Source of the Nile, London, 1790, Vol. III, p. 265; Vol. IV, p. 76.

    Assuming for a moment that this was a Jewish custom, we see to what the ancient Jewish paraphrasts referred by their term, ‘Word of JEHOVAH,’ instead of JEHOVAH himself; and the idea was familiar to their recollection, and to that of their readers: a no less necessary consideration than that of their own recollection. . . . Shall we not, hereafter, acquit the evangelists from adopting the mythological conceptions of Plato? Rather, did not Plato adopt eastern language, and is not the custom still retained in the East?  See all accounts of an ambassador’s visit to the grand seignior; who never himself answers, but directs his vizier to speak for him. So in Europe, the king of France directs his keeper of the seals to speak in his name; and so the lord chancellor in England prorogues the parliament, expressing his majesty’s pleasure, and using his majesty’s name, though in his majesty’s presence.—Quoted from page 935 of Calmet’s Dictionary of The Holy Bible

    Frank, is it possible for a spokesperson of a king to have the title “The Word of the King”?  YES.  Is it therefore possible for the spokesperson of God to have the title “The Word of God”?  You have agreed the answer is “YES”, as is demonstrated in Rev 19:13, right?

    So far, we are both in agreement, I believe.  But…………………

    Frank, is it possible that this spokesperson called The Word of God is the “HE” who was with God in the beginning before “HE” became flesh and dwelled among mankind, displaying the glory of God's only begotten Son?

    Of course the answer is an unequivocal “YES”, and is supported by MANY scriptures, including Phil 2:6-8.

    #271671
    Ed J
    Participant

    Hi Mike,

    A much better example would be
    a burned image of yourself on a CD.

    In the beginning was the CD,
    and the CD was with Mike,
    and the CD was Mike.

    Now the CD can be passed around,
    because in it is the essence of Mike.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #271674
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Ed, a CD OF me that was WITH me cannot possibly BE me.

    #271682
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Jan. 11 2012,11:18)
    Ed, a CD OF me that was WITH me cannot possibly BE me.


    Hi Mike,

    I said it was you, I didn't say you were it?

    If someone does not tell the truth, that,
    in and of itself, does not mean that they lied.

    Like when I asked David to confirm that the JW's
    teach that non-members are non-Christian.

    When I asked for the truth, he did not tell me the truth,
    but neither did he lie. He instead avoided, diverted, and distracted.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #271771
    Frank4YAHWEH
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Jan. 11 2012,10:39)

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Jan. 10 2012,10:45)

    Quote (t8 @ Jan. 10 2012,15:49)
    Frank, how many people have you told the following about yourself.

    You existed in the form of God, emptied yourself, came in the flesh, and will eventually die and be in the glory you had with God before the world began.

    Is the answer none? I thought so.

    So why is it that if Jesus is like us and started life on his birthday like us, that you do not go around saying the same thing about yourself.

    Seems a bit strange don't you think? Try to think why that is.


    t8,

    What kind of useless crap are you spewing now?  ???


    Let me rephrase it for t8, since you're pretending not to get his point:

    I existed in the form of God.  Then I emptied myself and was made into a human being.  But I know that when I eventually die, God will return me to the glory that I already had alongside Him before the world was created through me.

    Frank, can YOU make that statement?  Jesus could.  See the difference?


    Mike,

    It seems that you are spewing the same crap that t8 has previously spewed! ???

    #271773
    Frank4YAHWEH
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Jan. 11 2012,11:00)

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Jan. 09 2012,20:37)
    Mike,

    I would agree that 'Yahweh Tzidhenu' (Yahweh Our Righteousness) would be better translated into our English language as 'Yahweh [IS] our Righteousness'……………

    Many erroneously believe since Yahshua is called or named “The Word of Yahweh” in Revelation 19:13 that he is and LITERALLY was the word of Yahweh and that he pre-existed as a separate being apart from his and our Father Yahweh in the beginning. This is not true!


    Frank,

    You have not yet answered my query about this:
    A title often describes the function served or the duty performed by the bearer. So it was with the title Kal-Hatzé, meaning “the word of the king,” that was given an Abyssinian officer. Based on his travels from 1768 to 1773, James Bruce describes the duties of the Kal-Hatzé as follows. He stood by a window covered with a curtain through which, unseen inside, the king spoke to this officer. He then conveyed the message to the persons or party concerned. Thus the Kal-Hatzé acted as the word or voice of the Abyssinian king.—Travels to Discover the Source of the Nile, London, 1790, Vol. III, p. 265; Vol. IV, p. 76.

    Assuming for a moment that this was a Jewish custom, we see to what the ancient Jewish paraphrasts referred by their term, ‘Word of JEHOVAH,’ instead of JEHOVAH himself; and the idea was familiar to their recollection, and to that of their readers: a no less necessary consideration than that of their own recollection. . . . Shall we not, hereafter, acquit the evangelists from adopting the mythological conceptions of Plato? Rather, did not Plato adopt eastern language, and is not the custom still retained in the East?  See all accounts of an ambassador’s visit to the grand seignior; who never himself answers, but directs his vizier to speak for him. So in Europe, the king of France directs his keeper of the seals to speak in his name; and so the lord chancellor in England prorogues the parliament, expressing his majesty’s pleasure, and using his majesty’s name, though in his majesty’s presence.—Quoted from page 935 of Calmet’s Dictionary of The Holy Bible

    Frank, is it possible for a spokesperson of a king to have the title “The Word of the King”?  YES.  Is it therefore possible for the spokesperson of God to have the title “The Word of God”?  You have agreed the answer is “YES”, as is demonstrated in Rev 19:13, right?

    So far, we are both in agreement, I believe.  But…………………

    Frank, is it possible that this spokesperson called The Word of God is the “HE” who was with God in the beginning before “HE” became flesh and dwelled among mankind, displaying the glory of God's only begotten Son?

    Of course the answer is an unequivocal “YES”, and is supported by MANY scriptures, including Phil 2:6-8.


    Mike,

    “[T]he Kal-Hatzé acted as the word or voice of the Abyssinian king.”, but was Kal-Hatzé LITERALLY the word or voice of the Abyssinian king.”? No!

    Quote
    Frank, is it possible that this spokesperson called The Word of God is the “HE” who was with God in the beginning before “HE” became flesh and dwelled among mankind, displaying the glory of God's only begotten Son?

    The answer would be an unequivocal “NO”, since you know full well I do not believe nor do I believe Scripture teaches that Yahshua pre-existed his birth as an actual being with his and our Father Yahweh in the beginning.

    Did Yahshua Craete Or Pre-exist his birth?

    “Jesus IS God!”?

    The Name Yahweh

    #271791
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Jan. 11 2012,13:13)
    “[T]he Kal-Hatzé acted as the word or voice of the Abyssinian king.”, but was Kal-Hatzé LITERALLY the word or voice of the Abyssinian king.”? No!


    Okay, we are at least making progress, Frank.  Not only did Kal Hatze act as the word of the king, he had the title “The Word of the King”, right?

    So if I said that the king was with his word in the courtyard, a sensible person would assume I was talking about the king's spokesman, Kal Hatze, and not about the king hanging out WITH his own spoken words in the courtyard.

    And if I said the word of the king was flesh, and had the glory of nobility, sensible people would still know I was referring to Kal Hatze, and not to the king's spoken words.

    This is similar to the teaching in John 1.  John tells us that God's Word was WITH Him in the beginning.  He tells us that all things came into being through this SINGLE Word of God.  He tells us that the Word of God came into a world that was made through HIM (personal pronoun), but the world didn't recognize him.  (How are we supposed to recognize a spoken word, Frank?  ??? )  

    John goes on to tell us that the Word of God became flesh.  What does that part mean?  Can a SINGLE (not plural) spoken word of God BECOME FLESH?  In what way?

    John further tells us that this Word of God displayed the glory that God's only begotten Son would have on earth.  (Would one single spoken word from God have the glory of His own Son?  ??? )

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Jan. 11 2012,13:13)

    Quote (mikeboll @ 64)
    Frank, is it possible that this spokesperson called The Word of God is the “HE” who was with God in the beginning before “HE” became flesh and dwelled among mankind, displaying the glory of God's only begotten Son?

    The answer would be an unequivocal “NO”, since you know full well I do not believe nor do I believe Scripture teaches that Yahshua pre-existed his birth as an actual being with his and our Father Yahweh in the beginning.


    Yes Frank, I know what you believe.  I'm asking if it is POSSIBLE that the Word of God who was with God in the beginning could be the same Word of God described in Rev 19:13.  You said “NO”, but could you tell me why it's not even POSSIBLE?  “Because I don't believe that!” is not a valid reason, Frank.  

    Frank, please give a VALID reason why the Word of God in John 1:1 and 14 cannot possibly be the same person as the Word of God in Rev 19:13.

    #271793
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Jan. 11 2012,12:51)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Jan. 11 2012,10:39)
    I existed in the form of God.  Then I emptied myself and was made into a human being.  But I know that when I eventually die, God will return me to the glory that I already had alongside Him before the world was created through me.

    Frank, can YOU make that statement?


    Mike,

    It seems that you are spewing the same crap that t8 has previously spewed! ???


    Yeah, yeah…………..  we're all spewing crap.  :)

    Now, will you actually answer the question?  Or will you continue to hide from it behind insults?

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