JOHN 1:1 who is the WORD?

Viewing 20 posts - 17,761 through 17,780 (of 25,925 total)
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  • #770300
    Ed J
    Participant

    Hi Nick,

    Who is “the Spirit of your Father” mentioned in Matthew 10:20?

    1> HolySpirit
    2> spirit of christ

    Would you really say BOTH here?

    Number 1?
    Number 2
    or both one and two?

    #770308
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi ED,

    The Spirit of the Father is the Spirit of God.

    But in the one Holy Spirit are the Father and the Son.

     

    #770416
    carmel
    Participant

     

    Jesus was already flesh when “The Word”(HolySpirit) was made flesh.

    Edj,

    “THE WORD” IS NOT “THE HOLY GHOST, OR THE HOLY SPIRIT!”

    “THE WORD” IS ONLY JESUS’ FLESH BODY!

    THE FACT THAT JOHN WROTE: THE WORD WAS MADE FLESH!

    HE DIDN’T WRITE THE WORD WAS MADE MAN, FOR THE SIMPLE REASON THAT MAN HAS ALSO A SOUL AND A SPIRIT!

    TO CLARIFY: JESUS’ VOICE ITSELF WAS THE ACTUAL SPIRIT OF THE SON, “THE WORD”, AND THE WORDS SPOKEN CAME FROM THE ACTUAL SPIRIT OF THE FATHER! WHO WAS WITHIN JESUS’SOUL, DEFINITELY THE HOLY SPIRIT!

    SO “THE WORD” CANNOT BE BOTH THE FLESH AND IN THE SAME TIME THE SOUL

    SO THE HOLY SPIRIT WAS JESUS’ SOUL!

    THE ABODE OF THE FATHER!

    “THE WORD” FROM THE OTHER HAND WAS THE ABODE OF THE HOLY SPIRIT,JESUS’ SOUL

    Peace and love in Jesus

    Charles

    #770435
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi C,
    So the Word did not exist before being made flesh?
    The Word was with God and was God.
    You thoughts confuse you

    #770860
    carmel
    Participant

     

    So the Word did not exist before being made flesh?

    Nick,

    WHAT YOU’VE JUST SAID IS PURE NONSENSE:

    AS I ALREADY SAID YOUR INTEREST IS SIMPLY TO EXPAND THAT NUMBER OF YOUR POSTS!

    NOW REFLECT:

    SINCE “THE WORD” BECAME FLESH,

    COULD IT HAVE BECOME FLESH UNLESS IT EXISTED AS “THE WORD” FIRST!

    ALSO, SCRIPTURE IS CLEAR!

    IN THE BEGINNING WAS THE WORD

    THEN AFTER GOD ALMIGHTY,

    THROUGH THE HOLY SPIRIT CREATED ALL BY “THE WORD”,

     ENDED HIS WORK

     CREATED “THE WORD’S” OWN SINLESS MOTHER AS HER SOUL ITSELF,OBVIOUS ALWAYS THROUGH THE HOLY SPIRIT!

    THEN:

    THE WORD WAS MADE FLESH   JESUS’BODY

    SO NOTICE SCRIPTURE, DIDN’T SAY :

    THE WORD WAS MADE MAN! SINCE MAN IS COMPOSED ALSO OF A SOUL AND A SPIRIT

    BUT FLESH!

    THIS TO MAKE US AWARE THAT ONLY JESUS’BODY IS ACTUALLY:

    THE WORD

    Peace and love in Jesus

    Charles

    #770861
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi C,

    Yes the Word was with God and was God.

    Yes the Word was made flesh and dwelt amongst us.

    No sinless mothers anywhere except in catholic theology.[ps 25]

     

    The Word is not a body.

    God never was a human body

    #770862
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi C,

    ooops

    that should be Job 25

    #771050
    carmel
    Participant

    <

    No sinless mothers anywhere except in catholic theology.[ps 25]

    Nick,

    WITH YOUR ARGUMENT NO SINLESS SON,

    SINCE THE WORD WAS BORN OF A WOMAN!

    SO WE ARE NOT REDEEMED !

    SINCE THE MESSIAH HAD TO BE SINLESS!

    YOU ALSO SAID:Yes the Word was made flesh and dwelt amongst us.

    THEN YOU SAID:The Word is not a body.

    WHICH ONE IS TRUE?

    HOW COULD THE WORD BECOME FLESH AND DWELT AMONG US, AND IN THE SAME TIME IS NOT A BODY?

    God never was a human body

    BUT NOW HE IS BOTH MAN AND GOD IN ONE BODY CONFIRMED HERUNDER:

    John 17:3 Now this is eternal life: That they may KNOW YOU,THE ONLY TRUE GOD, AND JESUS CHRIST,

    whom thou hast sent.

    TO ACCOMPLISH IT

    AND ALSO IS WHAT HE ALWAYS WAS:

    MYSTERIOUS, UNKNOWN, UNFATHOMABLE, SPIRIT

    #771146
    kerwin
    Participant

    Carmel,

    WITH YOUR ARGUMENT NO SINLESS SON,

    SINCE THE WORD WAS BORN OF A WOMAN!

    SO WE ARE NOT REDEEMED !

    SINCE THE MESSIAH HAD TO BE SINLESS!

    It sounds like you go for a teaching of original sin that is not correct.

    According to Scripture each individual is accountable for his own sins and a man’s children suffer the effects of his sin. So God does not hold us responsible for Adam’s sin but the effect of Adam’s sin is that each and every member of the human race has been made subject to sin. Jesus is an exception.

    #771168
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi C,

    So you assume that he was born sinless.

    But scripture says he is an overcomer  [rev 3.21].

    If Mary had to be sinless to would not the same apply to her parents, and their parents…

    ?

    #771202
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi C,

    Did you think all are redeemed?

    No you must be born again at least.

    #771242
    carmel
    Participant

     

    So God does not hold us responsible for Adam’s sin but the effect of Adam’s sin is that each and every member of the human race has been made subject to sin. Jesus is an exception.

    Kerwin,

    CAN YOU DEFINE IN RESPECT TO MY QUESTIONS HEREUNDER,WHAT THIS STATEMENT OF YOURS MEANS?

    the effect of Adam’s sin is that each and every member of the human race has been made subject to sin.

    WHAT IS THE EFFECT OF ADAM’S SIN?

    WHAT ACTUALLY SPIRITUALLY HAPPENED?

    WHAT DID ADAM LOAD HUMANITY WITH WHEN HE COMMITTED HIS SIN?

    WHY DID GOD SAY TO ADAM:

    CURSED ( DEAD, SATANIC) IS THE EARTH (THE PROCESS OF PRODUCING SOULS) IN YOUR WORK (IN WHATEVER YOU DO)

    SO ABSOLUTE GENERAL USELESS WORK!

    HUMANITY ONLY GOT SWEAT THROUGH, ATE THEIR BREAD, AND DOWN TO HELL THEY WENT!

    NOW REGARDING JESUS:

    HE WAS NOT LOADED, WITH THE LEAST OF WHAT ADAM LOADED HUMANITY WITH, OBVIOUS HOW COULD HE HAVE BEEN THE REDEEMER?

    NOTWITHSTANDING THE FACT THAT HE WAS IN ALL THINGS LIKE HIS BRETHREN!

    Peace and love in Jesus

    Charles

    #771243
    carmel
    Participant

     

     

    But scripture says he is an overcomer [rev 3.21].

    Nick,

    WHAT DOES THAT MEAN TO YOU?

    Peace and love in Jesus

    Charles

    #771244
    carmel
    Participant

     

    If Mary had to be sinless to would not the same apply to her parents, and their parents…

    Nick,

    IN MY PREVIOUS POST WITH RESPECT TO SCRIPTURE I WROTE:

    THE WORD CREATED HIS MOTHER FIRST, AS HER SOUL, IN ORDER FOR HIM TO BE BORN OF HER IN FLESH!

    SO SINCE THE WORD, WAS GOD, SINLESS, HE WAS SINLESS BOTH IN THE CREATION OF HIS MOTHER, AND IN HIS PROCESS TO BECOME FLESH, THROUGH HER CONCEPTION BY THE HOLY SPIRIT !

    Genesis 2:24 Wherefore a man THE WORD shall leave father GOD ALMIGHTY, and mother,AFTER HE WAS BORN IN FLESH and shall cleave to his wife: ON THE CROSS, HIS CHURCH,

    and they shall be two in one flesh.

    SINCE MARY’S SOUL AND JESUS’ FLESH WERE:

    BOTH THE WORD

    AND THE WORD WAS MADE FLESH

     

    Peace and love in Jesus

    Charles

    #771246
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi C,

    The meaning of OVERCOMER Is shown in Rev 1-3.

    You add your private interpretations to scripture. Is that wise?

    #771364
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi GB,

    Why not rely on scripture?

    Your fabrications are not helpful.

    #771789
    kerwin
    Participant

    Carmel,

    WHAT IS THE EFFECT OF ADAM’S SIN?

    Physically creation was subjected to both frustration and corruption. There is some other physical things that happened by that was thee most major one, Romans 8:19-21.

    Spiritually human being became servants of sin,John 8:31-37.

    Jesus is the one God in his mercy and compassion appointed to set us free.

    #775041
    carmel
    Participant

     

     

    Spiritually human being became servants of sin,John 8:31-37.

    Kerwin,

    WHAT ARE SERVANTS OF SIN?

    Peace and love in Jesus

    Charles

    #775086
    kerwin
    Participant

    Carmel,

    Anyone that sins is a servant to sin and mankind was bound to sin through Adam’s sin. Jesus is the only one that can set us free.

    #775553
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    Nick……..but your fabrications are?

    peace and love to you and yours…………….gene

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