JOHN 1:1 who is the WORD?

[terraricca]

Mike

and nick says he is born again : what was it that he picked up ,he seem better when he started on this site ,like you notice that ,

[thehappyman]

Doesn't Christ mean,The Anointed one of God .?

[terraricca]

Quote (thehappyman @ May 29 2014,11:36)

Doesn't Christ mean,The Anointed one of God .?

HI HPM

i DO NOT KNOW ;but i think many have been anointed in different ways for different reasons ,in different ceremony ,but in Jesus case ;being anointed,and being the son of God will only show that he is the true anointed that God his father had promised Moses to send ,

[carmel]

terraricca,May wrote:

[/quote]

Quote

but in Jesus case ;being anointed,and being the son of God will only show that he is the true anointed that God his father had promised Moses to send ,

thehappyman and Terraricca,

WE ALL KNOW WHAT WAS USED ON ALL  THOSE HUMANS WHO WERE ANOINTED, ACCORDING TO SCRIPTURES,

NOW:

WHAT DID THE FATHER USE TO ANNOINT HIS SON WITH?

DID HE USE OIL?

OR

DID HE USE THE HOLY SPIRIT ?

Peace and love on Jesus

Charles

[carmel]

mikeboll64,May wrote:

[/quote]

Quote

What if I called Him “my God” four times?  Would that also tell you that I am in the glory of the Father?

Mike,

I DON'T KNOW WHO YOU ARE

BUT I DO KNOW WHO JESUS CHRIST IS!

JESUS CHRIST WAS THE GODHEAD IN FLESH

OR:

THE FATHER, THE SON, AND THE HOLY SPIRIT,

ALL IN ONE FLESH BODY OF JESUS AS SON OF MAN, AND SON OF GOD

NOW THROUGH HIS GLORIFICATION JESUS' FLESH BODY GLORIFIED AND BECAME BOTH SPIRIT AND FLESH ON EARTH, AND FOR FORTY DAYS HE MANIFESTED THE FULL POWER OF GOD

JESUS CHRIST IN THE GLORY OF THE FATHER!

SO THE FATHER    ONE SPIRIT

THE SON               ONE SPIRIT

THE HOLY SPIRIT   ONE SPIRIT

PLUS

JESUS CHRIST'S FLESH BODY ALSO   ONE SPIRIT

THAT WOULD BE:

THE GODHEAD IN BOTH SPIRIT AND FLESH

THE DEITY GLORIFIED!

ONLY IN:

JESUS CHRIST AS:

THE ONLY TRUE GOD, AND JESUS CHRIST

NOW THOSE FOUR PRONOUNCEMENTS BY JESUS CHRIST

ARE A REFERENCE TO HIMSELF ,

AND TO HIS OWN PARTICULAR UNIQUE GOD WHO ONLY HIMSELF SHED HIS BLOOD FOR AND WAS UNITED WITH THE DEITY WHILE ON EARTH!

AND IT IS HIS OWN,

AND ONLY HE IS THE ONLY GOD OVER ALL CREATION!

THE FATHER MADE HIM THE HEIR OF ALL WHAT WAS HIS!

AND ONE CAN ONLY BE  AN HEIR, IF THE OWNER, IN ANY WAY,  IS NO MORE IN FUNCTION

AND FOR SURE AN HEIR FOR EVER

TILL THE SON PASS IT ONTO THE FATHER ON THE LAST DAY OF THE LORD!

NOW ANSWER:

WAS JESUS CHRIST IN THE GLORY OF THE FATHER WHEN HE LEFT THE WORLD!

WOULD JESUS CHRIST BE IN THE GLORY OF THE FATHER WHEN HE COMES INTO THE WORLD?

Peace and love in Jesus

Charles

[carmel]

Quote (Gene Balthrop @ May 29 2014,05:03)

Quote (Nick Hassan @ May 28 2014,06:17) Hi, Of course God was in Jesus reconciling the world to Himself[2cor 5.19] But God was not in Himself Nick…….right brother Peace and love to you and yours……………..gene

Quote

But God was not in Himself

Nick,

NEVERTHELESS

GOD WAS IN HIMSELF!

SINCE ONLY HIS OWN GENUINE SPIRIT SUBSTANCE IS ACCEPTABLE, AND SUITABLE WHO ALSO WAS IN HIMSELF!

HIS SON

IN HIS BOSOM!

THE SON IN THE FATHER

BEFORE CREATION!

FROM CREATION ONWARDS

THE FATHER WAS BOTH IN THE SON! AND ALSO IN HEAVEN!

AND HE WILL REMAIN SO TILL THE LAST DAY OF THE LORD

WHEN THE SON WOULD RETAIN HIS ORIGINAL PLACE IN THE BOSOM OF THE FATHER,

AND THE FATHER WHO ALWAYS WAS THE FIRST, WOULD BE

THE LAST OF THE DEITY TO OWN FOR THE FIRST TIME  JESUS CHRIST'S GLORIFIED BODY,

WHO, FROM THE OTHER HAND WAS THE FIRST TO OWN HIS GLORIFIED BODY! AND THE LAST TO EVER OWNED IT!

THERE ARE MANY THAT ARE FIRST AND BECOME LAST, AND LAST THAT BECOME FIRST………………

Peace and love in Jesus

Charles

[terraricca]

Quote (carmel @ May 29 2014,11:58)

terraricca,May wrote: [/quote] Quote but in Jesus case ;being anointed,and being the son of God will only show that he is the true anointed that God his father had promised Moses to send , thehappyman and Terraricca, WE ALL KNOW WHAT WAS USED ON ALL  THOSE HUMANS WHO WERE ANOINTED, ACCORDING TO SCRIPTURES, NOW: WHAT DID THE FATHER USE TO ANNOINT HIS SON WITH? DID HE USE OIL? OR DID HE USE THE HOLY SPIRIT ? Peace and love on Jesus Charles

charles

Jesus was the chosen one by God and was send from heaven ,

so he was special and his father was with him for what he was going to do was his fathers will ,

[kerwin]

Quote (thehappyman @ May 29 2014,11:36)

Doesn't Christ mean,The Anointed one of God .?

thehappyman,

I looked it up and it just means anointed. If we translated it to English like it was translated to Koine Greek from Hebrew Jesus would be called Anointed or the equivalent Anointed One. We do not translate his name as Jesus is an English variation of the Koine Greek name we have for him today.

[kerwin]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ May 29 2014,06:21)

Quote (kerwin @ May 28 2014,10:54) Jammin, In John 1:1 I have some agreement with those trinitarians that believe the word is God is a qualitative statement.  I disagree on what qualities of God it is speaking of and do not assume the word is Jesus' name in beginning. Some do believe it is a lower case gee while others a high case gee as a result of their bias. And why don't YOU believe the Word is Jesus in that verse, Kerwin? Could that ALSO be because of “bias”?   Never mind – I already know the answer to that one.

Mike,

You should as my bias is that I believe that Jesus is a human being who served as an example and more for those that seek first his righteousness and his kingdom.

[terraricca]

Quote (kerwin @ May 29 2014,23:19)

Quote (mikeboll64 @ May 29 2014,06:21) Quote (kerwin @ May 28 2014,10:54) Jammin, In John 1:1 I have some agreement with those trinitarians that believe the word is God is a qualitative statement.  I disagree on what qualities of God it is speaking of and do not assume the word is Jesus' name in beginning. Some do believe it is a lower case gee while others a high case gee as a result of their bias. And why don't YOU believe the Word is Jesus in that verse, Kerwin? Could that ALSO be because of “bias”?   Never mind – I already know the answer to that one.   Mike, You should as my bias is that I believe that Jesus is a human being who served as an example and more for those that seek first his righteousness and his kingdom.

K

if Jesus was a common man we all have waist our time because scriptures says that NO MAN CAN SAVE ANOTHER AND PAY TO GOD THE RANSOM FOR HIS LIFE OR FOR ANOTHER MEN

ALL HAVE SIN AND FALL SHORT OF THE GLORY OF GOD,

NO ONE UNDER THE CURSE OF DEAD FROM ADAM CAN SAVE ANYONE ;

[kerwin]

Quote (terraricca @ May 29 2014,23:45)

Quote (kerwin @ May 29 2014,23:19) Quote (mikeboll64 @ May 29 2014,06:21) Quote (kerwin @ May 28 2014,10:54) Jammin, In John 1:1 I have some agreement with those trinitarians that believe the word is God is a qualitative statement.  I disagree on what qualities of God it is speaking of and do not assume the word is Jesus' name in beginning. Some do believe it is a lower case gee while others a high case gee as a result of their bias. And why don't YOU believe the Word is Jesus in that verse, Kerwin? Could that ALSO be because of “bias”?   Never mind – I already know the answer to that one.   Mike, You should as my bias is that I believe that Jesus is a human being who served as an example and more for those that seek first his righteousness and his kingdom. K if Jesus was a common man we all have waist our time because scriptures says that NO MAN CAN SAVE ANOTHER AND PAY TO GOD THE RANSOM FOR HIS LIFE OR FOR ANOTHER MEN ALL HAVE SIN AND FALL SHORT OF THE GLORY OF GOD, NO ONE UNDER THE CURSE OF DEAD FROM ADAM CAN SAVE ANYONE ;

T,

I am not going to argue with you about your interpretation of Psalms 49:7 as you should know by this time that I disagree with it.

I do know that according to what Paul states to the Romans in chapter 3 verse 19 that what the law says it says to those under the law.  According to that same chapter of Romans verses 9-18 all sin under the law.  

So my question is that was Jesus who who was born of woman and born under the Law,Galatians 4:4, under the law or led by the Spirit?

Galatians 5:18
New International Version (NIV)

18 But if you are led by the Spirit, you are not under the law.

[carmel]

Quote

Jesus was the chosen one by God and was send from heaven , so he was special and his father was with him for what he was going to do was his fathers will ,

TERRARICCA,

THE ABOVE HAS NOTHING TO DO WITH WHAT I ASKED!

ARE YOU AFRAID TO ANSWER?

THIS WAS MY QUESTION:

WHAT DID THE FATHER USE TO ANNOINT HIS SON WITH?

DID HE USE OIL?

OR

DID HE USE THE HOLY SPIRIT ?

SO WHICH OF THE ABOVE IS RIGHT?

AND WHY?

Peace and love on Jesus

Charles

[carmel]

Mike,

NOW SHOW ME YOUR WISDOM, AND EXPLAIN THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN THESE PROCLAMATIONS BY PAUL WHICH HE PRONOUNCED PURPOSELY:

ONE AFTER THE OTHER

IN ORDER TO REVEAL THE TRUTH ?

Ephissians 1: Grace be to you, and peace from God the Father, and from the Lord Jesus Christ.

DEFINITELY A CLEAR  REFERENCE TO TWO SEPARATE PERSONS SEPARATED BY A COMMA, AND WITH THE IMPLICATION OF THE WORD “FROM”! TO  THEIR RESPECTIVE TITLES

IN THIS CASE GOD ALMIGHTY, AND JESUS CHRIST!

NOW READ THIS:

3Blessed by

the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with spiritual blessings in heavenly places, in Christ: OBVIOUS CHRIST BELONG TO JESUS! NOT TO GOD ALMIGHTY, AND THE BLESSINGS ARE ALSO IN CHRIST, AND BY CHRIST SINCE ALL IN HIM, AND ALL BY HIM

HE DIED FOR US!

NOT GOD ALMIGHTY!

NOW!

WHY DIDN’T HE SAY:

: BLESSED BY God the Father, and BY the Lord Jesus Christ……

LIKE HE DID WITH THE FIRST ONE?

WHAT MADE HIM CHANGE IT TO THE WAY IT IS?

ALSO

THE ARTICLE , “THE”,

NO COMMAS,

AND THE PREPOSITION “OF”

ARE  CLEAR INDICATIONS THAT IT IS A REFERENCE TO A PARTICULAR UNIQUE GOD AND ONLY RELATED TO JESUS CHRIST

SO JESUS CHRIST IS BOTH GOD AND FATHER TO US! FLESH BEINGS! THROUGH HIS DEATH!

SO I REPEAT:

THAT IS NOT  A REFERENCE  TO TWO SEPARATE PERSONS OF:

GOD ALMIGHTY! AND JESUS CHRIST

BUT TO

THE GOD AND FATHER OF OUR LORD JESUS CHRIST!

Peace and love in Jesus

Charles

[jammin]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ May 29 2014,11:00)

Quote (jammin @ May 28 2014,06:49) those who have ENOUGH knowledge about greek will not translate john 1.1 as god but God. Those who know Greek will tell you that both “THE god”, and “A god” are possible translations. The Greek language allows for either one in that verse. So the fact that the Trinitarians OPT FOR the “God” translation has nothing to do with the Greek language, jammin.  It has to do with bias and lack of understanding. I mean really, how can our ONE God be WITH our ONE God?  It's absolutely ludicrous. But at any rate, don't ever say that the Greek language makes the decision for anyone.  Because even the staunchest Trinitarian experts will tell you that “a god” is also a possible way to translate those Greek words.

those are not well knowledgeable about the greek language or they will tell you that that translation is not gramatically favoured.

do you understand what i am saying?

john 1.1 should not be translated as a god because that will destroy the context of the chapter 1 of john.

NWT translated is as a god but they are not being honest. it is a bias translation because the greek kai theos in 2cor 3.1 was translated as the “God” and not a god. they put a god in john 1.1 in order for them to support their fairy tale doctrine which is not fair and you will notice this if you studied greek language. only a moron can accept their explanation and doctrine.

let me post the greek of 2 cor 3.1
ΠΡΟΣ ΚΟΡΙΝΘΙΟΥΣ Β΄ 1:3
ευλογητος ο θεος και πατηρ του κυριου ημων ιησου χριστου ο πατηρ των οικτιρμων και θεος πασης παρακλησεως

and the NWT
3  Praised be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ,+ the Father of tender mercies+ and the God of all comfort

you will notice that this NWT translators will never put the small “god” there but if you will follow what they did in john 1.1, it should be translated as “god” and not “God”.

In the Greek in John 20:28 Thomas said to Jesus, “ho kurios mou, kai ho theos mou,” “The Lord of me, and the God of me.” If Jesus was not God, but “a” god, then shouldn't Jesus have corrected Thomas?  Shouldn't Jesus have said, “No,Thomas, I am not the God.  I am a god.”?  But Jesus did not.  To do so would have been ludicrous.

sorry boy but you need to study more. hahahaha

[terraricca]

Quote (carmel @ May 30 2014,00:23)

Quote Jesus was the chosen one by God and was send from heaven , so he was special and his father was with him for what he was going to do was his fathers will , TERRARICCA, THE ABOVE HAS NOTHING TO DO WITH WHAT I ASKED! ARE YOU AFRAID TO ANSWER? THIS WAS MY QUESTION: WHAT DID THE FATHER USE TO ANNOINT HIS SON WITH? DID HE USE OIL? OR DID HE USE THE HOLY SPIRIT ? SO WHICH OF THE ABOVE IS RIGHT? AND WHY? Peace and love on Jesus Charles

charles

God ,uses three things ;the reconciliation waters ,the holy spirit (form of a dove) and his words said at the time ,

this will answer your question

[terraricca]

Quote (kerwin @ May 30 2014,00:00)

Quote (terraricca @ May 29 2014,23:45) Quote (kerwin @ May 29 2014,23:19) Quote (mikeboll64 @ May 29 2014,06:21) Quote (kerwin @ May 28 2014,10:54) Jammin, In John 1:1 I have some agreement with those trinitarians that believe the word is God is a qualitative statement.  I disagree on what qualities of God it is speaking of and do not assume the word is Jesus' name in beginning. Some do believe it is a lower case gee while others a high case gee as a result of their bias. And why don't YOU believe the Word is Jesus in that verse, Kerwin? Could that ALSO be because of “bias”?   Never mind – I already know the answer to that one.   Mike, You should as my bias is that I believe that Jesus is a human being who served as an example and more for those that seek first his righteousness and his kingdom. K if Jesus was a common man we all have waist our time because scriptures says that NO MAN CAN SAVE ANOTHER AND PAY TO GOD THE RANSOM FOR HIS LIFE OR FOR ANOTHER MEN ALL HAVE SIN AND FALL SHORT OF THE GLORY OF GOD, NO ONE UNDER THE CURSE OF DEAD FROM ADAM CAN SAVE ANYONE ; T, I am not going to argue with you about your interpretation of Psalms 49:7 as you should know by this time that I disagree with it. I do know that according to what Paul states to the Romans in chapter 3 verse 19 that what the law says it says to those under the law.  According to that same chapter of Romans verses 9-18 all sin under the law.   So my question is that was Jesus who who was born of woman and born under the Law,Galatians 4:4, under the law or led by the Spirit? Galatians 5:18 New International Version (NIV) 18 But if you are led by the Spirit, you are not under the law.

K

first ,yes I know what you believe from Isi;49;7

but let it be in our mind anyway

and please give me understanding from Christ within the OT because after all as you say CHRIST WAS BORN UNDER THE LAW BUT HE ALSO DIE UNDER THE LAW ;

NOW ALL THE SCRIPTURES YOU QUOTED ARE FOR THE BELIEVERS THAT FOLLOWED CHRIST ,

SO TO TALK ABOUT CHRIST WHO HE IS AND WERE AND HOW HE AT TO COME IS IN THE O.T,

PAUL PICKED HIS KNOWLEDGE IN THE O.T

AND ALSO REMEMBER THE LAW STAND AGAINST THE SINNERS NOT AGAINST THE INNOCENT, SO HERE WE TALKING ABOUT THE RELIGIOUS LAWS

[jammin]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ May 29 2014,11:11)

Quote (jammin @ May 28 2014,06:54) Quote (mikeboll64 @ May 28 2014,12:12) Colossians 1:15 King James Version Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature: Okay….. done. that version did not say created but firstborn of every creature. Well, if it said “firstborn of every COW”, then we would know he was the first COW ever made. If it said, “firstborn of every MAN”, then we would know he was the first MAN ever made. And so on, and so on.  So “firstborn of every CREATURE” obviously means he was the first CREATURE ever made. Quote (jammin @ May 28 2014,06:54) Gill's Exposition of the Entire Bible the firstborn of every creature; not the first of the creation, or the first creature God made; for all things in Colossians 1:16 are said to be created by him, and therefore he himself can never be a creature; That's a popular, but false conclusion, jammin.  Because scripture also says GOD created EVERYTHING.  And if we were to take that literally, it would mean God created HIMSELF as well. So when scripture says God created the heavens, the earth, and EVERYTHING in them, we know that it means EXCEPT for God Himself. Likewise, when Paul says in 1 Cor 15:27 that God place EVERYTHING under Jesus, we know it means everything EXCEPT God Himself.  (In this scripture, Paul even explains that to his readers, in case any of them are like you, and couldn't figure that much out all by themselves.) So, when it says all things in heaven and earth were made THROUGH (not “BY”) Jesus, it means everything EXCEPT for Jesus himself. Get it?  God didn't create HIMSELF……… but He created all OTHER things in heaven. God didn't create Jesus through HIMSELF…….. but he created all OTHER things through Jesus. And the teaching of Col 1:15-16 is really all one long statement, which means:  Jesus HAS TO BE the first one created, BECAUSE all the other things in heaven were created THROUGH him.

of course you should not take it (God created all things)literally because God never created himself.
i do not know if you have a common sense mike. if i say i created this computer, does it mean that i created myself as well? hahaha you are a moron.

therefore, it is not also acceptable to treat col 1.15 literally. why? because according to the context, Christ created the heaven and the earth.

Hebrews 1:10

Easy-to-Read Version (ERV)

10 God also said,

“O Lord, in the beginning you made the earth,
and your hands made the sky.

it was through him that every thing was made

COL 1 PHILLIPS
15-16 Now Christ is the visible expression of the invisible God. He existed before creation began, for it was through him that every thing was made, whether spiritual or material, seen or unseen

the meaning of that “firstborn of all creation” according to the context is, he is supreme over all creation. it never tells us that christ was created by God. in verse 16 it said that all things were created by him!

no commentaries and bible versions will agree to your fairy tale doctrine mike. hahaha sorry boy!

[mikeboll64]

Quote (thehappyman @ May 28 2014,23:36)

Doesn't Christ mean,The Anointed one of God .?

Both the Hebrew word “messiah”, and the Greek word “christ”, mean “anointed (one)”.

[jammin]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ May 29 2014,11:17)

Quote (jammin @ May 28 2014,06:55) mike said : Jesus is not God bingo! Why, thank you for agreeing with me that Jesus is NOT God.   (How do YOU like it when people butcher your post to make it seem like you believe things you really don't?)

to copy and paste not the whole thing is your expertise. hahaha

mike said:Christ is not God

mike also said:Christ is equal to God in essence.

now, what is the essence of God? i need complete answers.

[mikeboll64]

Quote (carmel @ May 28 2014,23:58)

WE ALL KNOW WHAT WAS USED ON ALL THOSE HUMANS WHO WERE ANOINTED, ACCORDING TO SCRIPTURES, NOW: WHAT DID THE FATHER USE TO ANNOINT HIS SON WITH? DID HE USE OIL? OR DID HE USE THE HOLY SPIRIT ?

Most of those other christs and messiahs in scripture were also anointed with Holy Spirit, Charles. David, Moses, Samuel, etc.

Also, Jesus was anointed with “the oil of gladness” by his and our God, Jehovah.

And he was also anointed a couple of times in scripture with perfumed oil.

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