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Quote (mikeboll64 @ April 30 2014,06:56) Quote (kerwin @ April 29 2014,11:38) Quote (mikeboll64 @ April 29 2014,08:50)
Try the use in Mark 16:12, Kerwin. Is there any DOUBT that it means “outward appearance” in that verse?
Mike,I looked at the word morphe and its directives and the definition is “(outward expression) that embodies essential (inner) substance so that the form is in complete harmony with the inner essence.”
Okay.So in Mark 16:12, did Jesus appear to the two of them in a different “(outward expression) that embodies essential (inner) substance so that the form is in complete harmony with the inner essence”?
From the time Jesus left Mary, to the time he came to the two disciples on the road, had his “essential inner substance” gone through a change?
Or just his “outward appearance”?
Mike,That definition seems to be a scholar speaking to another scholar just to show how knowledgeable he is. I would like to say it favors my understating but it just sounds like gibberish to me.
For now I am going to say it is the equivalent to form. In Mark it is speaking of the outward form of Jesus being in a different form.
Quote (kerwin @ April 29 2014,19:32) Quote (mikeboll64 @ April 30 2014,06:56)
From the time Jesus left Mary, to the time he came to the two disciples on the road, had his “essential inner substance” gone through a change?Or just his “outward appearance”?
Mike,That definition seems to be a scholar speaking to another scholar just to show how knowledgeable he is. I would like to say it favors my understating but it just sounds like gibberish to me.
Good on you, Kerwin.Quote (kerwin @ April 29 2014,19:32) For now I am going to say it is the equivalent to form. In Mark it is speaking of the outward form of Jesus being in a different form.
In other words, Jesus appeared to the two disciples in a different “outward appearance” than he had when he was with Mary earlier, right?So my point is that we KNOW the word means “outward appearance” in Mark 16:12. And the definition “outward appearance” also works just fine for both uses in Phil 2.
Add that to the way the secular classic writers used the same word (as “outward appearance”), and then the only reason left to insist on something other than “outward appearance” is because some people don't want to think of God having an outward appearance………. despite the fact that God's form is described all throughout the scriptures.
At any rate, I see no reason whatsoever to not accept “form/outward appearance” as the correct meaning in all three scriptural uses of the word.
mikeboll64,April wrote:[/quote]
Quote Read Mark 16:12, jammin. Did Jesus appear to them in a DIFFERENT morphe? YES.
Was Jesus' “essential form” altered? Or just his “outward appearance”?
Which one?
MIke,
HE WAS COMPLETELY THROUGHOUT CHANGED!
JESUS CONFIRMED THIS TO MARY THROUGH HIS OWN WORDS!
GO AND TELL MY BRETHREN, I WILL ASCEND TO ………………
WHICH IN THE TRUTH REFERED, AND MEANT THAT HE ASCENDED AND UNITED AS
THE ONLY TRUE GOD, AND JESUS CHRIST
WHICH SIGNIFIES THAT HUMAN FORM,
JESUS' GLORIFIED FLESH BODY.
INTEGRATED WITH THE HOLY SPIRIT,GOD'S FORM ,
JESUS' GLORIFIED SOUL!
Peace and love in Jesus
Charles
mikeboll64,April wrote:[/quote]
Quote therefore there is nothing special about Jesus also being “from eternity” like we all are, right? Mike,
THAT' S WHERE YOU ARE WRONG I'M AFRAID!
BECAUSE IF JESUS WAS AN IDENTICAL BEING LIKE ALL OF US, HE WOULDN'T HAVE REDEEMED US FOR THE SIMPLE REASON THAT HE WOULD HAVE HAD SIN WITHIN HIS OWN ESSENCE, WHICH HE DIDN'T
THE REASON THAT HE BEGUILED SATAN AND MADE HIM BELIEVE THAT HE WAS!
1Corinthians 2:Which none of the princes of this world knew; for if they had known it, THEY WOULD NEVER HAVE CRUCIFIED THE LORD OF GLORY.
NOW THE FACT THAT WE ARE ETERNAL MR. MIKE, IS SIMPLY BECAUSE WITHIN US FROM THE FOUNDATION OF THE WORLD THERE WAS SLAIN THE LAMB, REV.13:8 THE WORD THE MEDIATOR SPIRIT, THE SON'S WHO LEFT THE FATHER TO CREATE ALL!
IN ORDER TO MAINTAIN ETERNAL LIFE INTACT! NO MATTER WHAT, AND HOW LONG, TILL ALL RETURN TO THE FATHER
ALSO JESUS CONFIRMED THIS AND SAID:
YOU ARE FROM BENEATH THROUGHOUT A REFERENCE TO HUMANS: HELL
I AM FROM ABOVE THROUGHOUT HEAVEN
SO STOP PUTTING JESUS CHRIST THE ONLY HUMAN SAVIOUR GOD! INTO THE SAME BASKET AS OURS!
HOW ON EARTH HE COULD HAVE BEEN THE RANSOM FOR THE WORLD,
IF HE WAS IN THE SAME TIME ANYTHING
OF THE WORLD?
CAN YOU SEE THE TRUTH?
CAN YOU SEE THE DIFFERENCE?
Peace and love in Jesus
Charles
mikeboll64,April wrote:[/quote]
Quote In the meantime, I've asked you very simply which scripture says God Almighty doesn't have daughters, and “Father Jesus” does. I have yet to see that scripture – or an explanation of the two scriptures Nick and I posted – each of which say God Almighty has daughters. Mike,
IS JESUS CHRIST. THE MESSIAH, THE REDEEMER OF ALL, THEREFORE:
BOTH SONS AND DAUGHTERS!?
ANSWER!
YES OR NO!
Peace and love in Jesus THE FATHER OF REDEMPTION
Charles
Quote (carmel @ April 30 2014,00:45) Mike, IS JESUS CHRIST. THE MESSIAH, THE REDEEMER OF ALL, THEREFORE:
BOTH SONS AND DAUGHTERS!?
ANSWER!
YES OR NO![/b]
NO.Jesus is the Christ/Messiah of his and our God, Jehovah.
He is, however, the redeemer of all human beings, who are brothers and sisters to him – not sons and daughters.
On the other hand………..
Malachi 2:10
[ Breaking Covenant Through Divorce ] Do we not all have one Father? Did not one God create us? Why do we profane the covenant of our ancestors by being unfaithful to one another?13 You flood the LORD’s altar with tears. You weep and wail because he no longer looks with favor on your offerings or accepts them with pleasure from your hands.
14 You ask, “Why?” It is because the LORD is the witness between you and the wife of your youth. You have been unfaithful to her, though she is your partner, the wife of your marriage covenant.
15 Has not the one God made you? You belong to him in body and spirit.
The supersized part above refers to God being the Father of both men and woman, Charles. I posted the context so you could see Malachi was referring to both men and women.
And if God is the “Father” to a woman, then that woman is God's “daughter”.
So tell me once again how Jehovah doesn't have daughters. Tell me once again how Jesus does.
Can you see how badly you've twisted things up? Jehovah is the Father of all human beings – men and women alike. Those same men and women are not “sons and daughters” to Jesus. Instead, they are “brothers and sisters” to him, for he is also a child of God – just like we are.
And as brothers and sisters of Jesus, we also have the chance to share in the inheritance his Father and God gave him.
Quote (carmel @ April 30 2014,00:07) Quote (mikeboll64 @ April 29 2014,13:22) Read Mark 16:12, jammin. Did Jesus appear to them in a DIFFERENT morphe? YES.
Was Jesus' “essential form” altered? Or just his “outward appearance”?
Which one?
MIke,
HE WAS COMPLETELY THROUGHOUT CHANGED!
JESUS CONFIRMED THIS TO MARY THROUGH HIS OWN WORDS!
GO AND TELL MY BRETHREN, I WILL ASCEND TO ………………
WHICH IN THE TRUTH REFERED, AND MEANT THAT HE ASCENDED AND UNITED AS
THE ONLY TRUE GOD, AND JESUS CHRIST
Luke 24
37 They were startled and frightened, thinking they saw a spirit.38 He said to them, “Why are you troubled, and why do doubts rise in your minds?
39 Look at my hands and my feet. It is I myself! Touch me and see; a spirit does not have flesh and bones, as you see I have.”
So in your opinion, Jesus was already “God Almighty the Father” at the time he said the above words?
Quote (carmel @ April 30 2014,00:32) Quote (mikeboll64 @ April 29 2014,19:05) Quote (carmel @ April 29 2014,13:31)
MIke,WHEN YOU REFLECT, SINCE ALL CREATURES SPIRIT WISE, HAVE A SPECK OF GOD,WITHIN AS THEIR ESSENCE ALL CREATURES ARE FROM ETERNITY
Yep! If you want to look at it that way, then all of us are “from eternity”, and therefore there is nothing special about Jesus also being “from eternity” like we all are, right?
Mike,THAT' S WHERE YOU ARE WRONG I'M AFRAID!
BECAUSE IF JESUS WAS AN IDENTICAL BEING LIKE ALL OF US………….
Charles,No one was saying Jesus is an “identical being like all of us”.
I was saying that if you want to consider US as existing FROM ETERNITY, because our spirit is from God Himself, and therefore eternal, then we could say the same thing about why Jesus is “from eternity” as well.
Get it? If YOU can say, “Mike can be said to be 'from eternity' BECAUSE his spirit from God is 'from eternity'”, then I can say, “Jesus can be said to be 'from eternity' BECAUSE his spirit from God is 'from eternity'”.
In either case, the BEING who is “Mike” is not actually “from eternity”, because he was created.
And the BEING who is “Jesus” is also not actually “from eternity”, because he also was created.
mikeboll64,May wrote:[/quote]
Quote So in your opinion, Jesus was already “God Almighty the Father” at the time he said the above words? Mike,
IN A PARTICULAR UNIQUE WAY YES! AND HOW HE WAS!
READ:
John 20:19
Now when it was
LATE THAT SAME DAY OF THE WEEK,THE FIRST DAY OF THE WEEK,THE ABOVE CONFIRMED THAT JESUS, AFTER HIS RESURRECTION AS MAN,ON THE THIRD DAY, TO RESPECT HIS OWN WORDS WHEN HE SAID THAT HE WILL RAISE UP HIS OWN BODY IN THREE DAYS,
THE SAME DAY, BUT LATE, OBVIOUS IN ORDER FOR THE THIRD NIGHT TO BE OVER, TO RESPECT ALSO HIS OWN WORDS WHEN HE SAID THAT:
For as Jonas was in the whale's belly three days and three nights: so shall the SON OF MAN be in the heart of the earth……….. IN HELL
WHICH IT IS OBVIOUS THAT THIS IS A REFERENCE TO HIS SOUL, THE EX HOLY SPIRIT, BUT GLORIFIED WITH THE FLESH BODY OF JESUS
THE SON OF MAN BOTH IN HELL, AND IN THE TOMB! THE TWO NATURES OF JESUS!OBVIOUS UP TO THAT TIME, SEPARATED
THEREFORE HE WAS BOTH SPIRIT AND FLESH IN HELL FIRE, CONFIRMED THAT HE WAS AND IS:
THE ONLY TRUE GOD ,AND JESUS CHRIST
AND ALL THOSE WHO BELIEVED WENT TO HEAVEN IN THAT INSTANT! AND HELL REMAINED OPEN UP TO THIS VERY DAY SUBJECT ONLY TO JESUS!
NOW READ ON!
and the doors were shut, where the disciples were gathered together, for fear of the Jews, Jesus came and stood in the midst, and said to them: Peace be to you.
SO HERE IS CONFIRMED! WHILE JESUS NEVER LET MARY TO TOUCH HIM, WHEN HE WAS RESURRECTED AS MAN, IN THE ABOVE SCRIPTURE HE NEVER BOTHERED AT ALL ABOUT HIS BODY OR WHO TOUCHES HIM, IN FACT HE WENT THROUGH WALLS, AND STATIONED HIMSELF IN THE MIDST OF! THEM!
SO HE WAS COMPLETELY TRANSFORMED GOD ON EARTH! NOT THE FATHER YET, BUT ALSO THE FATHER THROUGH THE HOLY SPIRIT!
IN A PARTICULAR UNIQUE WAY
ON THE LAST DAY, THE FATHER EVENTUALLY WOULD OWN THIS SAME BODY ALL IN ALL THOUGH NOT ONLY ALL AS ONE IN JESUS AS HE IS NOW
Peace and love in Jesus
Chrales
Quote (mikeboll64 @ April 30 2014,11:04) Quote (jammin @ April 29 2014,10:50) you said MANY who will someday be eternal.
where is that>? what verse is that? hahaha
Here's just one of the many, jammin:John 3:16
For God so loved the world that he gave his only begotten Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.This verse sums up the entire NT. Who did our ONE and ONLY God “give”, jammin? Himself? Or His Son?
You need to learn the difference between the two.
do you understand what matthew said? john 3.16 has nothing to do with phil 2.6. did john 3.16 say that we as HUMAN are ETERNAL? john 3.16 said those who believe will have eternal life. it is not the same as being ETERNAL.do you understand english boy? hahahaha
that is the most ridiculous explanation i have ever heard! hahaha
matthew is telling us the divine nature of Christ. he is God just like his father. he is divine.
Matthew Henry's Concise Commentary
2:5-11 The example of our Lord Jesus Christ is set before us. We must resemble him in his life, if we would have the benefit of his death. Notice the two natures of Christ; his Divine nature, and human nature. Who being in the form of God, partaking the Divine nature, as the eternal and only-begotten Son of God, Joh 1:1,
if you notice, matthew give the verse jn 1.1 to further explain what phil 2.6 is all about. let me post what matthew said about john 1.1
Matthew Henry's Concise Commentary
JOHN 1.1
What the evangelist says of Christ proves that he is God. He asserts, His existence in the beginning; His coexistence with the Father.
…
This eternal Word, this true Light shines, but the darkness comprehends it not.what a miserable doctrine you have mike. hahaha
Quote (mikeboll64 @ April 30 2014,11:17) Quote (jammin @ April 29 2014,10:53) Gill said God is nothing but nature and essence. do you believe that? you just cut and paste the short phrase of gill's commentary.
That's right. I cut and pasted the ONLY part that had to do with our discussion, jammin.We weren't discussing who thinks Jesus is “God by nature”, and who doesn't. We were discussing whether the word “God” in Phil 2:6 referred to a PERSON – or to a “nature/species”.
And the very first words out of Gill's mouth made it abundantly clear that he thinks the “God” mentioned in Phil 2:6 is “the Father”.
Why would I post more of his commentary, when all I needed for THIS DISCUSSION was right there in his first words?
because you dont understand what gill really said.let me post the whole thing
Gill's Exposition of the Entire BibleWho being in the form of God,…. The Father; being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person. This form is to be understood, not of any shape or figure of him; for as such is not to be seen, it is not to be supposed of him; or any accidental form, for there are no accidents in God, whatever is in God, is God; he is nothing but nature and essence, he is the , the Jehovah, I am what I am; and so is his Son, which is, and was, and is to come, the fountain of all created beings nor does it intend any outward representation and resemblance of him, such as in kings; who, because of the honour and dignity they are raised unto, the authority and power they have, and because of the glory and majesty they are arrayed with, are called gods: nor does it design the state and condition Christ appeared in here on earth, having a power to work miracles, heal diseases, and dispossess devils, for the manifestation of his glory; and so might be said to be in the form of God, as Moses for doing less miracles is said to be a God unto Pharaoh; since this account does not regard Christ; as he was on earth in human nature, but what he was antecedent to the assumption of it; or otherwise his humility and condescension in becoming man, and so mean, will not appear: but this phrase, “the form of God”, is to be understood of the nature and essence of God, and describes Christ as he was from all eternity; just as the form of a servant signifies that he was really a servant, and the fashion of a man in which he was found means that he was truly and really man; so his being in the form of God intends that he was really and truly God; that he partook of the same nature with the Father, and was possessed of the same glory: from whence it appears, that he was in being before his incarnation; that he existed as a distinct person from God his Father, in whose form he was, and that as a divine person, or as truly God, being in the glorious form, nature, and essence of God; and that there is but one form of God, or divine nature and essence, common to the Father and the Son, and also to the Spirit; so that they are not three Gods, but one God: what the form of God is, the Heathens themselves (g) say cannot be comprehended nor seen, and so not to be inquired after; and they use the same word the apostle does here (h): and now Christ being in this glorious form, or having the same divine nature with the Father, with all the infinite and unspeakable glories of it,
thought it no robbery to be equal with God; the Father; for if he was in the same form, nature, and essence, he must be equal to him, as he is; for he has the same perfections, as eternity, omniscience, omnipotence, omnipresence, immutability, and self-existence: hence he has the same glorious names, as God, the mighty God, the true God, the living God, God over all, Jehovah, the Lord of glory, &c. the same works of creation and providence are ascribed to him, and the same worship, homage, and honour given him: to be “in the form of God”, and to be “equal with God”, signify the same thing, the one is explanative of the other: and this divine form and equality, or true and proper deity, he did not obtain by force and rapine, by robbery and usurpation, as Satan attempted to do, and as Adam by his instigation also affected; and so the mind of a wicked man, as Philo the Jew says (i), being a lover of itself and impious, , “thinks itself to be equal with God”, a like phrase with this here used; but Christ enjoyed this equality by nature; he thought, he accounted, he knew he had it this way; and he held it hereby, and of right, and not by any unlawful means; and he reckoned that by declaring and showing forth his proper deity, and perfect equality with the Father, he robbed him of no perfection; the same being in him as in the Father, and the same in the Father as in him; that he did him no injury, nor deprived him of any glory, or assumed that to himself which did not belong to him: as for the sense which some put upon the words, that he did not “affect”, or “greedily catch” at deity; as the phrase will not admit of it, so it is not true in fact; he did affect deity, and asserted it strongly, and took every proper opportunity of declaring it, and in express terms affirmed he was the Son of God; and in terms easy to be understood declared his proper deity, and his unity and equality with the Father; required the same faith in himself as in the Father, and signified that he that saw the one, saw the other, Mark 14:61 John 5:17. Others give this as the sense of them, that he did not in an ostentatious way show forth the glory of his divine nature, but rather hid it; it is true, indeed, that Christ did not seek, but carefully shunned vain glory and popular applause; and therefore often after having wrought a miracle, would charge the persons on whom it was wrought, or the company, or his disciples, not to speak of it; this he did at certain times, and for certain reasons; yet at other times we find, that he wrought miracles to manifest forth his glory, and frequently appeals to them as proofs of his deity and Messiahship: and besides, the apostle is speaking not of what he was, or did in his incarnate state, but of what he was and thought himself to be, before he became man; wherefore the above sense is to be preferred as the genuine one,
(g) Socraticus, Xenophon, & Aristo Chius, apud Minuc. Felic. Octav. p. 20. & Hostanes apud Caecil. Cyprian. de Idol. van. p. 46. (h) Laertii proem. ad Vit. Philosoph. p. 7. (i) Leg. Alleg. l. 1. p. 48, 49.
hahahaha
therefore, GILL IS NOT SUPPORTING YOUR FAIRY TALE DOCTRINE. poor mike.hahahaha
mikeboll64,May wrote:[/quote]
Quote So in your opinion, Jesus was already “God Almighty the Father” at the time he said the above words? MIKE,
IT'S NOT MY OPINION!
IT IS SCRIPTURAL!
UNOFFICIALLY JESUS WAS GOD ALMIGHTY ON EARTH!
GOD ALMIGHTY IN BOTH SPIRIT AND FLESH FORM ON EARTH!
AND IN HEAVEN LIKE ALWAYS,GOD ALMIGHTY WAS AND IS A SPIRIT!
NOW READ AND DISCERN THE TRUTH!
21He said therefore to them again: Peace be to you. As the Father hath sent me, I also send you. 22When he had said this, he breathed on them; and he said to them: Receive ye the Holy Ghost.
THE ABOVE IS AN EMPHASIS THAT HE WAS GOD! THE LORD!
AS THE FATHER SENT ME,
WHEN DID THE FATHER SEND JESUS, THE SON'S SPIRIT, THE WORD ?
FIRST ON THE FOUNDATION OF THE WORLD TO CREATE ALL,REV:13:8!
THEN
IN THE FIRST EVER HUMAN BEING ADAM, AS HIS SOUL!
WHEN GOD BREATHED IN ADAM'S NOSTRILS !
SO IN JOHN 20:22 ABOVE THE WORD MADE FLESH THE SON HIMSELF, WAS IN HIS GLORY, AND IN THE GLORY OF THE FATHER!
WHICH JESUS DECLARED BEFOREHAND IN JOHN 17:1…….. Father, the hour is come, glorify thy Son, that thy Son may glorify thee.
SO HE BREATHED ON THEM AND SAID:
RECEIVE THE HOLY GHOST GOD ALMIGHTY'S UNIQUE ATTRIBUTE, THE GIVING OF HIS SPIRIT
BUT IN THAT PARTICULAR INSTANT JESUS CHRIST SUPPLIED THE HOLY GHOST!
WHY DID HE DO THAT? MIKE?
BUT YOUR WORLDLY WISDOM WON’T REACH THAT FAR!
WAIT FOR MY NEXT POST!
Peace and love in Jesus
Charles
Mike,
Quote In other words, Jesus appeared to the two disciples in a different “outward appearance” than he had when he was with Mary earlier, right? So my point is that we KNOW the word means “outward appearance” in Mark 16:12. And the definition “outward appearance” also works just fine for both uses in Phil 2.
The word form in Mark 16 works just like the Koine Greek word to express outward appearance but it does not work to express outward appearance in the statement “a form of godliness”.
Humans and angels have the same outward appearance so that is not a definition you go by in Philippians 2. We exist in the form of angels, at least externally.
Hi KW,
Genesis 6:13
And God said unto Noah, The end of all flesh is come before me; for the earth is filled with violence through them; and, behold, I will destroy them with the earth.Genesis 6:17
And, behold, I, even I, do bring a flood of waters upon the earth, to destroy all flesh, wherein is the breath of life, from under heaven; and every thing that is in the earth shall die.Genesis 6:19
And of every living thing of all flesh, two of every sort shalt thou bring into the ark, to keep them alive with thee; they shall be male and female.Genesis 7:15
And they went in unto Noah into the ark, two and two of all flesh, wherein is the breath of life.Do these verse refer to angels??
Hi KW,
How about these?Genesis 9:4
But flesh with the life thereof, which is the blood thereof, shall ye not eat.Genesis 9:11
And I will establish my covenant with you, neither shall all flesh be cut off any more by the waters of a flood; neither shall there any more be a flood to destroy the earth.Genesis 9:15
And I will remember my covenant, which is between me and you and every living creature of all flesh; and the waters shall no more become a flood to destroy all flesh.Genesis 9:16
And the bow shall be in the cloud; and I will look upon it, that I may remember the everlasting covenant between God and every living creature of all flesh that is upon the earth.Genesis 9:17
And God said unto Noah, This is the token of the covenant, which I have established between me and all flesh that is upon the earth.Hi KW,
No mention of angels here1 Corinthians 15:39
All flesh is not the same flesh: but there is one kind of flesh of men, another flesh of beasts, another of fishes, and another of birds.Mike
WHY DID JESUS GAVE THE APOSTLES THE HOLY GHOST, AN ATTRIBUTE OF THE FATHER?
HE DID SO FOR THE SIMPLE REASON THAT:
FIRST:
JESUS, ASSERTED , THAT HE NEVER WENT TO HIS FATHER IN HEAVEN ! LIKE YOU AND OTHERS BELIEVE HE DID AFTER HE SPOKE TO MARY MAGDALENE! WHEN HE SAID I ASCEND TO…………… AND SO ON!SECOND:
SINCE HE REMAINED ON EARTH, IT IS CLEAR THAT THE FATHER WAS NOT YET GLORYFIED, AS SUCH! THEREFORE, THE FATHER WAS NOT IN THE POSITION TO SUPPLY JESUS’ APOSTLES WITH THE GLORIFIED HOLY GHOST! OBVIOUS JESUS DIED, NOT THE FATHER! NO? JESUS INTEGRATED WITH THE HOLY GHOST, ON EARTH! NO?THIRD:
JESUS HAD TO PASS ONTO HIS APOSTLES THE GLORIFIED HOLY GHOST FROM THE HUMAN SIDE GLORIFICATION POINT OF VIEW HE WAS MAN!AND OBVIOUS! THE HOLY GHOST WAS JESUS’SOUL!
FOURTH:
JESUS DEMONSTRATED THAT FROM THAT MOMENT ONWITHOUT A DOUBT
HE WAS IN THE GLORY OF GOD ALMIGHTY ON EARTH!
IN FULL POWER, EVEN MORE THAN EVER! SINCE HE OWNED THE HUMAN FLESH SUBSTANCE! AS HE CONFIRMED IN JOHN
17:2 As thou hast given him power over ALL FLESH, NOT JUST MALES BUT ALSO FEMALES, NOT JUST SONS BUT ALSO DAUGHTERS! AND SO ON!
SO SATAN LOST AS A PRINCIPAL THE FEMALE FACTOR!
OTHERWISE IT WON'T BE A GLORY AT ALL! NO?
SO IT WAS A FACT THAT THE FATHER ABANDONED JESUS ON THE CROSS, AND IT WAS ALSO A FACT THAT HE NEVER ABIDED AGAIN IN JESUS LIKE HE DID BEFORE HIS DEATH,
NO NEED TO! MISSION ACCOMPLISHED
THEREFORE, JESUS EXECUTED GOD ALMIGHTY'S WORK! ON EARTH
OBVIOUS! GOD ALMIGHTY GAVE ALL THINGS INTO HIS HANDS BEFORE HE WAS CRUCIFIED!
John 13:3 Knowing that the Father had given him all things into his hands, and that he came from God, and goeth to God;
THAN JESUS CONCLUDED:
23Whose sins you shall forgive, they are forgiven them; and whose sins you shall retain, they are retained.
MORE EMPHASIZED:
JESUS ATTRIBUTED TO HIS APOSTLES!THE POWER TO FORGIVE SINS!
AGAIN: ONLY GOD IS AN AUTHORITY OVER SINS!
SO JESUS, WAS THE ONLY TRUE GOD ON EARTH SINCE HE PASSED IT ONTO THEM!
THEN AFTER 40 DAYS, JESUS WENT TO HEAVEN, AND HE INTEGRATED WITH THE FATHER, AND THE FATHER SENT THE HOLY GHOST FROM THE FATHER’S POINT OF VIEW
John 16:15 ALL THINGS WHATSOEVER THE FATHER HAS, ARE MINE .
NOTICE: NOT MY FATHER, BUT THE FATHER AND THEN HE ASSERTED:
Therefore I said, that HE SHALL RECEIVE OF MINE, …………
THIS IN ORDER TO MAKE IT POSSIBLE ALSO FOR THE FATHER TO ABIDE IN MAN, AND TOPPLED SATAN,
BUT FIRST AND FOREMOST, ONLY IN THOSE WHO BELIEVE THAT JESUS IS:
THE ONLY TRUE GOD, AND JESUS CHRIST
SOMETHING WHICH SATAN UP TO THIS VERY DAY REFUSED TO BELIEVE!
OBVIOUS!
Matthew 10:32 Every one therefore that shall confess me before men, I will also confess him before my Father who is in heaven. 33But he that shall deny me before men, I will also deny him before my Father who is in heaven.
Peace and love in Jesus
Charles
Quote (mikeboll64 @ April 30 2014,11:04) Quote whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. This verse sums up the entire NT. Who did our ONE and ONLY God “give”, jammin? Himself? Or His Son?
You need to learn the difference between the two.
Mike,
IN WHOM SHALL WE BELIEVE TO HAVE ETERNAL LIFE?
IN THE FATHER OR IN HIS SON?
WHO IS THEREFORE OUR ETERNAL LIFE FATHER?
THE FATHER OR THE SON?
You need to learn the difference between the two
Peace and love in Jesus
Charles
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