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- mikeboll64,April wrote:
[/quote]
Quote Deuteronomy 32:6
Is this the way you repay the LORD, you foolish and unwise people? Is he not your Father, your Creator, who made you and formed you?Mike,
WASN'T I CLEAR ENOUGH ?
HERE IT IS AGAIN:
ISN'T IT SCRIPTURAL THAT GOD ALMIGHTY HAS NO DAUGHTERS!
UNLESS YOU POST :
GOD ALMIGHTY HAS DAUGHTERS IT'S USELESS!
THE TERM LORD GOD DOESN'T ASSERT THAT HE IS ALMIGHTY GOD!
PAUL SAID : THERE'S ONLY ONE LORD!
THOMAS SAID: MY LORD AND MY GOD
SO KEEP ON SEARCHING!
NOW READ THESE SCRIPTURES:
And thou shalt say to him: Thus saith the Lord: Israel is my son, my firstborn.
ANSWER:
WHY THE LORD GOD CALLED ISRAEL MY FIRST BORN SON?
WHAT HAPPENED TO THE DAUGHTER?
NOW REGARDING THE PEOPLE
Romans 9:26 And it shall be, in the place where it was said unto them, You are not my people.
there they shall be called THE SONS OF THE LIVING GOD.OK MIKE? GOD ONLY CONSIDERS THE SONS HIS PEOPLE! DAUGHTERS ARE NOT INCLUDED!
TO CLARIFY MIKE, THE WORD PEOPLE FOR GOD SIGNIFIES SONS ONLY
NOW READ THIS ONE:
1 Peter 2:WHO IN TIME PAST YOU WERE NOT A PEOPLE:
THE ABOVE MIKE IS FOR YOU AND ME AS GENTILES!
but are now the people of God. Who had not obtained mercy; but now have obtained mercy.
NOW TO MAKE SURE YOU UNDERSTAND!
ISRAEL WAS CLASIFIED THE ONLY PEOPLE FOR GOD! AND ONLY AS A FIRST BORN SON! IT IS DIFFICULT FOR YOU MIKE, SINCE YOU RELY ONLY ON WORLDLY WISDOM BUT I ASK YOU THIS WHAT DOES ISRAEL SIGNIFY SINCE ONLY SONS ARE MENTIONED?
SO Deuteronomy 32:6 IS DIRECTED ONLY TO ISRAEL!
THE REST, LIKE YOU AND ME, WERE NOT A PEOPLE, FOR GOD, BUT GENTILES, SATAN'S CREATURES,
PETER CONFIRMED THIS!
SO DO NOT POST ANY POST REGARDING PEOPLE,WHICH IS DIRECTED TO ISRAEL!
More to come regarding the term FATHER!
CAN YOU SEE YOUR RABBIT HOLES MIKE?
Quote This is why my patience has run out with you. I KNOW WHY MIKE, SIMPLY BECAUSE AS I SAID YOU ARE IN
A CUL-DE-SAC SITUATION
Peace and love in Jesus
Charles
mikeboll64,April wrote:[/quote]
Quote Are you saying that Jesus DOES have daughters according to scripture, and that's what makes JESUS the “Almighty Father”? Because JESUS isn't said to have “daughters” or “sisters” in scripture, either. The scriptures were written from a MALE perspective, and therefore many times the word “sons” is used, when “children” is obviously meant. Mike,
IT WOULD BE WISE, IF YOU WERE TO EXPLAIN WHY SCRIPTURES WERE WRITTEN FROM A MALE PERSPECTIVE, NOT JUST SAY SO!
NOW FOR THE TERM FATHER
SATAN IS THE FATHER OF LIES AMONG MANY!
I WONDER IF YOU YOURSELF POST HOW MANY FATHER ENTITLEMENTS JESUS OWNS!
SHOW YOUR WISDOM ON HEAVEN NET AND MAKE A LIST!
I START:
JESUS CHRIST IS THE FATHER OF ETERNAL LIFE OF BOTH MALES AND FEMALES!
WE ARE WAITING!
Peace and love in Jesus
Charles
Quote (carmel @ April 21 2014,12:39) UNLESS YOU POST : GOD ALMIGHTY HAS DAUGHTERS IT'S USELESS!
God Almighty has daughters, Charles.There, I said it.
(I didn't bother reading the rest of your long post.)
Quote (carmel @ April 21 2014,13:05) JESUS CHRIST IS THE FATHER OF ETERNAL LIFE OF BOTH MALES AND FEMALES!
I'm pretty sure that's not the case, Charles.So before I take time to make a list (which I probably won't), let's make sure you got your first one correct.
Show me the scripture that says what you claimed.
Quote (jammin @ April 21 2014,07:55) who told you that i did want to answer your question?
Your refusal to do it told me that you were unable or unwilling to do it, jammin.If you change your mind…………
1. Does the SECOND word “God” in Phil 2:6 refer to a PERSON? Or to a “nature/species”?
2. Show a scripture BESIDES Phil 2:6 where the word “God” refers to a “nature/species”. In that way, you might be able to support your as-of-yet UNSUPPORTED claim about Phil 2:6.
3. Refute this claim: If the first “God” in Phil 2:6 refers to a “nature/species”, then it would stand to reason that any member of that “species”, who shares in that “nature”, would be all-powerful (Jesus isn't), all-knowing (Jesus isn't), and would NOT have a God of their own (Jesus does).
You don't have to address all three of them at once, jammin. One at a time will work just fine.
mikeboll64,April wrote:[/quote]
Quote
Are you saying that Jesus DOES have daughters according to scripture, and that's what makes JESUS the “Almighty Father”? Because JESUS isn't said to have “daughters” or “sisters” in scripture, either. The scriptures were written from a MALE perspective, and therefore many times the word “sons” is used, when “children” is obviously meant.Mike,
UNLESS YOU ANSWER I CONSIDER IT THAT YOU HAVE LOST YOUR ARGUMENT!
WHY SCRIPTURE IS FROM A MALE SIDE POINT OF VIEW?
NOW READ THESE SCRIPTURES:
And thou shalt say to him: Thus saith the Lord: Israel is my son, my firstborn.
ANSWER:
WHY THE LORD GOD CALLED ISRAEL MY FIRST BORN SON?
WHAT HAPPENED TO THE DAUGHTER?
NOW REGARDING THE PEOPLE
Romans 9:26 And it shall be, in the place where it was said unto them, You are not my people.
there they shall be called THE SONS OF THE LIVING GOD.OK MIKE? GOD ONLY CONSIDERS THE SONS HIS PEOPLE! DAUGHTERS ARE NOT INCLUDED!
TO CLARIFY MIKE, THE WORD PEOPLE FOR GOD SIGNIFIES SONS ONLY
NOW READ THIS ONE:
1 Peter 2:WHO IN TIME PAST YOU WERE NOT A PEOPLE:
THE ABOVE MIKE IS FOR YOU AND ME AS GENTILES!
but are now the people of God. Who had not obtained mercy; but now have obtained mercy.
NOW TO MAKE SURE YOU UNDERSTAND!
ISRAEL WAS CLASSIFIED THE ONLY PEOPLE FOR GOD! AND ONLY AS A FIRST BORN SON! IT IS DIFFICULT FOR YOU MIKE, SINCE YOU RELY ONLY ON WORLDLY WISDOM
BUT I ASK YOU THIS WHAT DOES ISRAEL SIGNIFY SINCE ONLY SONS ARE MENTIONED?
SO Deuteronomy 32:6 IS DIRECTED ONLY TO ISRAEL!
THE REST, LIKE YOU AND ME, WERE NOT A PEOPLE, FOR GOD, BUT GENTILES, SATAN'S CREATURES,
PETER CONFIRMED THIS!
SO DO NOT POST ANY POST REGARDING PEOPLE,WHICH IS DIRECTED TO ISRAEL!
CAN YOU SEE YOUR RABBIT HOLES MIKE?
Quote
This is why my patience has run out with you.I KNOW WHY MIKE, SIMPLY BECAUSE AS I SAID YOU ARE IN
A CUL-DE-SAC SITUATION
Peace and love in Jesus
Charles
Quote (carmel @ April 22 2014,00:37) Mike, UNLESS YOU ANSWER I CONSIDER IT THAT YOU HAVE LOST YOUR ARGUMENT!
Or you could consider the correct conclusion – which is that I don't have the time or patience to deal with your unscriptural nonsense.(Btw, Zion and Jerusalem are called daughters of God in scripture. But show me a scripture that speaks of Jesus having daughters or sisters.)
Quote (mikeboll64 @ April 22 2014,10:47) Quote (jammin @ April 21 2014,07:55) who told you that i did want to answer your question?
Your refusal to do it told me that you were unable or unwilling to do it, jammin.If you change your mind…………
1.  Does the SECOND word “God” in Phil 2:6 refer to a PERSON?  Or to a “nature/species”?
2.  Show a scripture BESIDES Phil 2:6 where the word “God” refers to a “nature/species”.  In that way, you might be able to support your as-of-yet UNSUPPORTED claim about Phil 2:6.
3.  Refute this claim:  If the first “God” in Phil 2:6 refers to a “nature/species”, then it would stand to reason that any member of that “species”, who shares in that “nature”, would be all-powerful (Jesus isn't), all-knowing (Jesus isn't), and would NOT have a God of their own (Jesus does).
You don't have to address all three of them at once, jammin.  One at a time will work just fine.
Therefore you cant really prove your fairy tale doctrine form of his God. Correct? Oh i forgot you already told that you CANT READ YOUR IMAGINATION hahaha.I will answer your question as you wish. I dont want you to cry overnite like a baby boy.
1. It refers to the nature (essence)NIV ph 2:6
Who being in very nature GodDo you understand that? Question has been answered.
2. That is so easy to answer
BNT John1:1
When the world began, the Word was already there. The Word was with God, and the nature of the Word was the same as the nature of God.
Did you see that? Other versions say the Word was God. That means he has the nature of God or he is God by nature. He was God.
3. New International Version Through these he has given us his very great and precious promises, so that through them you may participate in the divine nature, having escaped the corruption in the world caused by evil desires.
Do you understand the meaning of divine nature? That verse is not talking about the nature of God as being all powerful, all knowing etc. It is referring to the divine nature of God. It doesnt mean you can be God by nature but you will be partakers of his divine nature. No verse that says you as man is God by nature. Christ is God. He made the heavens and the earth heb 1.10
God said to his son
“In the beginning, Lord, you laid the foundations of the earth, and the heavens are the work of your hands.
2
2
2.Quote (Gene Balthrop @ April 22 2014,02:15) Jammin……….Do you understand what it means to be “BORN”,  that can “only” apply to human beings and the rest of the physical creation, because they are “BORN” and Jesus is say to come into existence by WATER and BLOOD , Just as we were BORN. He is the firstborn from humanity to attain the Goal God has in mind for all humanity. If you do not see Jesus as a Human being you simply do not see Him at all. Your Idolatrous view point of Jesus  being a God, will only lead you to be rejected, if you do not repent of it. There is only ONE God and it is NOT JESUS. It is the God Jesus worships and calls  his  Father and our Father , his God and our God.
peace and love to you and yours……………………………..gene
Jesus has pre existence.before he was born of a woman, he was SENT by God. Do you understand that? Or maybe you dont know english well. Im not surprised because you dont even understand phl2:6-7.Galatians 4:4 New International Version (NIV)
4 But when the set time had fully come, God sent his Son, born of a woman, born under the law,
You cant send a person if he is not existing. Do you understand? I
Think you need vitamins for your brain.
think you vitamins for your brain
jammin,
You seem to have misunderstood, not just one of my questions, but all THREE of them.
Quote (jammin @ April 22 2014,17:46) 1. It refers to the nature (essence) NIV ph 2:6
Who being in very nature GodDo you understand that? Question has been answered.
I'm talking about the SECOND word “God” in Phil 2:6, jammin.
Philippians 2:6 NET ©
who though he existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God as something to be grasped,Not the little “God” in my quote above, but the “God” I made bigger. Does that SECOND word “God” refer to a PERSON, or to a “nature/species”?
Quote (jammin @ April 22 2014,17:46) 2. That is so easy to answer BNT John1:1
When the world began, the Word was already there. The Word was with God, and the nature of the Word was the same as the nature of God.
I'm asking for a scripture where the word “God” ITSELF refers to a “nature/species”. In the lame paraphrase you quoted, both of the words “God” refer to the PERSON of God.I'm asking for a scripture where the word “God” DOESN'T refer to a PERSON.
Get it? I'm not asking for a scripture that mentions “the nature OF God”. I want one where the word “God” itself actually refers to a “nature/species”.
Quote (jammin @ April 22 2014,17:46) 3. New International Version Through these he has given us his very great and precious promises, so that through them you may participate in the divine nature, having escaped the corruption in the world caused by evil desires.
Do you understand the meaning of divine nature? That verse is not talking about the nature of God as being all powerful, all knowing etc.
Again, you have misunderstood the question. Here it is again:
Even IF the first word “God” in Phil 2 refers to a “nature/species”, then anyone existing with that nature – as a member of that species – would also be “all powerful” like the Most High God is. But Jesus ISN'T all powerful, jammin.
A member of a species known as “God” would also be “all knowing”, like Jehovah is. But Jesus ISN'T all knowing.
And a member of a species known as “God” would NOT have a God of his own, like Jehovah DOESN'T have a God of His own. But Jesus DOES have a God of his own, jammin.
Do you get it now? If the first word “God” in Phil 2:6 refers to a nature, then ANYONE with that same nature would be all powerful, all knowing, and would not have a God of their own.
That means Jesus CAN'T have the “nature of God”, since Jesus ISN'T all powerful, and Jesus ISN'T all knowing, and Jesus DOES have a God of his own.
Therefore, your UNSUPPORTED claim that the first word “God” in Phil 2:6 refers to a “nature” can't possibly work.
Quote (jammin @ April 23 2014,06:00) Kerwin You still didnt answer my question. Do you exist in the form of man or form of your own man?
Jammin,I have answered it more than once.
Quote The scriptures were written from a MALE perspective, Mike,
ARE YOU CAPABLE TO DEFINE YOUR OWN STATEMENT ABOVE?
SO WHY SCRIPTURES ARE WRITTEN FROM A MALE PERSPECTIVE?
YOU BETTER DO SO BECAUSE:
I CONSIDER IT THAT YOU HAVE LOST YOUR ARGUMENT!
ASK TERRARICCA HE KNOWS FOR SURE
Quote (Btw, Zion and Jerusalem are called daughters of God in scripture. But show me a scripture that speaks of Jesus having daughters or sisters.) Mike,
FIRST POST SCRIPTURES I DON'T TRUST YOUR OWN TWISTED WORDS!
SECOND WHEN YOU STATE SOMETHING BACK IT UP WITH YOUR OWN DEFINITION, AT LEAST WE APPRICIATE YOUR WORLDLY WISDOM SO:
EXPLAIN WHY ZION, AND JERUSALEM ARE CALLED DAUGHTERS OF GOD!
SINCE BOTH ARE PLACES NOT HUMANS!
WE ARE DISCUSSING HUMANS!
WHAT PLACES GOT TO DO WITH HUMANS, YOU DID WHAT KERWIN DID FEW PAGES BACK, AND YOU YOURSELF ARE NOT ONLY CONTRADICTING YOUR OWN STATEMENT, BUT WHAT YOU SAID TO KERWIN, NOW, IT'S AUTOMATICALLY REFERRING TO YOU!
ALSO:
YOUR LIES ARE WORSE THAN SATAN'S!
POST WHERE I SAID THAT JESUS HAVE DAUGHTERS AND SISTERS
NOW
IF YOU ARE NOT GOING TO POST AT LEAST ONE SCRIPTURE WHERE IT DECLARES THAT JESUS OWNS THE ENTITLEMENT OF A FATHER,
IN THE SAME SENSE LIKE SATAN IS A FATHER OF LIES!
YOU SIMPLY CONFIRM THAT YOUR WORLDLY WISDOM IS USELESS, NONSENSE, AND NON EXISTENT AND DOWN THE DRAIN
ASK TERRARICCA HE KNOWS FOR SURE!
NOW:
ISAIAH 9:6 IS CLEAR:
IT SAYS A CHILD IS BORN TO US
NOT A SON BECAUSE JESUS WAS BOTH
MALE AND FEMALE, BOTH SPIRIT AND FLESH, BOTH SON OF GOD AND SON OF MAN,WHEN HE WAS BORN!
CAN YOU SEE THE DIFFERENCE?
Peace and love in Jesus
Charles
MIKE,
NOW READ THESE SCRIPTURES:
And thou shalt say to him: Thus saith the Lord: Israel is my son, my firstborn.
ANSWER:
WHY THE LORD GOD CALLED ISRAEL MY FIRST BORN SON?
WHAT HAPPENED TO THE DAUGHTER?
MIKE,
NOW REGARDING THE PEOPLE
Romans 9:26 And it shall be, in the place where it was said unto them, You are not my people.
there they shall be called THE SONS OF THE LIVING GOD.OK MIKE? GOD ONLY CONSIDERS THE SONS HIS PEOPLE! DAUGHTERS ARE NOT INCLUDED!
TO CLARIFY MIKE, THE WORD PEOPLE FOR GOD SIGNIFIES SONS ONLY
MIKE,
NOW READ THIS ONE:
1 Peter 2:WHO IN TIME PAST YOU WERE NOT A PEOPLE:
THE ABOVE MIKE IS FOR YOU AND ME AS GENTILES!
NOW TO MAKE SURE YOU UNDERSTAND!
ONLY ISRAEL WAS CLASSIFIED AS PEOPLE FOR GOD! AND ALSO ONLY AS A FIRST BORN SON!
I KNOW IT IS DIFFICULT FOR YOU MIKE, SINCE YOU RELY ONLY ON WORLDLY WISDOM
BUT I ASK YOU THIS WHAT DOES ISRAEL SIGNIFY SINCE ONLY SONS ARE MENTIONED?
SO Deuteronomy 32:6 IS DIRECTED ONLY TO ISRAEL!
THE REST, LIKE YOU AND ME, WERE NOT A PEOPLE, FOR GOD, BUT GENTILES, SATAN'S CREATURES,
PETER CONFIRMED THIS!
CAN YOU SEE YOUR RABBIT HOLES MIKE?
terraricca,April wrote:[/quote]
Quote charles 
easybut let Mike answering it for you ,i am even surprise you ask
Terraricca,
YOU BETTER GIVE MIKE A HAND HE IS NEARLY THERE!
YOU ARE QUITE GOOD, SINCE YOU'RE BORN AGAIN IN THE MORTAL FLESH!
SO HE IS IN YOUR HAND!
POOR MIKE,
in the mean time you are always in my prayers!
Peace and love in Jesus
Charles
Quote (mikeboll64 @ April 23 2014,11:21) jammin, You seem to have misunderstood, not just one of my questions, but all THREE of them.
Quote (jammin @ April 22 2014,17:46) 1. It refers to the nature (essence) NIV ph 2:6
Who being in very nature GodDo you understand that? Question has been answered.
I'm talking about the SECOND word “God” in Phil 2:6, jammin.
Philippians 2:6 NET ©
who though he existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God as something to be grasped,Not the little “God” in my quote above, but the “God” I made bigger. Does that SECOND word “God” refer to a PERSON, or to a “nature/species”?
Quote (jammin @ April 22 2014,17:46) 2. That is so easy to answer BNT John1:1
When the world began, the Word was already there. The Word was with God, and the nature of the Word was the same as the nature of God.
I'm asking for a scripture where the word “God” ITSELF refers to a “nature/species”. In the lame paraphrase you quoted, both of the words “God” refer to the PERSON of God.I'm asking for a scripture where the word “God” DOESN'T refer to a PERSON.
Get it? I'm not asking for a scripture that mentions “the nature OF God”. I want one where the word “God” itself actually refers to a “nature/species”.
Quote (jammin @ April 22 2014,17:46) 3. New International Version Through these he has given us his very great and precious promises, so that through them you may participate in the divine nature, having escaped the corruption in the world caused by evil desires.
Do you understand the meaning of divine nature? That verse is not talking about the nature of God as being all powerful, all knowing etc.
Again, you have misunderstood the question. Here it is again:
Even IF the first word “God” in Phil 2 refers to a “nature/species”, then anyone existing with that nature – as a member of that species – would also be “all powerful” like the Most High God is. But Jesus ISN'T all powerful, jammin.
A member of a species known as “God” would also be “all knowing”, like Jehovah is. But Jesus ISN'T all knowing.
And a member of a species known as “God” would NOT have a God of his own, like Jehovah DOESN'T have a God of His own. But Jesus DOES have a God of his own, jammin.
Do you get it now? If the first word “God” in Phil 2:6 refers to a nature, then ANYONE with that same nature would be all powerful, all knowing, and would not have a God of their own.
That means Jesus CAN'T have the “nature of God”, since Jesus ISN'T all powerful, and Jesus ISN'T all knowing, and Jesus DOES have a God of his own.
Therefore, your UNSUPPORTED claim that the first word “God” in Phil 2:6 refers to a “nature” can't possibly work.
it seems that you DONT understand my answers.1. i said before that we need to finish first the form of God before i can answer your question for your NEXT TOPIC.
do you understand that? and im answering you that that God refers to the nature. form of God (nature) or nature God.did you get it?
how can you understand the next word “God” if you dont understand the meaning of the first word “God”. the “WITH GOD” is not the same as “form of GOD”. do you understand? you have to ANALYSE well the structure of the sentence before jumping to conclusion.2. you dont really understand what you are saying. hahaha
john 1.1
the Word was “God”did you see that? it does not mean that the WORD was GOD THE FATHER but THE WORD WAS GOD! meaning, he has the nature God.
that is why barclay translated that verse this way:
and the nature of the Word was the same as the nature of God.do you understand that? therefore paul was not the only one testifying that Christ has the nature God. JOHN also said christ was God.
3. do you have a verse that will tell you that MAN HAS THE NATURE GOD? you will only post 2pet1.4 and you dont understand that verse.
i explained that verse to you but you dont accept it because you only accept what you only want to hear.
divine nature is not the same as being God by nature.Christ was God according to phil 2.6 and he made the heavens and the earth
heb 1.10God said to his son
In the beginning, Lord, you laid the foundations of the earth, and the heavens are the work of your hands.
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