JOHN 1:1 who is the WORD?

Viewing 20 posts - 10,841 through 10,860 (of 25,908 total)
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  • #315895
    Lightenup
    Participant

    Kerwin,
    you said:

    Quote
    Even on the others I prefer to glean what I can from the underlying Ancient Greek and Hebrew languages in hopes understanding God's words. Even the Ancient Greek and Hebrew Scripture we have are probably not 100% reliable as the manuscripts differ on some points, but they are better than the English ones translated from them.

    What Greek manuscript says 'His God' in Philippians 2:6?

    Philippians 2:6 Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,

    #315896
    Lightenup
    Participant

    Quote (jammin @ Oct. 12 2012,13:38)

    Quote (Lightenup @ Oct. 12 2012,16:33)

    Quote (kerwin @ Oct. 12 2012,00:26)

    Quote (jammin @ Oct. 12 2012,10:17)
    mike,

    dont forget you homework.

    give a version that says FORM OF HIS GOD in phil 2.6

    ill wait boy


    Jammin,

    You choose to put much faith in translators.  Why?


    jammin knows that the word 'his' is not in the text, Kerwin, so why are you getting on his case? Shouldn't you be getting on the person's case that is adding words to the text.

    Don't you think that the manuscripts should be translated accurately? When they are, we can put our faith in what they say. When they are not translated correctly, we can not put our faith in what they say because they would not be the inspired word of God.


    that is right sis kathi
    :)

    keep it up! :)

    may God bless you :)


    Thanks jammin!! Have a great day :laugh:

    #315916
    kerwin
    Participant

    Quote (Lightenup @ Oct. 13 2012,00:53)
    Kerwin,
    you said:

    Quote
    Even on the others I prefer to glean what I can from the underlying Ancient Greek and Hebrew languages in hopes understanding God's words.  Even the Ancient Greek and Hebrew Scripture we have are probably not 100% reliable as the manuscripts differ on some points, but they are better than the English ones translated from them.

    What Greek manuscript says 'His God' in Philippians 2:6?

    Philippians 2:6 Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,


    Kathi,

    The Greek translation that modern translations use it states “'…existing in form of God…” Nature is a choice by those translators that follow a particular religious tenet. If you don't follow that tenet then you will disagree with that choice of translation.

    Adam was created in the image of God does not have “his God” either. After Adam was created he existed in the form of God as well.

    #315918
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Oct. 12 2012,05:31)

    Quote (terraricca @ Oct. 11 2012,05:28)
    EDJ

    Quote
    Hi T8, I have organized it for you a bit better…

    “The Word”  →  “Sharp Sword”  →  “The Word”
                                       (Spirit→Sword→The Word)

    “his name is called The Word of God” (Rev 19:13)                      …“The Word”
    “out of his mouth goeth a sharp sword” (Revelation 19:15)                …“Sharp Sword”
    “the sword of the Spirit, which is “The Word” of God” (Eph 6:17)          …“The Word”

    I reorganize it for you ;

    “his name is called The Word of God” (Rev 19:13)                      …“The Word” (Jesus Christ)

    “out of his mouth goeth a sharp sword” (Revelation 19:15)                …“Sharp Sword”(the truth of Gods son on earth)

    “the sword of the Spirit, which is “The Word” of God” (Eph 6:17)          …“The Word” (all scriptures that tells Jesus Christ teachings and God awareness to his coming.)

    this is more accurate,


    :D  Well done, Pierre!


    Hi Mike.

    “The Word”    “Sharp Sword”    “The Word”
    “The Spirit”    “Sharp Sword”    “The Word”

    “his name is called The Word of God” (Rev 19:13)                      …“The Spirit”/“The Word”
    “out of his mouth goeth a sharp sword” (Revelation 19:15)                  …“Sharp Sword”
    “the sword of the Spirit, which is “The Word” of God” (Eph 6:17)          …“The Word”


    'What? came the word of God out from you? or came it unto you only?
    If any man think himself to be a prophet, or spiritual, let him acknowledge
    that the things that I write unto you are the commandments of the LORD.
    But if any man be ignorant, let him be ignorant.' (1Cor.14:36-38)


    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #315921
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (jammin @ Oct. 13 2012,05:38)

    Quote (Lightenup @ Oct. 12 2012,16:33)

    Quote (kerwin @ Oct. 12 2012,00:26)

    Quote (jammin @ Oct. 12 2012,10:17)
    mike,

    dont forget you homework.

    give a version that says FORM OF HIS GOD in phil 2.6

    ill wait boy


    Jammin,

    You choose to put much faith in translators.  Why?


    jammin knows that the word 'his' is not in the text, Kerwin, so why are you getting on his case? Shouldn't you be getting on the person's case that is adding words to the text.

    Don't you think that the manuscripts should be translated accurately? When they are, we can put our faith in what they say. When they are not translated correctly, we can not put our faith in what they say because they would not be the inspired word of God.


    that is right sis kathi
    :)

    keep it up! :)

    may God bless you :)


    “For if ye love them which love you, what reward have ye? do not even the publicans the same?
     And if ye salute your brethren only, what do ye more than others? do not even the publicans so?” (Matt 5:46-47)

    “For I say unto you, That except your righteousness shall exceed the righteousness
     of the scribes and Pharisees, ye shall in no case enter into the kingdom of heaven.” (Matt 5:20)

    #315922
    kerwin
    Participant

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Oct. 12 2012,22:32)
    kerwin,

    I may be misunderstanding you since you used too many negatives (doubt, not, not) in one sentence, but it seemed to me that you believe I do realize the difference between the “worship” of Yahweh and the “worship” of others. I do though. For example, I believe that Yahshua can be “worshiped, but not as his and our Father Yahweh. Yahshua is “worshiped as the anointed king and high priest. Do you agee with this and do you not agree with most of what I have made known on my web page concerning the words that are translated as “worship”?:
    Word Studies On Worship
    (shachah, latreuo, and proskuneo)

    WHO IS THE WORD?
    John Chapter One

    ELOHIM: ONE, OR MORE THAN ONE?
    Exodus 32
    By Voy Wilks
    3/9/98

    The Pre-existence
    Philippians 2:5-11
    By Voy Wilks
    1/29/92

    Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?

    “Jesus IS God!”?


    Frank,

    You are correct that I used more negatives than was wise.
    You are also correct that I believe you know the difference between worshiping a king and worshiping Yawheh.

    Mike is correct that some are so used to the ways of our culture that they think the word “worship” can only be used in regards to Yawheh.  I quoted Scripture to demonstrate it is not so.

    #315929
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Oct. 11 2012,15:18)
    No, this transaltion does not say “this spirit enable[d] this girl to foretell the future ACCURATELY!


    Use your God-given common sense here, Frank.  If her owners got very rich from her predictions, chances are that they were ACCURATE predictions.  Not too many people will pay to have their fortunes told by someone who is always wrong, right?  Her owners became rich because her predictions were ACCURATE.

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Oct. 11 2012,15:18)
    Who was this spirit? It actually does not identify who this spirit was in this translation, now does it?


    Once again, your God-given human logic and common sense comes into play here, Frank.  Paul expelled this spirit from the girl, right?  What is another name used for the spirits that Jesus and the disciples expelled from the Jews?  Weren't they often called “demons” and “devils”?  Read Luke 10:17 to find out which spirits submitted to the disciples of Jesus, Frank.  Are they not called “devils” and “demons” in that verse?  And aren't “devils” and “demons” called gods in the scripture, just as Kerwin has pointed out to you?

    So I ask again:  Who do you THINK this spirit was?  Do you THINK it was a man-made idol who couldn't speak or move?  Or do you THINK it was most likely one of Satan's angels……… one who had the POWER to foretell the future?

    #315930
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (kerwin @ Oct. 11 2012,17:49)

    Quote (Lightenup @ Oct. 07 2012,15:55)
    Hi Charles,
    I asked Mike how many 'theos' are to be known, believed in, served, honored, and praised in order to have eternal salvation.


    Mike,

    Her question was not specific enough and therefore left too much open to interpretation.  I answered like I did in order to be more specific.  

    If she meant to ask “how many “theos” there are that are worthy to be worshiped”, then the answer is one.

    If she meant to ask “how many “theos” there are that cannot be tempted by evil”, then the answer is also one.


    Kerwin,

    I'm not even the one who asked the question, but I can easily see how you're trying to avoid it. Her question is right here in the quote box above, and it seems pretty specific to me. ???

    #315931
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (kerwin @ Oct. 11 2012,17:58)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Oct. 12 2012,00:41)

    Quote (kerwin @ Oct. 10 2012,03:25)
    Mike,

    [Godhead] is an accurate translation at the time the KJV was written…………


    Please show your expert support that agrees “Godhead” is an accurate translation of these Greek words.


    Mike,

    Here is one of the two definitions Merriam-Websters give………..


    As far as I know, Mirriam Webster never translated the Greek language into English, Kerwin.

    I am asking for the support of a GREEK EXPERT SCHOLAR who agrees with you that the Greek words “theios”, “theiotes”, or “theotes” all mean “Godhead”.  (These are the three Greek words that the KJV translates as “Godhead”.)

    It seems that no scholar today believes those words mean “Godhead”, Kerwin.  That is why I'm asking where your information that THEY DO mean “Godhead” comes from.

    Get it now? You're claiming that “Godhead” IS an accurate translation of these words. I'm asking: Says who?

    #315932
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (jammin @ Oct. 11 2012,22:12)
    the word species is not written in the bible.


    That is correct, jammin.  The word “species” is not written, because the word “species” is not MEANT.  Yet here you and Kathi are, trying your best to DESCRIBE that Paul meant “species” in Phil 2 – without actually SAYING the word “species”.   ???

    Quote (jammin @ Oct. 11 2012,22:12)
    do you have now any version that says FORM OF HIS GOD in phil 2.6???


    Nope.  But Jesus was existing in the form of a particular God, jammin.  If not his own God, then WHICH GOD was he existing in the form of?

    #315933
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Lightenup @ Oct. 11 2012,23:27)
    jammin,
    I like how you stick to the words of the Bible.


    Where's your answer to my POINT, Kathi?

    If you and jammin don't believe the word “God” in the first part of Phil 2:6 refers to AN INDIVIDUAL BEING known as “God”, then you have no choice but to be saying that Jesus was existing with the nature of A SPECIES known as “God”.

    There are no other choices.  Either “God” refers to the God of Jesus (hence, “his God”)…………… or it refers to some kind of SPECIES known to Paul as “God”.

    Do you believe “God” is a SPECIES, Kathi?  Do you believe Paul was speaking about a SPECIES known as “God” in the first part of Phil 2:6?

    #315936
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Lightenup @ Oct. 07 2012,15:55)
    Hi Charles,
    I asked Mike how many 'theos' are to be known, believed in, served, honored, and praised in order to have eternal salvation.

    Hey Charles and jammin……………………….

    When are you guys going to answer Kathi's question with a NUMERICAL answer?

    HOW MANY?

    #315970
    terraricca
    Participant

    Quote (kerwin @ Oct. 12 2012,18:09)

    Quote (terraricca @ Oct. 11 2012,17:21)

    Quote (kerwin @ Oct. 11 2012,22:28)

    Quote (terraricca @ Oct. 11 2012,09:31)
    F

    So your debate is deceitful ,just as the words you using are ambiguous ,right ???


    T,

    Is speaking English deceitful because words are ambiguous?

    I would use fluid as the meaning changes with context just as both Greek and Hebrew words do.  Some contexts do create a certain amount of ambitiousness that can lead to miscommunications.


    Kerwin

    nice try but you mist the point ,i was not talking about the language but about the use of ambiguous words in that language ,and his  knowingly used to make others fall in a trap.you are very good at it ,

    I DO NOT RECALL GOD USING SUCH A VOCABULARY AND INTENTION,

    it becomes obvious that the ones using those means are not true in their hearts ,and so do not have truth in mind when speaking.THIS IS NOT THE WAY OF CHRIST ,NOR OF HIS TRUE FOLLOWERS


    T,

    God uses ambiguous words for the same reason Jesus speaks in parables.

    Those who seek his righteousness and kingdom will come to understand them.

    I doubt that either you or Frank do not understand that when Scripture speaks of the people worshiping their it does not mean the same as them worshiping Jehovah.


    k

    Quote
    God uses ambiguous words for the same reason Jesus speaks in parables.

    I disagree with you ,God does not use ambiguous words ,and the reason for Jesus speaking in parables is not to be ambiguous,

    #315983
    kerwin
    Participant

    Quote (terraricca @ Oct. 13 2012,07:35)

    Quote (kerwin @ Oct. 12 2012,18:09)

    Quote (terraricca @ Oct. 11 2012,17:21)

    Quote (kerwin @ Oct. 11 2012,22:28)

    Quote (terraricca @ Oct. 11 2012,09:31)
    F

    So your debate is deceitful ,just as the words you using are ambiguous ,right ???


    T,

    Is speaking English deceitful because words are ambiguous?

    I would use fluid as the meaning changes with context just as both Greek and Hebrew words do.  Some contexts do create a certain amount of ambitiousness that can lead to miscommunications.


    Kerwin

    nice try but you mist the point ,i was not talking about the language but about the use of ambiguous words in that language ,and his  knowingly used to make others fall in a trap.you are very good at it ,

    I DO NOT RECALL GOD USING SUCH A VOCABULARY AND INTENTION,

    it becomes obvious that the ones using those means are not true in their hearts ,and so do not have truth in mind when speaking.THIS IS NOT THE WAY OF CHRIST ,NOR OF HIS TRUE FOLLOWERS


    T,

    God uses ambiguous words for the same reason Jesus speaks in parables.

    Those who seek his righteousness and kingdom will come to understand them.

    I doubt that either you or Frank do not understand that when Scripture speaks of the people worshiping their it does not mean the same as them worshiping Jehovah.


    k

    Quote
    God uses ambiguous words for the same reason Jesus speaks in parables.

    I disagree with you ,God does not use ambiguous words ,and the reason for Jesus speaking in parables is not to be ambiguous,


    T,

    I am speaking ambiguous as “We were confused by the ambiguous wording of the message.”

    Matthew 13:13-16
    King James Version (KJV)

    13 Therefore speak I to them in parables: because they seeing see not; and hearing they hear not, neither do they understand.
    14 And in them is fulfilled the prophecy of Esaias, which saith, By hearing ye shall hear, and shall not understand; and seeing ye shall see, and shall not perceive:
    15 For this people's heart is waxed gross, and their ears are dull of hearing, and their eyes they have closed; lest at any time they should see with their eyes and hear with their ears, and should understand with their heart, and should be converted, and I should heal them.
    16 But blessed are your eyes, for they see: and your ears, for they hear.

    The hearts of the sinful do not understand the ambiguous message as they “deviseth wicked imaginations”, Proverbs 6:18 while the hearts of the righteous “studieth to answer”, Proverbs 15:28, and so do understand the message even though it is ambiguous.

    #315990
    carmel
    Participant

    mikeboll64,Oct. wrote:

    [/quote]

    Quote
    There are many things wrong with your post……………

    He does NOT expect us to imagine UNSCRIPTURAL doctrines,

    I don't have the time or patience to wade through the rest of your imaginative ponderings.

    The bottom line is YES, God for sure counts on us using our HUMAN LOGIC to understand the things He taught us through scripture.

    We are to search the scriptures to find out God's truth.

    Mike,

    You said :There are many things wrong with your post.

    I respect your inteligence, but it doesn't mean that

    I AM WRONG, UNLESS YOU YOURSELF IS CAPABLE TO CONTRADICT ME ON EVERY WORD I STATED.

    MIKE, TELL ME!!

    WHY ARE THERE SO MANY DIFFERENT CHRISTIAN'S BELIEFES

    WHY ARE THERE SO MANY DIFFERENT SCRIPTURES???

    WHEN YOU SAY SCRIPTURAL WHICH SCRIPTURE ARE YOU REFERING TO???

    YOU SAID:

    God for sure counts on us using our HUMAN LOGIC!

    WHO SAID NO???

    I MYSELF STATED SO, GO BACK TO MY POSTS AND SEE FOR YOURSELF,THAT GOD SUPPLIED US WITH LOGIC IN ORDER TO GET CLOSE TO HIM!!!

    BUT GOD HAS NOTHING TO DO WITH LOGIC.IT DOESN'T WORK FOR HIM. OUR LOGIC IS THE OPPOSITE OF GOD'S LOGIC.

    READ:

    PSALM 139:12 Yea, the darkness hideth not from thee; but the night shineth as the day: the darkness and the light are both alike to thee.

    ARE YOU CONVINCED:

    THE DARKNESS AND LIGHT ARE THE SAME THING FOR GOD.

    IS IT HUMAN LOGIC???

    THE EXCUSE OF NOT HAVING PATIENCE, AND TIME TO DISCUSS WHAT YOUR INTELIGENCE CONSIDERS :

    IMMAGINATION

    IT WILL NOT BE IMMAGINATION UNLESS YOU PROVE IT!!!

    YOU SEE THINGS DIFFERENT FROM THE WAY I SEE THEM,REGARDING SCRIPTURES, AND THAT IS NOT COMING FROM US ONLY!!!

    YOU SAID:

    The bottom line is YES, God for sure counts on us using our HUMAN LOGIC to understand the things He taught us through scripture.

    I didn't use the word counts, for a start,

    I ASKED:

    DO YOU BELIEVE THAT GOD  RESPECTED OUR LOGICAL REASONING IN ORDER TO REDEEM US???

    SO GOD SENT HIS SON TO BE CRUCIFIED ACCORDING TO HUMAN LOGICAL REASONING.

    JESUS WAS CRUCIFIED DUETO HUMAN LOGICAL REASONING.

    SO GOD ALTHOUGH HE KNEW THAT THE HUMAN LOGICAL REASONING WOULD CRUCIFY JESUS,HE IGNORD THAT, AND STILL SENT HIM PURPOSELY IN ORDER THAT THROUGH THAT SAME HUMAN LOGICAL REASONING HE STILL REDEEM US!!!

    AND THAT TO SHOW SATAN THAT GOD'S LOGICAL REASONING IS THE OPPOSITE AND SUPERIOR OF his HUMAN LOGIAL REASONING.

    IF GOD HAD TO RESPECT THAT LOGICAL REASONING HE WOULDN'T HAVE SENT HIM!!!

    FATHER FORGIVE THEM BECAUSE THEY DON'T KNOW WHAT THEY ARE DOING!!!

    I KNOW:

    HUMAN LOGICAL REASONING

    OK???

    Peace and love in Jesus

    Charles

    #315992
    limjunus
    Participant

    Quote (jammin @ Oct. 12 2012,15:16)

    Quote (limjunus @ Oct. 11 2012,22:55)

    Quote (jammin @ Oct. 10 2012,18:09)
    limjunus,

    cant you read gal 4.4??/ LOL

    the father sent his son!
    the son did not send himself but the father. your question is non sense LOL


    Jammin,

    Before you talk and not too much, answer my pending questions on you.  Remember, you owe me a lot of answers.

    You have post before that you believe that the true God, the Father of Jesus is only one.

    Now, you are admitting without shame that the Father sent the son (Jesus Christ).  and using the verse Gal. 4:4. and you believing that the son (Jesus Christ) is truly God, by basing the Philippians 2:6.

    See your enumeration:

    Father –  only true God.
    Son     – Truly God

    So therefore, you are not believing that the true God, is not only one, but two truly Gods.

    Here is again your another theory:

    Jesus Christ did not died because he is truly God, inside the flesh, only the body died.

    The very important question is, “If Jesus Christ did not died because he is truly God,inside the flesh but instead only his body died.”

    Who is the body raised from the dead by God, and ascended to heaven and sit-down in the right hand of the only true God?

    Now, you owe me a lots of answers.

    It's time not to talk too much, It's the time to answers “kiddie boy”


    LOL

    i already answered your questions many many times! LOL

    there is ONE TRULY GOD the FATHER! john 17.3
    there is ONE GOD THE ONLY SON! john 1.18
    the bible said that.

    GOD is their nature. they both have the same nature. phil 2.6
    john 1.1

    are you blind boy???? READ john 1.1 and phil 2.6 over and over again.

    the body of Christ DIED.
    and that BODY WAS RAISED from the dead.


    Jammin,

    You have answered many-many times,.. where, when? are you dreaming?

    Jammin, said. Jesus Christ did not died, the body died.

    Who is the body raised from the dead by God, ascended to heaven and sitting at the right hand of God?

    where is your answer, only blah blah, no answer?

    ???

    #315996
    jammin
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Oct. 13 2012,10:33)

    Quote (jammin @ Oct. 11 2012,22:12)
    do you have now any version that says FORM OF HIS GOD in phil 2.6???


    Nope.


    tnx for the answer boy

    you are now obviously a false teacher. i knew you cant read your word in phil 2.6 LOL

    why are you adding your opinion in phil 2.6? LOL

    #315997
    jammin
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Oct. 13 2012,10:42)

    Quote (Lightenup @ Oct. 07 2012,15:55)
    Hi Charles,
    I asked Mike how many 'theos' are to be known, believed in, served, honored, and praised in order to have eternal salvation.

    Hey Charles and jammin……………………….

    When are you guys going to answer Kathi's question with a NUMERICAL answer?

    HOW MANY?


    there is ONE GOD THE FATHER

    there is one GOD THE ONLY SON!

    that is the answer mike. we told you about this a long long time ago LOL

    i think you have a mind problem..maybe a memory gap LOL

    #315998
    jammin
    Participant

    Quote (limjunus @ Oct. 13 2012,18:15)

    Quote (jammin @ Oct. 12 2012,15:16)

    Quote (limjunus @ Oct. 11 2012,22:55)

    Quote (jammin @ Oct. 10 2012,18:09)
    limjunus,

    cant you read gal 4.4??/ LOL

    the father sent his son!
    the son did not send himself but the father. your question is non sense LOL


    Jammin,

    Before you talk and not too much, answer my pending questions on you.  Remember, you owe me a lot of answers.

    You have post before that you believe that the true God, the Father of Jesus is only one.

    Now, you are admitting without shame that the Father sent the son (Jesus Christ).  and using the verse Gal. 4:4. and you believing that the son (Jesus Christ) is truly God, by basing the Philippians 2:6.

    See your enumeration:

    Father –  only true God.
    Son     – Truly God

    So therefore, you are not believing that the true God, is not only one, but two truly Gods.

    Here is again your another theory:

    Jesus Christ did not died because he is truly God, inside the flesh, only the body died.

    The very important question is, “If Jesus Christ did not died because he is truly God,inside the flesh but instead only his body died.”

    Who is the body raised from the dead by God, and ascended to heaven and sit-down in the right hand of the only true God?

    Now, you owe me a lots of answers.

    It's time not to talk too much, It's the time to answers “kiddie boy”


    LOL

    i already answered your questions many many times! LOL

    there is ONE TRULY GOD the FATHER! john 17.3
    there is ONE GOD THE ONLY SON! john 1.18
    the bible said that.

    GOD is their nature. they both have the same nature. phil 2.6
    john 1.1

    are you blind boy???? READ john 1.1 and phil 2.6 over and over again.

    the body of Christ DIED.
    and that BODY WAS RAISED from the dead.


    Jammin,

    You have answered many-many times,.. where, when? are you dreaming?

    Jammin, said. Jesus Christ did not died, the body died.

    Who is the body raised from the dead by God, ascended to heaven and sitting at the right hand of God?  

    where is your answer, only blah blah, no answer?

    ???


    cant you see my answer??
    ill repeat

    the body of Christ DIED.
    and that BODY WAS RAISED from the dead.

    are not you tired of posting messages here??

    i always laugh when you have post here LOL

    do not read pasugo boy. read only your bible.

    #316030
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (carmel @ Oct. 12 2012,00:40)
    ONLY GOD IN JESUS HAD THE POWER TO REMOVE DEVILS FROM HUMAN BEINGS’SOULS!!!


    Charles,
     
    I agree with the above statement 100%!  But notice that you've spoken scriptural truth here……………… God was IN Jesus doing the works.  Jesus was not in himself, but God (someone OTHER THAN Jesus) was in him doing the good works.

    Do you understand that it makes no sense to say “God was in God”?  Do you understand that for God to be in someone, that someone has to be someone OTHER THAN God?

    How is it that you can speak such scriptural truth, but then turn around and claim that Jesus WAS the very God who was IN him? ???

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