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- September 14, 2012 at 8:54 pm#312855Frank4YAHWEHParticipant
Quote (carmel @ Sep. 15 2012,07:42) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 05 2012,09:11) . Quote The demons know they're going to the lake of fire eventually. And they surely don't want to get there earlier than they absolutely have to. Mike,
Perfect!!
Now tell me!!
Who would judge the DEMONS, for the eternal punishment, THE FATHER, OR THE SON???
Peace and love in Jesus
Charles
Charles,It is quite obvious to me that Satan and his demons have already been judge by Father Yahweh before Yahshua ever came into existence simply by their being referred to as “demons”. It is also quite obvious to me that Mike believes that demons have already been judged by his saying “The demons know they're going to the lake of fire eventually. And they surely don't want to get there earlier than they absolutely have to.”
WHO IS THE WORD?
John Chapter OneELOHIM: ONE, OR MORE THAN ONE?
Exodus 32
By Voy Wilks
3/9/98The Pre-existence
Philippians 2:5-11
By Voy Wilks
1/29/92Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?
…
September 14, 2012 at 9:05 pm#312859carmelParticipantEd wrote:[/quote]
Quote the glory as of the only begotten of the Father (John 1:14)
com-
pared with the glory which shall be revealed in us. (Romans 8:18)Edj,
It seems that you are under the impression that the GLORY mentioned in John 1: 14, is the same GLORY which is mentioned in Romans 8:18!!
Am I right???
Now If so,
How?? Considering the fact that John 1:14 is a reference to the word became flesh, and died on the cross,
and the glory which would be revealed in us is still to come on the last day, and it is the glory which was achieved through the death on the cross by Jesus Christ??
They cannot be the same glory, since:
ONE WAS ACHIEVED THROUGH JESUS' BIRTH,
THEREFORE LOWERED GOD'S STATE INTO ORDINARY HUMAN STATE
AND THE OTHER WAS ACHIEVED THROUGH JESUS' DEATH
THEREFORE GLORYFIED GOD'S STATE THROUGH THE UNIFICATION OF THE FATHER AND THE SON, SPIRIT AND FLESH, IN ONE MYSTICAL BODY.
Peace and love in Jesus
Charles
September 14, 2012 at 9:35 pm#312864Frank4YAHWEHParticipantQuote (carmel @ Sep. 15 2012,07:37) Quote (limjunus @ Sep. 14 2012,21:09) Quote Therefore, God could and would be equaled by Jesus Christ in the essence of God's attributes. Limjunus,
Now, tell me in what GOD THE FATHER IS EAQUAL WITH THE SON'S ATTRIBUTES???
WHICH HE(THE FATHER) NEVER WAS,AND HAD BEFORE!!
IN ORDER TO TOLERATE SINS,
SOMETHING WHICH HE NEVER DID IN THE OT.
IN FACT HE KILLED PEOPLE INSTANTLY,EVEN WITHOUT AN EVIL INTENTION!!
Read hereunder!
1 Chronicles 13:9And when they came unto the threshingfloor of Chidon, Uzza put forth his hand to hold the ark; for the oxen stumbled. 10And the anger of the LORD was kindled against Uzza, and he smote him, because he put his hand to the ark: and there he died before God.
Peace and love in Jesus
Charles
Charles,Father Yahweh never “KILLED PEOPLE INSTANTLY,EVEN WITHOUT AN EVIL INTENTION!!” This is not “IN FACT”, but is IN FACT ERROR in opposition to Father Yahweh's righteous and loving way!
The FACT is, the wages of disobedience to Father Yahweh (“sin”) is death!
For the wages of *sin is death, but the gift of Yahweh is eternal life in the Messiah Yahshua our Master (Romans 6:23).
*NOTE sin: What is the Scriptural definition of “sin”?
Whosoever commits sin transgresses also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law (1 Yahchanan [John] 3:4).
Disobedience to Father Yahweh's righteous instruction (torah, law, commandment, statute, charge) is most certainly “EVIL”.
In Numbers 4:15 Father Yahweh warned the Lewites that they were not to touch any of the set apart [“holy”] things they were to carry lest they die. This was in direct disobedience to Father Yahweh's clear instruction.
Please see:
Father Yahweh Instruction (Torah, Law, Commandment, Statute, Charge, Teaching)
WHO IS THE WORD?
John Chapter OneELOHIM: ONE, OR MORE THAN ONE?
Exodus 32
By Voy Wilks
3/9/98The Pre-existence
Philippians 2:5-11
By Voy Wilks
1/29/92Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?
…
September 14, 2012 at 9:38 pm#312866Ed JParticipantQuote (carmel @ Sep. 15 2012,08:05) Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 09 2012,17:31) Quote the glory as of the only begotten of the Father (John 1:14)
com-
pared with the glory which shall be revealed in us. (Romans 8:18)Edj,
It seems that you are under the impression that the GLORY mentioned in John 1: 14, is the same GLORY which is mentioned in Romans 8:18!!
Am I right???
Peace and love in Jesus
Charles
Hi Charles: the same glory.God's HolySpirit is “The Word“. (Link)
“(The) Ho Logos which ye hear is not mine, but the Father's” (John 14:24)
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgSeptember 14, 2012 at 9:41 pm#312867Frank4YAHWEHParticipantQuote (carmel @ Sep. 15 2012,08:05) Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 09 2012,17:31) Quote the glory as of the only begotten of the Father (John 1:14)
com-
pared with the glory which shall be revealed in us. (Romans 8:18)Edj,
It seems that you are under the impression that the GLORY mentioned in John 1: 14, is the same GLORY which is mentioned in Romans 8:18!!
Am I right???
Now If so,
How?? Considering the fact that John 1:14 is a reference to the word became flesh, and died on the cross,
and the glory which would be revealed in us is still to come on the last day, and it is the glory which was achieved through the death on the cross by Jesus Christ??
They cannot be the same glory, since:
ONE WAS ACHIEVED THROUGH JESUS' BIRTH,
THEREFORE LOWERED GOD'S STATE INTO ORDINARY HUMAN STATE
AND THE OTHER WAS ACHIEVED THROUGH JESUS' DEATH
THEREFORE GLORYFIED GOD'S STATE THROUGH THE UNIFICATION OF THE FATHER AND THE SON, SPIRIT AND FLESH, IN ONE MYSTICAL BODY.
Peace and love in Jesus
Charles
Charles,Father Yahweh's inspired prophetic word did not “[die] on the cross”!
WHO IS THE WORD?
John Chapter OneELOHIM: ONE, OR MORE THAN ONE?
Exodus 32
By Voy Wilks
3/9/98The Pre-existence
Philippians 2:5-11
By Voy Wilks
1/29/92Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?
…
September 14, 2012 at 9:50 pm#312870Frank4YAHWEHParticipantQuote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Sep. 15 2012,08:41) Quote (carmel @ Sep. 15 2012,08:05) Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 09 2012,17:31) Quote the glory as of the only begotten of the Father (John 1:14)
com-
pared with the glory which shall be revealed in us. (Romans 8:18)Edj,
It seems that you are under the impression that the GLORY mentioned in John 1: 14, is the same GLORY which is mentioned in Romans 8:18!!
Am I right???
Now If so,
How?? Considering the fact that John 1:14 is a reference to the word became flesh, and died on the cross,
and the glory which would be revealed in us is still to come on the last day, and it is the glory which was achieved through the death on the cross by Jesus Christ??
They cannot be the same glory, since:
ONE WAS ACHIEVED THROUGH JESUS' BIRTH,
THEREFORE LOWERED GOD'S STATE INTO ORDINARY HUMAN STATE
AND THE OTHER WAS ACHIEVED THROUGH JESUS' DEATH
THEREFORE GLORYFIED GOD'S STATE THROUGH THE UNIFICATION OF THE FATHER AND THE SON, SPIRIT AND FLESH, IN ONE MYSTICAL BODY.
Peace and love in Jesus
Charles
Charles,Father Yahweh's inspired prophetic word did not “[die] on the cross”!
WHO IS THE WORD?
John Chapter OneELOHIM: ONE, OR MORE THAN ONE?
Exodus 32
By Voy Wilks
3/9/98The Pre-existence
Philippians 2:5-11
By Voy Wilks
1/29/92Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?
…
NOTE:This is another clear reason why Yahshua was not LITERALLY Father Yahweh's word as a being that pre-existed with Him in the beginning as t8, Mike, and Pierre erroneously teach!
Father Yahweh's inspired prophetic word never ceases to exist!
…
September 14, 2012 at 11:54 pm#312896mikeboll64BlockedQuote (jammin @ Sep. 13 2012,18:53) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 13 2012,11:56)
Where in scripture can I read that our one God consists of two or more persons, jammin?Please list the scripture(s).
is the father not a person??is Christ not a person???
Yes to both, jammin. Now will you show me the scripture(s) that say these two persons are both the Most High God?September 14, 2012 at 11:58 pm#312897mikeboll64BlockedQuote (limjunus @ Sep. 14 2012,04:09) In what essence Jesus Christ is equal with God, as we have aware, it could not be as another true God, because for being the Supreme Being He is alone and could not be duplicated
limjunis,Who is “the only true Lord”?
And who is “the only true mighty one”?
September 15, 2012 at 12:06 am#312899mikeboll64BlockedQuote (carmel @ Sep. 14 2012,14:42) Mike, Perfect!!
Now tell me!!
Who would judge the DEMONS, for the eternal punishment, THE FATHER, OR THE SON???
Peace and love in Jesus
Charles
Hi Charles,I agree with Frank on this one – that the demons have already been judged. (That's why they already know their punishment is coming, and asked Jesus if he was there to punish them before the appointed time.)
But I think I get the gist of what you're asking, and my answer is that Jesus' Father, Master, and God has GRANTED him authority to judge. (In fact, Jesus in turn granted some of that authority to his Apostles, saying, if you forgive them on earth, they will be forgiven in heaven………….)
Anyway, the Father is the ultimate Judge of all, and as such, He has granted the authority to judge mankind to His Son Jesus.
September 15, 2012 at 12:12 am#312900mikeboll64BlockedQuote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Sep. 14 2012,15:41) Charles, Father Yahweh's inspired prophetic word did not “[die] on the cross”!
Frank,Did the Word of God from Rev 19:13 die on the cross?
September 15, 2012 at 12:29 am#312903jamminParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 15 2012,10:54) Quote (jammin @ Sep. 13 2012,18:53) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 13 2012,11:56)
Where in scripture can I read that our one God consists of two or more persons, jammin?Please list the scripture(s).
is the father not a person??is Christ not a person???
Yes to both, jammin. Now will you show me the scripture(s) that say these two persons are both the Most High God?
therefore you believe that there are 2 personshere is the verse
Philippians 2:6GOD’S WORD Translation (GW)
6 Although he was in the form of God and equal with God,
he did not take advantage of this equality.the SON is equal with his father BUT HE DID NOT TAKE ADVANTAGE OF THIS EQUALITY
take note mike
he did not take advantage of this equality.believe it or not, the son is equal with his father
September 15, 2012 at 12:36 am#312907jamminParticipantQuote (Ed J @ Sep. 15 2012,03:23) Quote (jammin @ Sep. 15 2012,02:58) Quote (limjunus @ Sep. 14 2012,21:09) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 14 2012,04:38) Quote (limjunus @ Sep. 12 2012,22:58) …the essence of the word equal is two and could not be completed without the other one to be equaled.
Exactly. One cannot be “equal to” himself. In order for one to be “equal to” another, there has to be that OTHER for him to be “equal to”. “Equal to” definitely implies TWO – one of whom is “equal to” the OTHER.So even with jammin's doctored translations that say Jesus is “equal to God”, it still backfires on him.
(FYI, there is no actual scripture that says Jesus is “equal to God” anyway. There are, however, many scriptures that say he is the “servant of”, and “lessor to” his God and Creator.)
In what essence Jesus Christ is equal with God, as we have aware, it could not be as another true God, because for being the Supreme Being He is alone and could not be duplicatedTherefore, God could and would be equaled by Jesus Christ in the essence of God's attributes.
The true God in the essence of qualities, is holy,… Jesus Christ is also holy (sinless). (God and Jesus Christ is equal in holiness)
A sinless or a holy man could not be condemned to death. The rules of the law is, “For the wages of sin is death….” ref. Romans 6:23 NKJV.
Therefore, Jesus Christ even though he is a human is immortal (in the form/ nature/ attribute of God) for being holy/sinless and the power of death has nothing to do with him. But he did not consider it robbery to be equal with God,…” (Jesus Christ's nature/attributes is holy and immortal. Entitling him as equaled with God, and it is not robbery or to be hold) Ref: Philippians 2:6
Here is the mystery of the kingdom of God…. for the salvation of all mankind.
All mankind have sinned, except Jesus Christ. The nature/attributes of man is weak, violators or sinners, under the power of death and already condemned for the eternal punishment by God.
The salvation has been made through Jesus Christ. God made him a redeemer and Lord to those people who will beleive with his good news (Christ's gospel).
The good news is; Jesus Christ, have agreed with the will of God, that he must set aside his immortality and holiness by acting as a servant, acting has no reputation and willing to experiences a life of human full of sins, accepting the wages of death for the sinners; he must die for the sake of his believers/ followers even in the death of the cross. ref: Philippians 2:7-8
In the first place, Jesus Christ could enjoy the benefits for being holy/sinless. He can live forever and ever and no need for him to suffer as a sinner and no need for to experience the hardship in this world. But, instead he remove all of his attributes (immortality and holiness) with God, he took the normal form (sinners and mortal nature) of a human being, live among men, experiences the hardship in this world and died for us. The reward of his noble task and sacrifices,… God, exalted him, given him a name above every name and made him Lord and Savior for the Glory of his God and Father. ref: Philippians 29-11.
That's it…the mystery of the kingdom of God, for the salvation of the followers of Christ Jesus.
read in phil 2.6 that it refers only to holiness.ill wait.
give me a single translation limjunus.i do not need opinion. i want you to read your illusion in phil 2.6
that is not the right meaning of the verse.
you are not saying the whole truth. you are like your father satan
Hi limjunus,“Blessed are ye, when men shall revile you, and persecute you,
and shall say all manner of evil against you falsely, for my sake.
Rejoice, and be exceeding glad: for great is your reward in heaven:
for so persecuted they the prophets which were before you.” (Matt 5:11-12)“Hear, and understand: Not that which goeth into the mouth defileth a man;
but that which cometh out of the mouth, this defileth a man.” (Matt 15:10-11)Your brother
in Christ, Jesus.
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
holycitybiblecode.org
that verse is not referring to the both of you.
it refers to the TRUE believers.you and limjunus are false prophets
until now you cant read your imagination that the WORD in john 1.1 is the HS
why dont you make your own bible to support your imagination in john 1.1 LOL
September 15, 2012 at 12:48 am#312909mikeboll64BlockedQuote (jammin @ Sep. 14 2012,18:29) therefore you believe that there are 2 persons
I believe there are MANY persons, jammin. The Father God and His Son are but two of them. But which one of those two is called “the Most High God”? Also, I'm still waiting for the scripture(s) that teach us about God being two or more persons in one being.Also, Phil 2 doesn't say “equal with God” in the Greek text. These words are a travesty to holy scripture, as they were added in by mere men trying to make support for a flawed man-made doctrine where no support truly exists.
And, even if the scriptures did say Jesus is equal to God Most High, the words “equal to” would prohibit Jesus from being God Most High. A being cannot be “equal to” itself.
jammin, who is the “Most High God” – according to scripture? And who is His Son?
September 15, 2012 at 1:11 am#312910Frank4YAHWEHParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 15 2012,11:12) Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Sep. 14 2012,15:41) Charles, Father Yahweh's inspired prophetic word did not “[die] on the cross”!
Frank,Did the Word of God from Rev 19:13 die on the cross?
Mike,No, Revelation 19:13 makes no mention of Father Yahweh's inspired prophetic word [“dieing] on a cross”!
Again, Yahshua was not LITERALLY Father Yahweh's inspired prophetic word that pre-existed with Him in the beginning as an actual being. And as I have told you a number of times previously, Yahshua's title is called “The Word of Yahweh” in Revelation 19:13 simply because he is the spokesman of his and our Father Yahweh's word in this last time period as Hebrews 1:1-2 makes perfectly clear.
Keep those foolish questions coming, because I will surely do my best to answer any such foolish questions! Mike,
No, Revelation 19:13 makes no mention of Father Yahweh's inspired prophetic word [“dieing] on a cross”!
Again, Yahshua is not LITERALLY Father Yahweh's inspired prophetic word that pre-existed with Him in the beginning as an actual being. And as I have told you a number of times previously, Yahshua's title is called “The Word of Yahweh” in Revelation 19:13 simply because he is the spokesman of his and our Father Yahweh's word in this last time period as Hebrews 1:1-2 makes perfectly clear.
WHO IS THE WORD?
John Chapter OneELOHIM: ONE, OR MORE THAN ONE?
Exodus 32
By Voy Wilks
3/9/98The Pre-existence
Philippians 2:5-11
By Voy Wilks
1/29/92Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?
…
September 15, 2012 at 1:17 am#312912Frank4YAHWEHParticipantQuote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Sep. 15 2012,12:11) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 15 2012,11:12) Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Sep. 14 2012,15:41) Charles, Father Yahweh's inspired prophetic word did not “[die] on the cross”!
Frank,Did the Word of God from Rev 19:13 die on the cross?
Mike,No, Revelation 19:13 makes no mention of Father Yahweh's inspired prophetic word [“dieing] on a cross”!
Again, Yahshua was not LITERALLY Father Yahweh's inspired prophetic word that pre-existed with Him in the beginning as an actual being. And as I have told you a number of times previously, Yahshua's title is called “The Word of Yahweh” in Revelation 19:13 simply because he is the spokesman of his and our Father Yahweh's word in this last time period as Hebrews 1:1-2 makes perfectly clear.
Keep those foolish questions coming, because I will surely do my best to answer any such foolish questions! Mike,
No, Revelation 19:13 makes no mention of Father Yahweh's inspired prophetic word [“dieing] on a cross”!
Again, Yahshua is not LITERALLY Father Yahweh's inspired prophetic word that pre-existed with Him in the beginning as an actual being. And as I have told you a number of times previously, Yahshua's title is called “The Word of Yahweh” in Revelation 19:13 simply because he is the spokesman of his and our Father Yahweh's word in this last time period as Hebrews 1:1-2 makes perfectly clear.
WHO IS THE WORD?
John Chapter OneELOHIM: ONE, OR MORE THAN ONE?
Exodus 32
By Voy Wilks
3/9/98The Pre-existence
Philippians 2:5-11
By Voy Wilks
1/29/92Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?
…
I guess I thought it necessary to tell you twice, in hopes that I might get this simple truth through that thick head of yours!September 15, 2012 at 2:07 am#312917Frank4YAHWEHParticipantYahshua is the spokesman of his and our Father Yahweh's inspired prophetic word in this last time period:
In the past Yahweh spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways, but in this last time period He has spoken to us by His son, whom He appointed heir of all things, and because of whom He made the universe (Hebrews 1:1-2).
Out of his mouth comes a sharp sword with which to strike down the nations. “He will rule them with an iron scepter.” He treads the winepress of the fury of the wrath of Yahweh Almighty (Revelation 19:15).
In his right hand he held seven stars, and out of his mouth came a sharp double-edged sword. His face was like the sun shining in all its brilliance (Revelation 1:16).
May the praise of Yahweh be in their mouths and a double-edged sword in their hands, to inflict vengeance on the nations and punishment on the peoples, to bind their kings with fetters, their nobles with shackles of iron, to carry out the sentence written against them. This is the esteem of all His saints. Praise Yahweh! (Psalms 149:6-9).
He made my mouth like a sharpened sword, in the shadow of his hand he hid me; he made me into a polished arrow and concealed me in his quiver (Isayah 49:2).
The Spirit gives life; the flesh counts for nothing. The words I have spoken to you are spirit and they are life (Yahchanan [John] 6:63).
For I did not speak of my own accord, but the Father who sent me commanded me what to say and how to say it (Yahchanan 12:49).
Don't you believe that I am in the Father, and that the Father is in me? The words I say to you are not just my own. Rather, it is the Father, living in me, who is doing his work (Yahchanan 14:10).
For the word of Yahweh is living and active. Sharper than any double-edged sword, it penetrates even to dividing soul and spirit, joints and marrow; it judges the thoughts and attitudes of the heart (Hebrews 4:12).
Take the helmet of redemption and the sword of the Spirit, which is the word of Yahweh (Ephesians 6:17).
WHO IS THE WORD?
John Chapter OneELOHIM: ONE, OR MORE THAN ONE?
Exodus 32
By Voy Wilks
3/9/98The Pre-existence
Philippians 2:5-11
By Voy Wilks
1/29/92Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?
…
September 15, 2012 at 3:39 am#312921terrariccaParticipantQuote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Sep. 15 2012,13:42) Quote (limjunus @ Sep. 13 2012,16:23) Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Sep. 13 2012,13:03) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 13 2012,11:54) Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Sep. 12 2012,17:26) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 13 2012,10:11)
In Isaiah 44:8, Jehovah asks, “Is there an el besides me?”Well Frank? Is there any other being who is ever called “el” or “elohim” in scripture? YES or NO?
Mike,Listen to Father Yahweh when he says:
Exodus 12:12
………and I will bring judgment on all the gods of Egypt. I am the LORD.Frank, listen to what Father Yahweh says.
The answer to the question is: YES! There are MANY elohim mentioned in the scriptures.
And since that is the case, we know that Isaiah 44:8 is an EMPHATICAL statement, just like the statement about Payton Manning in my example.
Mike,
I do listen to Father Yahweh's inspired prophetic word and study and put it into practice on a daily basis as is instructed.
Father Yahweh will judge and has already judged all of theses so-called and false “gods” as powerless and as “no gods at all”! They are LITERALLY non-existent as actual beings!
They sacrificed to demons that were no gods, to gods they had never known, to new gods that had come recently, whom your fathers had never dreaded (Deuteronomy 32:17).
And you see and hear how this fellow Shaul has convinced and led astray large numbers of people here in Ephesus and in practically the whole province of Asia. He says that man-made gods are no gods at all (Acts 19:26).
You still continue to be owned in the very forum that you co-moderate and continue to be powerless in swaying me to your perverted beliefs just as the very false and so-called “gods” that you recognize as actual beings that exist!
Isayah 9:6:
Does Isayah 9:6 Proclaim Yahshua To Be Yahweh?
Does Isaiah 9:6 Claim That “Jesus is God”?Yahchanan 1:1:
WHO IS THE WORD?
John Chapter OneYahchanan 20:28:
Did Thomas Call Yahshua “God”?
Hebrews 1:8:
Did Father Yahweh call His Son “God”?
ELOHIM: ONE, OR MORE THAN ONE?
Exodus 32
By Voy Wilks
3/9/98The Pre-existence
Philippians 2:5-11
By Voy Wilks
1/29/92Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?
…
Quote “gods” meaning not true God
limjunus,This is exactly what I have pointed out to Mike on a number of occasions, but he insist that there in no mention in Scripture that these “gods” are “false, so-called gods” or “meaning not true God” as you have put it, but instead insist that the “gods” are in fact actual beings that actually have some kind of power (authority), might and strength. I even pointed out to him the story in Scripture about the competition that was set up by Eliyah between Father Yahweh and Baal and in the end result it was clearly shown that Baal had no power whatsoever and mikebulls'64 still refused to see the truth in this example.
fRANKTRUE GODS THEY ARE ,BUT THEY ARE NOT THE TRUE ALMIGHTY GOD, CAN YOU UNDERSTAND THAT
MANY ARE PRESIDENT BUT ONLY ONE HIS AS POWERFUL AS OBAMA IN THE U.S.A,AND THAT IS OBAMA HIMSELF
September 15, 2012 at 4:45 am#312926kerwinParticipantTo all,
* God is the Elohim.
* The Messengers are Elohim.
* This does not mean that the uncreated Jehovah/Yawheh is the same kind as the Messengers, who are created.
* Jehovah/Yawheh is the first and last of his kind; the A and the Z of it. There is no other.September 15, 2012 at 5:11 am#312927limjunusParticipantQuote (jammin @ Sep. 15 2012,02:58) Quote (limjunus @ Sep. 14 2012,21:09) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 14 2012,04:38) Quote (limjunus @ Sep. 12 2012,22:58) …the essence of the word equal is two and could not be completed without the other one to be equaled.
Exactly. One cannot be “equal to” himself. In order for one to be “equal to” another, there has to be that OTHER for him to be “equal to”. “Equal to” definitely implies TWO – one of whom is “equal to” the OTHER.So even with jammin's doctored translations that say Jesus is “equal to God”, it still backfires on him.
(FYI, there is no actual scripture that says Jesus is “equal to God” anyway. There are, however, many scriptures that say he is the “servant of”, and “lessor to” his God and Creator.)
In what essence Jesus Christ is equal with God, as we have aware, it could not be as another true God, because for being the Supreme Being He is alone and could not be duplicatedTherefore, God could and would be equaled by Jesus Christ in the essence of God's attributes.
The true God in the essence of qualities, is holy,… Jesus Christ is also holy (sinless). (God and Jesus Christ is equal in holiness)
A sinless or a holy man could not be condemned to death. The rules of the law is, “For the wages of sin is death….” ref. Romans 6:23 NKJV.
Therefore, Jesus Christ even though he is a human is immortal (in the form/ nature/ attribute of God) for being holy/sinless and the power of death has nothing to do with him. But he did not consider it robbery to be equal with God,…” (Jesus Christ's nature/attributes is holy and immortal. Entitling him as equaled with God, and it is not robbery or to be hold) Ref: Philippians 2:6
Here is the mystery of the kingdom of God…. for the salvation of all mankind.
All mankind have sinned, except Jesus Christ. The nature/attributes of man is weak, violators or sinners, under the power of death and already condemned for the eternal punishment by God.
The salvation has been made through Jesus Christ. God made him a redeemer and Lord to those people who will beleive with his good news (Christ's gospel).
The good news is; Jesus Christ, have agreed with the will of God, that he must set aside his immortality and holiness by acting as a servant, acting has no reputation and willing to experiences a life of human full of sins, accepting the wages of death for the sinners; he must die for the sake of his believers/ followers even in the death of the cross. ref: Philippians 2:7-8
In the first place, Jesus Christ could enjoy the benefits for being holy/sinless. He can live forever and ever and no need for him to suffer as a sinner and no need for to experience the hardship in this world. But, instead he remove all of his attributes (immortality and holiness) with God, he took the normal form (sinners and mortal nature) of a human being, live among men, experiences the hardship in this world and died for us. The reward of his noble task and sacrifices,… God, exalted him, given him a name above every name and made him Lord and Savior for the Glory of his God and Father. ref: Philippians 29-11.
That's it…the mystery of the kingdom of God, for the salvation of the followers of Christ Jesus.
read in phil 2.6 that it refers only to holiness.ill wait.
give me a single translation limjunus.i do not need opinion. i want you to read your illusion in phil 2.6
that is not the right meaning of the verse.
you are not saying the whole truth. you are like your father satan
Jammin,Now, you are requesting for a single translation? You did not see it? There were references every end of the context.
It is not my opinion, it is the new covenant or gospel of Christ Jesus. That he must set aside his nature/attributes for being a holy man of God. A holy man could not overcome by death or the power of death has nothing to do with a sinless man.
In other words, the penalty of sin is death and eternal condemnation in the lake of fire (hell). ref: Romans 6:23 / Rev. 20:14 NKJV
Jammin, answer me honestly. How the holy man or a sinless man could be put into death by God, where is the righteousness that only a guilty man must be punished by death?
Do not insist your incorrect understanding with the Philippians 2:6 and just throw away the verses 7 to 11.
Do not contradict the truth of the Bible by twisting it because of your own understanding.
Think it and learn it rightfully. You must throw away your belief that the true God died for us.
Here is the truth of the kingdom of God. The one and only true God, is immortal and would never died.
In fact you are in the stage of a very dangerous illusion.
Jesus Christ, sacrifices his nature/attributes. For being sinless or a holy man, the power of the death has nothing to do with him (Romans 6:23 and Rev.20:14)
The status of Jesus Christ was a sinless man entitling him for immortality. The same/equal quality of God, never died.
But he did not hold into it, instead he set aside it (stripped the equality of God) and agreed to be the appointed redeemer, willing to change his status of being holy man/immortal and took the normal form a human being, acting like sinners, experiencing the pain of being a sinners and ready to die even on the cross.
Because of completion of the noble and holy task given to him by God, he has been rewarded, exalted, receiving precious name above all name and made him Lord and Savior of the chosen people of God.
You are in a perfect illusion of Satan, Jammin. Imagining your belief,…The true God rewarding another true God,… true God died on the cross because he is obeying the commandments of his another true God?
The Holy Scriptures is full of mystery and it is not like an open or ordinary book. You can not get the rightful understanding on it except with the guidance the true preachers of God.
Peace.
September 15, 2012 at 5:24 am#312928limjunusParticipantQuote (jammin @ Sep. 15 2012,03:06) THE BIBLE said that the word equal means he is GOD Philippians 2:6
Amplified Bible (AMP)
6 Who, although being essentially one with God and in the form of God [[a]possessing the fullness of the attributes which make God God], did not think this equality with God was a thing to be eagerly grasped [c]or retained,
Philippians 2:6
New Living Translation (NLT)
6 Though he was God,[a]
he did not think of equality with God
as something to cling to.now give me a single translation boy that it only refers to holiness bec the verse is not ONLY referring as being holy but as being GOD!
the bible said…
possessing the fullness of the attributes which make God Godmake your own bible boy LOL
Jammin,Wake up! throw your perfect illusion with satan.
Jesus Christ is truly God?
a very strong evidence of a clear contradictions of the same book Philippians 2:7-11
Here is your beliefs, Jammin.
The true God, exalted and given another true God a very special name name, and make the another true God, both Lord and Savior?
The true God died on the cross by obeying the commandments of a true God?
Oh, come on.
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