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Quote (jammin @ Aug. 20 2012,21:11) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 21 2012,11:21) In the Greek texts, which were written in all caps, it would be “GOD”.
non sense.sorry mike, you have no knowledge about it.
Ed? Gene? Anybody?Can anyone else here explain to jammin that the Greek mss were written in all caps?
Quote (kerwin @ Aug. 21 2012,00:25) To all, This is the start of my College year………..
College? I thought your avatar was a portrait of you, Kerwin. How old are you?
Quote (limjunus @ Aug. 21 2012,00:25) He always question this: “How many nature you have “boy”? One or two? Diverting the main issue to the matter that's not relevant.
Yep, DIVERSION is jammin's way of trying not to let the rest of us know he can't answer our questions. For some reason, he thinks we can't see that he is hiding from the questions.
I especially like this last diversion he used on you: how can i answer a person without common sense??? LOL
REALLY jammin?
Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 21 2012,00:58) Quote (limjunus @ Aug. 21 2012,17:44)
I am Jammin has no common sense, the proof is I could not answer the very simple questions have asked by limjunus.
Limjunus, speaking (in the second person) about Jammin
(in the second person) to limjunus (in the first person).
– which is really the third person; “I think” Ed JQuote (kerwin @ Aug. 21 2012,01:52) Mike, According to your words you believe the Son, a being with a ghost body, transformed into a human being.
A being with a “spiritual” body, Kerwin. Jesus was existing in the form of God before being made in the likeness of a human being, right? So would you say God has a “ghost body”?Anyway, whatever form in which Jehovah exists is the form in which Jesus was existing before being made flesh.
Quote (kerwin @ Aug. 21 2012,01:52) You object because the method of this wonder is not written in John 1:14 though it is clearly written other places in various forms. The method is that the Utterance of God becomes human whenever God writes it on a person's heard and places it in them.
You are correct that EVENTUALLY, the word of God will be written on each man's heart, so no one will have to ask his neighbor about God. (Jeremiah 31:33-34) That time is in the future, not now. If it was now, then we wouldn't still be trying to fulfill Jesus' last assignment of teaching the Kingdom of God to the four corners of the earth, right?Also, you pretend to not understand the various meanings of “word” in the Bible. Surely you are adept enough to understand the difference between a written word from a man, a spoken word from God, and an individual being who has the title “the Word of God”, right?
Jesus is an individual being who is called “the Word of God”, yet the being of Jesus Christ is not “the word of God” which will be written on the hearts of all men in the future. Can you recognize the TWO DIFFERENT meanings of “word of God” here?
Quote Carmel, the above wisdom is not my own opinion and it is very plainly truth from the Bible.
LIMJUNUS,
Since you felt uncomfortable to define, read and reflect:
KJV:
Romans1:19Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them.
BY JESUS,AND IN JESUS WHILE ON EARTH!!
20For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made,
BY JESUS, AND IN JESUS HIMSELF WHILE ON EARTH!!
even his eternal power and Godhead;
AS GOD MAN
so that they are without excuse:
John 15:23He that hateth me hateth my Father also.
24If I had not done among them the works which none other man did, they had not had sin: but now have they both seen and hated both me and my Father.
25But this cometh to pass, that the word might be fulfilled that is written in their law, They hated me without a cause.
21Because that, when they knew God,
THROUGH JESUS WHILE ON EARTH
they glorified him not as God,
ALTHOUGH THE ONLY VISIBLE GOD
neither were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened.
22Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools,
23And changed the glory of the uncorruptible God
JESUS CHRIST
into an image made like to corruptible man, and to birds, and fourfooted beasts, and creeping things.
SO YOU ARE WRONG FOR HUMANS THERE ARE NO VISIBLE CARNAL GODS EXCEPT JESUS SINCE THROUGH HIM THEY WERE BORN AGAIN IN THE SPIRIT AND WERE RECONCILED ONTO HIMSELF TO BE ONE WITH HIM AND IN THE SAME INSTANT WITH THE FATHER
COLOSSIANS 1:For it PLEASED THE FATHER that in him(JESUS CHRIST) should ALL FULNESS DWELL;
20And, having made peace through the blood of his cross, by him to reconcile all things unto himself;
SINCE THROUGH HIM THEY WERE BORN AGAIN IN THE SPIRIT AND WERE RECONCILED ONTO HIMSELF TO BE ONE WITH HIM AND IN THE SAME INSTANT WITH THE FATHER
by him, I say, whether they be things in earth, or things in heaven.
jOHN17:1These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father, the hour is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee:
WHO IS GLORIFYING WHO???
THE FATHER , THE SON OR BOTH???
EXPLAIN HOW THE SON GLORIFIES THE FATHER,AND THE FATHER GLORIFIES THE SON!!!
2As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that he (Jesus)should give eternal life to as many as thou hast given him.(all creation)
WHO GIVES ETERNAL LIFE THE FATHER, THE SON OR
BOTH???WHEN AND WHY THE FATHER GAVE THE SON ALL POWER OVER ALL FLESH???
WHY ALMIGHTY GOD NEEDED A SON TO DO ALL THIS??
OR IS IT THE SAME SPIRIT IN A DIFFERENT AND AN ADDITIONAL ATTRIBUTE AS A MEDIATOR OF GOD??? THEREFORE GOD HIMSELF!!!
And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.
SO THE FATHER BECAME THE TRUE GOD, AND JESUS CHRIST!!
NOT JUST GOD ANY MORE BUT BOTH, THE SPIRIT GOD, AND THE FLESH GOD, IN ONE MYSTICAL BODY.
4I have glorified thee on the earth: I have finished the work which thou gavest me to do.
HOW AND WHEN JESUS GLORIFED THE FATHER ON EARTH COULDN'T THE FATHER DO IT ALL BY HIMSELF, OR BOTH ??
THE FATHER IN THE SON , AND THE SON IN THE FATHER[/B]
LUKE 10:22All things are delivered to me of my Father: and no man knoweth who the Son is, but the Father; and who the Father is, but the Son, and he to whom the Son will reveal him. ONLY THE SON HAS THE RIGHT TO REVEAL HIM, SINCE HE IS THE TRUE VISIBLE GOD.
5And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.AGAIN, FIRST THE SON GLORIFIED THE FATHER ON EARTH, AND NOW THE FATHER GLORIFIES THE SON IN HIMSELF LIKE HE WAS BEFORE THE WORLD WAS IN EXISTANCE.
SO THEY BOTH GLORIFIES EACH OTHER THEREFORE THE SAME SPIRIT ONE GOD IN BOTH!!
Peace and love in Jesus
Charles
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 22 2012,06:11) Quote (jammin @ Aug. 20 2012,21:11) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 21 2012,11:21) In the Greek texts, which were written in all caps, it would be “GOD”.
non sense.sorry mike, you have no knowledge about it.
Ed? Gene? Anybody?Can anyone else here explain to jammin that the Greek mss were written in all caps?
No, it would be θεός in all caps. …”GOD” is English.Okay jammin and Frank,
Since you guys can't seem to bring yourselves to acknowledge the simple FACTS concerning the translation of John 1:1c from Greek to English, I will continue without your acknowledgment.
We've already learned that John 1:1c can be faithfully translated three different ways:
1. and the word was THE god (God)
2. and the word was a god
3. and the word was qualitatively “god”
I don't know if you guys understand “qualitatively”, so I will explain it the best I can. The first man was NAMED Adam, and he was qualitatively “adam” (meaning he was of mankind).
My dog is FIDO (proper name), and he is CANINE (qualitative designation of his species).
The thing about the qualitative translation is that, in English, it means the same exact thing as #2 means. For example, if I say Fido is CANINE, I can just a truthfully say Fido is A canine. If I say Adam is MAN, I can just as faithfully say Adam is A man.
A good scriptural example would be John 4:24……….
God is spirit, and his worshipers must worship in spirit and in truth. (NIV)In this verse, God is listed QUALITATIVELY as “spirit”. But in English, it would not change the context at all to say “God is a spirit…….” In fact, since that verse was written in Greek, and the Greek language does not have an indefinite article (“a”), it could just as faithfully be translated as “God is a spirit” – as it is in these versions:
GOD'S WORD® Translation (©1995)
God is a spirit………….King James 2000 Bible (©2003)
God is a Spirit……..American King James Version
God is a Spirit…….American Standard Version
God is a Spirit……..Douay-Rheims Bible
God is a spirit………..Darby Bible Translation
God is a spirit……….English Revised Version
God is a Spirit……….Webster's Bible Translation
God is a Spirit………Young's Literal Translation
God is a Spirit………Either way, it means the same thing in English. Just like “Fido is canine” and “Fido is a canine” mean the same thing.
(jammin, take notice that many translations render the Greek words of John 4:24 as “God is spirit”, and many others render them as “God is a spirit”. That is how it is when translating from a language that doesn't use an indefinite article into a language that does. In fact, any of the 7000 times you read the indefinite article “a” in the Bible, it has BEEN ADDED by translators, who are many times GUESSING from context as to whether or not it should be added. Keep that in mind for John 1:1, okay? The FACT of the matter is that the “a” CAN be added………….. IF the translator GUESSES that it fits the context better.)
So, now we see that of the THREE translation possibilities of John 1:1c, #2 and #3 are saying basically the same exact thing. That brings us down to TWO possibilities: THE god, or A god.
Which one is the right one? (More to come………..)
Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 21 2012,14:05) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 22 2012,06:11) Quote (jammin @ Aug. 20 2012,21:11) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 21 2012,11:21) In the Greek texts, which were written in all caps, it would be “GOD”.
non sense.sorry mike, you have no knowledge about it.
Ed? Gene? Anybody?Can anyone else here explain to jammin that the Greek mss were written in all caps?
No, it would be θεός in all caps. …”GOD” is English.
Ed, if we translated the Greek word for god into English, keeping true to the lettercase in which the word was written in Greek, what would be that English translation?Hi Mike,
Originally Greek had no lower case letters and and
θεός translates into English as “God”; no ifs about it.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (Ed J @ Aug. 22 2012,15:24) Hi Mike, Originally Greek had no lower case letters and and
θεός translates into English as “God”; no ifs about it.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
edjwhat about the context ,just like “jam and jam ,witch one can we eat
or install,or be in Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 21 2012,15:24) Hi Mike, Originally Greek had no lower case letters and and
θεός translates into English as “God”; no ifs about it.
Wrong Ed, as usual. If the Greek word was written ALL IN CAPS, then a true translation into English would produce an English word written ALL IN CAPS.Now, if only the θ was capped in “theos”, then “God”, with only the “G” capped, would be a truly accurate translation. Besides, your “no ifs about it” would mean that “theos” was ALWAYS translated as “God”, with a capped “G”, right? But is it? Or do we also have “theos” translated many places in the English Bible as “god”?
Ed, I was asking for your support that the Greek mss were written ALL IN CAPS – nothing more. But, as usual, you must play childish games instead of just acknowledging for jammin what you know to be the truth of the matter.
I will remember to not ask for your support again.
Btw, don't you have some posts awaiting your response in the “indeed there are many gods” thread?
Hi Pierre,
That is why the translators chose to leave 'god' in all lower case, in many instances.
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgHi Pierre,
And because Rev 19:16 is about the “HolySpirit”,
the translators chose to use all uppercase letters…“And he hath on his vesture and on his thigh a name written,
KING OF KINGS, AND LORD OF LORDS.” (Revelation 19:16)God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 22 2012,10:07) Ed, I was asking for your support that the Greek mss were written ALL IN CAPS – nothing more.
Hi Mike,Yes, they were.
And there's always more.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 22 2012,10:07) Btw, don't you have some posts awaiting your response in the “indeed there are many gods” thread?
Do I?LOGOS AND THE PRE-EXISTENCE ISSUE
Interestingly, the term logos dovetails perfectly with the previous sure Biblically Hebraic fact. Why do I say this? Well, if the translators had not been so biased in passages such as the famous ones of John 1 where they render the term as “Word”, it would be obvious; however, since they were I will explain. The translators even expanded upon their bias in John 1 by rendering the term “Word” with a capital “W” – a totally unsubstantiated and blatant show of bias!
Let's look at the possible Greek meanings of the term logos. The New Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible defines among the various meanings the following:Motive
mental faculty
Reasoning
Intent
Thought
Divine ExpressionWhat is really illuminating is the fact that, according to the Strong's Concordance I referenced, a Greek philosopher named Heraclitus first used the term logos around 600 B.C. to designate the divine reason or plan which coordinates a changing universe. Thus, we have a historic precedent which shows the proper understanding of logos is as the “Divine Plan, thought, or motive” of the Almighty Creator. Furthermore, when this corrected rendering is applied to John 1:1-3 the term logos can be shown to not be referring specifically to Messiah (much less some mysterious “Word-man”) but, instead, refers to the Divine Plan from (or through) which YHVH created all things and which included Messiah as the crowning achievement! As a side note, the use of the personal pronouns “he” and “him” are NOT concrete and early versions of Scripture – Tyndale's original translation for example – used the term “it”. The article entitled, “What does John 1:3-4 REALLY Say?” discusses this in more detail.
SOURCEWHO IS THE WORD?
John Chapter OneELOHIM: ONE, OR MORE THAN ONE?
Exodus 32
By Voy Wilks
3/9/98The Pre-existence
Philippians 2:5-11
By Voy Wilks
1/29/92Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?
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