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Dealing with a broken talking machine like Jammin is a waste of time.
Better for me to do some more very important matter than wasting my precious time to a broken talking machine.
You guys make me laugh sometimes,give the man a chance to express himself,after all it is God that gives the measure of things.
wakeup.
Quote (Wakeup @ Aug. 13 2012,00:19) You guys make me laugh sometimes,give the man a chance to express himself,after all it is God that gives the measure of things. wakeup.
wupI agree with you ,but we all have dealt with him and come to nothing and yet we have shown him scriptures ,what he refuse to answer and comes back with his ritual same and same question that really don't make sens ,we have given him a drink,a blanket,water,food ,he all spill it to nothing ,
but we will not stop you from discussing with him ,but I am done until he shows better understanding in scriptures ,
Quote (terraricca @ Aug. 12 2012,17:28) Quote (Wakeup @ Aug. 13 2012,00:19) You guys make me laugh sometimes,give the man a chance to express himself,after all it is God that gives the measure of things. wakeup.
wupI agree with you ,but we all have dealt with him and come to nothing and yet we have shown him scriptures ,what he refuse to answer and comes back with his ritual same and same question that really don't make sens ,we have given him a drink,a blanket,water,food ,he all spill it to nothing ,
but we will not stop you from discussing with him ,but I am done until he shows better understanding in scriptures ,
Terra.We dont know of what church he belongs to,they are prisoners of the church,he thinks he is doing his church a favour. If he is genuine,God will lead him to the truth,if he is not, then he will stay in his prison.
wakeup.
Quote (Wakeup @ Aug. 13 2012,00:41) Quote (terraricca @ Aug. 12 2012,17:28) Quote (Wakeup @ Aug. 13 2012,00:19) You guys make me laugh sometimes,give the man a chance to express himself,after all it is God that gives the measure of things. wakeup.
wupI agree with you ,but we all have dealt with him and come to nothing and yet we have shown him scriptures ,what he refuse to answer and comes back with his ritual same and same question that really don't make sens ,we have given him a drink,a blanket,water,food ,he all spill it to nothing ,
but we will not stop you from discussing with him ,but I am done until he shows better understanding in scriptures ,
Terra.We dont know of what church he belongs to,they are prisoners of the church,he thinks he is doing his church a favour. If he is genuine,God will lead him to the truth,if he is not, then he will stay in his prison.
wakeup.
wupright
mikeboll64,Aug. wrote:[/quote]
Mike,Quote What does that have to do with the KJV's mistranslation of the Greek word “pascha”? When Are the Days of Unleavened Bread?
Here is what the Bible says in Acts 12:1-4
Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church.
And he killed James the brother of John with the sword.
And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)
And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.Please note the time in which the apostle James was killed: “Then were the days of unleavened bread.” When were these days?
The Bible is very specific. In Leviticus 23:5-8 and Numbers 28:16-25 we find two very clear definitions of the days of Passover and the Feast / Days of Unleavened Bread.
Passover (Hebrew: Pesach) occurs on the 14th day of the first month at even (starting at sunset).
The Feast and Days of Unleavened Bread start after Passover, on the 15th day of that month (Numbers 28:17) and continuing through the 21st day. Both the 15th and 21st days were treated as Sabbath days, days of worship and not of “servile work” (Lev. 23:7-8; Num. 28:18, 25).The Bible tells us clearly: Passover is before the Days of Unleavened Bread, not after.
What Was Herod Talking About?
A simple summary of the Scriptures will help us understand. The Bible says Herod killed the apostle James (John's brother) with the sword. Then he took the apostle Peter as well. Those days were the Days of Unleavened Bread when he did this. But while Herod wanted to put Peter in front of the people, (intending to kill him with their approval), he decided to wait for something the Greek calls pascha. Then he would bring out Peter.
Here is a simple order to keep in mind:
Passover (14 Abib), then Days of Unleavened Bread (15-21 Abib), then pascha.
Please note that Passover was before the Days of Unleavened Bread, and this pascha Herod was waiting for was after the Days of Unleavened Bread. Therefore while Herod may have been waiting for Easter (the feast of Ishtar*, which the Greeks also called pascha), he was not waiting for Passover. That is why the King James Bible, in this single instance, had to translate pascha by a word other than Passover.
The translators of the King James knew their Bible. Do the translators of the modern versions?
You see Mike. I seeked briefly with an honest approach to God and the truth was revealed to me swiftly so as to answer you. I have never studied with a university of any sort, and yet here is the simple answer in under 5 minutes of my time.
I am worried for you.
I rarely do this “interpretation” game, but you on the other hand are soaked in it up to your neck.
So WHY have YOU not come across this simple answer and yet i have?
How many more errors are you sprouting AGAINST Gods only true & PRESERVED written word?
You see how dangerous it is to believe in men and not in God?
Isn't it time you let go of the academic “career” side and embraced the truth?
The academic side leads to error and darkness.
The true way leads to wisdom & life.
You are not taking the right path Mike.
Turn around, and come home to the truth Mike, your first love…while there is still a brief time to do this.Quote The Israelites had a God long before Jesus came to earth. Mike,
I NEVER SAID that THERE WAS NEVER A GOD, BUT IT WAS OF NO USE, FOR THEM SINCE THEY HAD A HEART OF STONE (Satan's)
IT IS A FACT THAT THE ISRAELITES NEVER ACCEPTED AN INVISIBLE UNKNOWN GOD. WITH THE EXCEPTION OF THE ELECTS.
REFLECT: Even through God’s manifestation in Jesus wasn’t sufficient. Jesus cried before He demonstrated Lazarus miracle, and confirmed that He did that miracle with the hope that they may know that He was THE SON OF GOD, GOD IN FLESH!!
Now read :Ezekiel 36: 25 Then will I sprinkle clean water upon you, (Baptizm)and ye shall be clean: from all your filthiness, and from all your idols, will I cleanse you. 26A new heart also will I give you, and a NEW SPIRIT will I put WITHIN you( SOUL): and I will take away the stony heart out of your flesh, and I will give you a HEART OF FLESH. 27And I will put MY SPIRIT WITHIN you, (HOLY SPIRIT)and cause you to walk in my statutes, and ye shall keep my judgments, and do them.
So God AS A SPIRIT, was of no use to His own people, never mind the rest of the world.
So God in the flesh body of Jesus, recreated humans anew by being a man like them, lived among and like them, died like them, glorified, so they also glorify in Him.
So before the world was, God purposely commenced a process, not for Him, but for the imperfect, to lead them to perfection, even if it meant that HE HIMSELF AS MAN JESUS, WOULD HAVE TO BE THE MOST SINFULL BEING ,DIE THE MOST HORRIBLE,AND HUMILIATED DEATH ON A CROSS , AND GO TO HELL IN ORDER TO ACHIEVE THIS.
John 17:25 Just Father, THE WORLD HATH NOT KNOWN THEE; but I have known thee: and these have known that thou hast sent me. NOTICE: ONLY THESE since they were sent by the Father, from heaven
SO HE WAS UNKNOWN. ALTHOUGH HE EXISTED, HE WAS NOT TRUE FOR HUMANS. EXCEPT FOR THE SELECT!!
Romans 8:1 There is now therefore no condemnation to them THAT ARE IN CHRIST JESUS,
( NOT IN THE FATHER, BUT HE HIMSELF OPTED TO BE LIKE SINFUL HUMANS IN FULL POWER IN CHRIST IN ORDER TO BE OF USE)
who walk not according to the flesh. 2 For the LAW OF THE SPIRIT, IN CHRIST JESUS,hath delivered me from the law of sin and of death. 3 For what the law could not do, OT GOD in that it was weak through the FLESH; God sending his own Son, IN THE LIKENESS OF SINFULL FLESH AND OF SIN,
( THE FULL POWER OF THE FATHER ADDED TO JESUS’ WAS VITAL FOR JESUS NOT TO FALL LIKE ADAM DID)
HATH CONDEMNED SIN IN THE FLESH.
DESTROYED HIS FLESH BODY TO DESTROY SIN( Satan’s TWO most powerful assets)
THE FLESH HAD TO BE DESTROYED,SINCE IT WAS WEAK, REGARDING GOD’S LAW. BUT JESUS GLORIFIED IT, SPIRITUALIZED IT, THROUGH HIS OWN PEFECTION AS A HUMAN BEING.
THE REASON THAT IT TOOK ONLY THREE DAYS TO BECOME A SPIRITUAL FLESH BODY. HIS SOUL WAS FULLY BUILT PERFECT AND BECAME REAL,BOTH VISIBLE AND INVISIBLE.
THEN LATER,HE BECAME ONE WITH THE FATHER, THROUGH THE INSERTION OF THE HOLY SPIRIT.
WHEN JESUS RESURRECTED AND TALKED ONLY TO MAGDALENE, THIS WAS ONLY A SIGN THAT HE WAS ONLY AS A SPIRITUALIZED FLESH BEING,AND NOT IN FULL POWER OF THE FATHER.
Now Mike, read this hereunder and tell me WHO IS SPEAKING TO JEREMIAH?? THE FATHER OR THE SON??? OR BOTH??
Jeremiah 32: 27And the word of the Lord came to Jeremiah, saying: Behold I am the Lord the GOD OF ALL FLESH . shall any thing be hard for me?
AND WHO HAS A HEART( OF FLESH ),AND A SOUL, THE FATHER OR THE SON??? OR BOTH???
32:41 And I will rejoice over them, when I shall do them good: and I will plant them in this land in truth, with my whole heart, and with all my soul.
Reflecting on the words : SHALL ANY THING BE HARD FOR ME?”
SINCE ALL IS DONE BY JESUS’ SPIRIT, AND IN JESUS’ SPIRIT, THE WORD “ME” DOSE IT REPRESENTS THE FATHER OR THE SON, OR BOTH SINCE THE FATHER IN THE SON, AND THE SON IN TH FATHER.
Peace and love in Jesus
Charles
Quote (limjunus @ Aug. 12 2012,17:01) Quote (terraricca @ Aug. 12 2012,16:11) Quote (limjunus @ Aug. 12 2012,23:08) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 11 2012,10:20) Quote (jammin @ Aug. 09 2012,23:39) mike, God is nature according to paul phil 2.6
if the bible says nature or form then you must stick to the term.make your own bible and make it species
First of all jammin,I don't believe Paul is talking about a species when he writes the word “God” in Phil 2:6. I believe Paul is referring to an INDIVIDUAL BEING that we all know as “God”.
Secondly, there are no words in Phil 2:6 that say “God is nature”. I don't know where you're even getting that from.
Phil 2 says that Jesus was existing in the form OF God.
jammin, whose form was Jesus existing in? Was he existing in the form of a species known as “God”? Or in the form of an individual being known as “God”? Which one, please?
(It's not that hard of a question, jammin. Surely you are capable of answering it after all this time, right? My answer is: AN INDIVIDUAL BEING. What's yours?)
Mike,You are talking to Jammin? a machine?,.. a talking machine. It will talk based with it's programs. Limited to what the I.C. Brain input.
ARE YOU SURE IT IS NOT A BROKEN MACHINE ???because it keep repeating it self constantly ,like it is stuck on some little words or so
Terrica,Broken talking machine? may be more than a broken talking machine. God is a nature? really broken machine
Jammin is a really broken talking machine! not good to deal with him.
bec you cant answer my question, you are acting like a child boy.
talk to your minister and study hard.next time do not use NLT for your false doctrine. you believe that Christ is not God and you are using NLT to support your illusion but NLT does not supprt your imagination boy.
NLT believes that Christ is God
better luck next time
Quote (terraricca @ Aug. 12 2012,16:11) Quote (limjunus @ Aug. 12 2012,23:08) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 11 2012,10:20) Quote (jammin @ Aug. 09 2012,23:39) mike, God is nature according to paul phil 2.6
if the bible says nature or form then you must stick to the term.make your own bible and make it species
First of all jammin,I don't believe Paul is talking about a species when he writes the word “God” in Phil 2:6. I believe Paul is referring to an INDIVIDUAL BEING that we all know as “God”.
Secondly, there are no words in Phil 2:6 that say “God is nature”. I don't know where you're even getting that from.
Phil 2 says that Jesus was existing in the form OF God.
jammin, whose form was Jesus existing in? Was he existing in the form of a species known as “God”? Or in the form of an individual being known as “God”? Which one, please?
(It's not that hard of a question, jammin. Surely you are capable of answering it after all this time, right? My answer is: AN INDIVIDUAL BEING. What's yours?)
Mike,You are talking to Jammin? a machine?,.. a talking machine. It will talk based with it's programs. Limited to what the I.C. Brain input.
ARE YOU SURE IT IS NOT A BROKEN MACHINE ???because it keep repeating it self constantly ,like it is stuck on some little words or so
i say what is written in the bible.
how about you???
LOLyou are always using your imagination LOL
imagination has no place here
Quote (jammin @ Aug. 11 2012,20:22) by nature, just like your father?? yes or no?
Yes jammin,By nature, I am in many ways LIKE my father. But I am obviously not the same BEING as my father.
Quote (jammin @ Aug. 11 2012,20:23) paul did not say form of nature.
I agree.Paul said “form of God“, right? And what did Paul mean by “God”? Did he mean a species of beings? Or did he mean an individual being?
Quote (limjunus @ Aug. 11 2012,23:08) Mike, You are talking to Jammin? a machine?,.. a talking machine. It will talk based with it's programs.
Yes limjunis,Like all Trinitarians, jammin seems to have been “programmed” to believe the illogical and unscriptural doctrine that Jesus actually is the very God he is the Son of.
Quote (Wakeup @ Aug. 11 2012,23:23) You are right,the word pacha should have been translated as pass over. But at that time,it was easter they are celebrating.
They have corrupted the passover celebration.Therefore it was translated as easter,which is still not correct.
That's all I'm trying to point out, Wakeup. I'm not trying to slam the KJV translation – only trying to point out that the KJV, like all translations, was made by flawed men doing the best they could with what they had to work with at the time.They made a mistake in this case, and the NKJV has remedied that mistake.
But consider the argument you just made concerning “easter”. You sort of “justify” the blatant mistranslation by saying, Well, they meant easter, so the KJV is not really at fault.
Now, imagine you were a Trinitarian scribe back in the 5th or 6th century, translating 1 Tim 3:16. It would have been just as easy for you to say in your mind, Well, I know that Jesus is God Almighty who came in the flesh, and so the words, “who came in the flesh” really mean “God came in the flesh”, so it's not really a “mistranslation” if I just change the word “who” to “God”, is it?
This is what happened with 1 Tim 3:16. A well-meaning Trinitarian scribe ALTERED the text from “who” to “God”, based on his “justifiable personal beliefs”. And since “God” was such a tantalizing translation to the Trinitarians, they just decided to keep “God” and forget all about the original text, which said “who”.
In this case, it was not the KJV translators who altered the text, for they were just translating from mss that had already been altered to “God”. But we now know that the older mss had “who”, and that the word “who” was later ALTERED to “God” in that verse. And since we now know this to be the case, as much as the newer Trinitarian translations would love to have “God” in 1 Tim 3:16, they just can't justify using that altered word in the face of so much evidence against it.
peace,
mikeQuote or else all women would have the head of men on their shoulders, and all men would have the head of Jesus on their shoulders.
The word in this context means “leader”, not a physical head.Mike,
let's see:
1Corinthians 11:But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God.
Now NOTICE:
The head of every man is CHRIST. NOTICE ALL MEN
The head of the woman is man. NOTICE ONE PARTICULAR WOMAN, NOT AS YOU SAID WOMEN!! WHY?
Are you in a possition to explain these differences???
If not, your argument which is a reference to worldly understanding regarding leadership, is not heavenly understanding , which I myself I am more then convinced that it is a description REFRRING TO A MYSTICAL BODY. So in a way it is PARTLY PHYSICAL, AND PARTLY SPIRITUAL.
Now let's verify even further:
Mark 12:25For when they shall rise from the dead, they neither marry, nor are given in marriage; but are as the angels which are in heaven
So they would be as angels, and angels have no sex!!!
So men and women in your human corrupted understanding has nothing to do with what Paul meant ,which is spiritual understanding!!!
SO THE WORD HEAD OF Christ,MEN AND WOMAN ARE REFERENCES TO THE KIND OF SPIRITUAL FLESH STATES WHICH THE MEN AND WOMEN EVENTUALLY BE IN THE MYSTICAL BODY OF JESUS CHRIST, IN RESPECT OF THEIR CHURCH FUNCTION WHILE ON EARTH.
NOW WILL YOU BE SO KIND AND EXPLAIN AS I SAID THE ABOVE DIFFERECES???
The only way to find the truth, AND LEARN!!
Peace and love in Jesus
Charles
Quote (Devolution @ Aug. 12 2012,06:40) I am worried for you.
I rarely do this “interpretation” game, but you on the other hand are soaked in it up to your neck.
So WHY have YOU not come across this simple answer and yet i have?
How many more errors are you sprouting AGAINST Gods only true & PRESERVED written word?
Hi Devo,While I appreciate your concern for my soul, the simple fact of the matter is that the Greek word “pascha” means “passover”, and should be translated as such.
The NKJV has corrected the faulty translation of the KJV in this case.
It seems from your post that you are unaware of the fact that the KJV is simply one of many English translations made by flawed men doing the best they could.
Plus, I don't believe you answered me about those in the world who have never spoken a word of English in their lives. How does the KJV (“Gods only true & PRESERVED written word”) help them? Are only English speaking people allowed to have the “real truth” of the scriptures?
Devo, get over it man. The KJV is but one of many good English translations of the Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek scriptures. It is not some magical talisman designed to unlock God's secrets.
terraricca,Aug. wrote:[/quote]
Quote what Paul says was an illustration to explain the hierarchy in heaven and who are the 144k that will be with Christ the redeemer from the earth God his and will be the only true God for all his creation even the son his subdued to him but is not him
Terraricca,
I respect your effort,but for the love of Jesus: be more clear and specific,as I am not within your understanding.
Peace and love in Jesus
Charles
Quote (carmel @ Aug. 12 2012,08:23) Quote The Israelites had a God long before Jesus came to earth. Mike,
I NEVER SAID that THERE WAS NEVER A GOD, BUT IT WAS OF NO USE, FOR THEM SINCE THEY HAD A HEART OF STONE (Satan's)
So God was of no use to Noah? Or Abraham? Or Moses? Or David?Sorry Charlie – no sale.
Quote (carmel @ Aug. 12 2012,09:46) Now NOTICE: The head of every man is CHRIST. NOTICE ALL MEN
The head of the woman is man. NOTICE ONE PARTICULAR WOMAN, NOT AS YOU SAID WOMEN!! WHY?
Are you in a possition to explain these differences???
1 Corinthians 11:3 NRSV
But I want you to understand that Christ is the head of every man, and the husband is the head of his wife, and God is the head of Christ.From NETNotes:
Or “the husband is the head of his wife.” The same Greek words translated “man” and “woman” can mean, as determined by context, “husband” and “wife” respectively. Such an approach is followed by NAB, TEV, NRSV, and NLT.Charles, all you need to do is substitute the word “head” with the word “boss”, or “leader”, or “ruler” to get the meaning of this verse.
Man is the “boss” of his wife (especially in Biblical times, when wives were possessions), and Christ is the “boss” of man, and God is the “boss” of Christ.
It is a simple teaching for anyone who is not trying to force his own doctrine upon the scriptures.
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 13 2012,02:53) Quote (Devolution @ Aug. 12 2012,06:40) I am worried for you.
I rarely do this “interpretation” game, but you on the other hand are soaked in it up to your neck.
So WHY have YOU not come across this simple answer and yet i have?
How many more errors are you sprouting AGAINST Gods only true & PRESERVED written word?
Hi Devo,While I appreciate your concern for my soul, the simple fact of the matter is that the Greek word “pascha” means “passover”, and should be translated as such.
The NKJV has corrected the faulty translation of the KJV in this case.
It seems from your post that you are unaware of the fact that the KJV is simply one of many English translations made by flawed men doing the best they could.
Plus, I don't believe you answered me about those in the world who have never spoken a word of English in their lives. How does the KJV (“Gods only true & PRESERVED written word”) help them? Are only English speaking people allowed to have the “real truth” of the scriptures?
Devo, get over it man. The KJV is but one of many good English translations of the Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek scriptures. It is not some magical talisman designed to unlock God's secrets.
Hi MikeDo you understand what this is saying?
Leviticus 23:5 In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the Lord's passover.
Leviticus 23:6 And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the Lord: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread.Confirmed again
Numbers 28:16 And in the fourteenth day of the first month is the passover of the Lord.
Numbers 28:17 And in the fifteenth day of this month is the feast: seven days shall unleavened bread be eaten.The above is what we should address.
and this below.Acts 12:3 And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread)
Acts 12:4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him for to the people.
The passover happens on the 14th,
the very next day (15th) is the feast of unleavened bread. This goes on for 7 days.They were in the days of unleavened bread, so the passover has already finished.
So it can only mean one thing,
that the Romans celebrated easter (Oestre) according to their tradition (goddess worship)
And this word Easter was not mistranslated, for we know the roots of this pagan celebration existed before Christ.
The evidence comes from the bible itself, do you agree?And if the word should be pascha meaning passover, then why would he wait until after pascha when pascha has already finished?
From Barnes:
Intending after Easter – There never was a more absurd or unhappy translation than this. The original is simply after the Passover (μετὰ τὸ πάσχα meta to pascha. The word “Easter” now denotes the festival observed by many Christian churches in honor of the resurrection of the Saviour. But the original has no reference to that, nor is there the slightest evidence that any such festival was observed at the time when this book was written. The translation is not only unhappy, as it does not convey at all the meaning of the original, but because it may contribute to foster an opinion that such a festival was observed in the time of the apostles. The word “Easter” is of Saxon origin, and is supposed to be derived from “Eostre,” the goddess of Love, or the Venus of the North, in honor of whom a festival was celebrated by our pagan ancestors in the month of April (Webster). Since this festival coincided with the Passover of the Jews, and with the feast observed by Christians in honor of the resurrection of Christ, the name came to be used to denote the latter. In the old Anglo-Saxon service-books the term “Easter” is used frequently to translate the word “Passover.” In the translation by Wycliffe, the word “paske,” that is, “Passover,” is used. But Tyndale and Coverdale used the word “Easter,” and hence, it has very improperly crept into our King James Version.From Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Bible Commentary:
intending after Easter-rather, “after the Passover”; that is, after the whole festival was over. (The word in our King James Version is an ecclesiastical term of later date, and ought not to have been employed here).The term “passover” could refer to the entire, week-long passover celebration. It did not always refer only to the first night of the Passover Festival.
journey, the KJV translators made a mistake in this case. The mistake has been subseqently rectified by the NKJV, and virtually every English translation that followed the KJV.
Now that you know the KJV is not “infallible”, are you ready to put aside tradition in favor of truth?
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