JOHN 1:1 who is the WORD?

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August 6, 2012 at 5:10 am#308281

kerwin

Participant

To all;

Where does John 20:28 state Thomas was calling anyone anything? I do not perceive thee words “you are” as Peter included when confessing Jesus to be the Christ, the Son of God, Matthew 16:16.

Instead he replied to Jesus' words not to be faithless; but believing and some conclude it infers Thomas is calling Jesus “My Lord and my God”.

Is it wise to so add to what is written?

August 6, 2012 at 5:12 am#308282

limjunus

Participant

Quote (limjunus @ Aug. 06 2012,16:09)

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 06 2012,03:07)

Quote (journey42 @ Aug. 05 2012,06:28)

Quote (jammin @ Aug. 05 2012,15:38)

God was manifest in the flesh.

Yes, this statement is true. No denying what the scripture says.
God was manifested in the flesh.

Hi journey,

As usual, I have been enjoying your posts. Good stuff!

But you should know the truth that 1 Timothy 3:16 doesn't actually say “GOD was manifest in the flesh”.

You can read about it on NETNotes if you'd like. Just click on footnote #3 in the NET translation at the top of the page. (Note that NETNotes was produced by 25 TRINITARIAN scholars – who would like nothing more than for it to say “God”.)

Here is some of the information you can read on that link:
The Byzantine text along with a few other witnesses read θεός (“God”) for ὅς (“who”).

Significantly, D* and virtually the entire Latin tradition read the neuter relative pronoun, ὅ (Jo, “which”), a reading that indirectly supports ὅς (who) since it could not easily have been generated if θεός (God) had been in the text. Thus, externally, there is no question as to what should be considered original: The Alexandrian and Western traditions are decidedly in favor of ὅς. Internally, the evidence is even stronger. What scribe would change θεός to ὅς intentionally?

It appears that sometime after the 2nd century the θεός reading came into existence, either via confusion with ὅς or as an intentional alteration to magnify Christ………..

Once it got in, this theologically rich reading was easily able to influence all the rest of the mss it came in contact with (including mss already written, such as א A C D). That this reading did not arise until after the 2nd century is evident from the Western reading, ὅ.

To argue that heretics tampered with the text here is self-defeating, for most of the Western fathers who quoted the verse with the relative pronoun were quite orthodox, strongly affirming the deity of Christ. They would have dearly loved such a reading as θεός. Further, had heretics introduced a variant to θεός, a far more natural choice would have been Χριστός (Cristos, “Christ”) or κύριος (kurios, “Lord”), since the text is self-evidently about Christ, but it is not self-evidently a proclamation of his deity.

The ms was ALTERED sometime after the 2nd century to say “GOD appeared in the flesh”. The earlier ms don't have the word “GOD”.

And if you go to the page I linked, you'll notice that of the 9 translations listed, only the KJV and the NKJV have the word “GOD” in that verse. The more recent translators, who had access to the older mss, have all translated as “HE appeared in the flesh”.

In other words, there was no writing by Paul that ever said “GOD appeared in the flesh”. There is no writing by Paul to say that, because God never did appear in the flesh. His Son did.

peace,
mike

Ura and Jammin Bible versions: “God appeared in the flesh… and died?…”

Mike Bible versions: “The Son of God appeared in the flesh…”

Other Bible versions: The begotten Son of God, died….”

Ura and Jammin Bible versions: “God appeared in the flesh and died then raised by God from the dead?…”

Limjunus Bible versions:

August 6, 2012 at 5:26 am#308285

limjunus

Participant

Quote (jammin @ Aug. 06 2012,01:46)

Quote (limjunus @ Aug. 06 2012,01:04)

Quote (jammin @ Aug. 06 2012,00:30)

Quote (limjunus @ Aug. 05 2012,23:06)

I will not deal with Jammin, any more except he will answer the existing questions of mine. He could not find the rightful answers, that's why he just ignore it. How come he has a gut to join with this discussion if he has not fully equip with the truth about God?

Peace>

limjunus,

i already answered your questions. in fact, your NLT did not support your illusion that Christ is not God. why?

let me post phil 2.6 of NLT

Philippians 2:6

New Living Translation (NLT)

6 Though he was God,
he did not think of equality with God
as something to cling to.

Christ is God accrding to your favorite version NLT

you need to study hard and take more vitamins.

better luck next time boy

YOU DID NOT ANSWER JAMMIN, UP THIS TIME.

1.) WHO SI THE ONE AND ONLY TRUE GOD, JESUS CHRIST, THE BEGOTTEN SON OF GOD, OR HIS FATHER WHO HAD BEGOTTEN HIM?

2.) HOW MANY TRUE GOD YOU HATH RECOGNIZED?

I did not see your answers, where?

LOL

sorry boy but your favorite version says that Christ is GOD
LOL

study hard boy.

your stand is weak

Escaping ….

August 6, 2012 at 5:48 am#308289

jammin

Participant

limjunus,

im not escaping boy. but dont you have any common sense?? LOL

your favorite version contradict your belief that Christ is not GOD>

make more research before talking to me. you need to study hard boy LOL

August 6, 2012 at 6:08 am#308291

limjunus

Participant

Quote (jammin @ Aug. 06 2012,16:48)

limjunus,

im not escaping boy. but dont you have any common sense?? LOL

your favorite version contradict your belief that Christ is not GOD>

make more research before talking to me. you need to study hard boy LOL

The questions are very simple and clear. I did not ask what verses do you have that Jesus Christ is truly God?

Another chance for you again:

1.) “WHO IS THE ONE AND ONLY TRUE GOD, Jesus Christ, the begotten Son of God, or his Father who had begotten him?

2.) How many truly God you have recognized, only one or more?

Simple questions but very difficult for you to answer, because you really do not know which is the one and only true God, the Son or the Father?

As I told you before, I am not relying only with the Bible versions. There are more than 25,000 Bible versions around the world. I am relying and believing with the genuine truth about God. The real truth has no contradictions “boy” …. go and find the rightful answers to my questions and do not look for a ways and means to escape.

Peace.

August 6, 2012 at 6:57 am#308298

limjunus

Participant

[/B] John 20:31 King James Version (KJV)

“But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.

27 She saith unto him, Yea, Lord: I believe that thou art the Christ, the Son of God, which should come into the world. (John 11:27 KJV)

16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. (John 3:16 KJV)

verse 27 is a very self explanatory sentence and the rightful answer to the question of “Who is Jesus of Nazareth? …..” addressing the question,….. ' I believe that thou art the Christ, the Son of God,…”

verse 3:16 is also a very self explanatory sentence and it is not difficult to understand. “For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son,…”

verse 31 is also a very self explanatory sentences. “….that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.

and the verse of 1 Timothy 2:5 is also a very self explanatory sentences and very easy to understand. ” For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus; (KJV).

Truth & belief from the rightful understanding: “GOD MAN CHRIST JESUS MEN” (One God, one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus) Ref. 1 Tim. 2:5

Other beliefs: “GOD GOD Christ Jesus MEN” (One God, one mediator between God and men, the God Christ Jesus) Ref. Jammin and other understanding.

Which is the right one?

August 6, 2012 at 7:02 am#308299

limjunus

Participant

Quote (limjunus @ Aug. 06 2012,17:57)