Did Jesus pre-exist before his birth on Earth?

Where did Jesus come from?

John 6:38-40
For I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will, but the will of him who sent me; and this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise it up at the last day. For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who sees the Son and believes in him should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.

The first verse suggests that Jesus came down from Heaven. This seems to contradict that belief which suggests he first existed as a man when he was born into this world. For if Jesus came into existence for the first time when he was conceived through Mary, how could he come down from Heaven? We (Man) came into existence when we are born into this world, but would it be correct to say that we came down from Heaven too? If a verse said that we came down from Heaven, would you think that we pre-existed in Heaven? If so, then why not Jesus?

John 3:17 is another verse that provides support that Jesus came down from Heaven or was sent rather than created.

For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.

The word ‘send’ is the Greek word ‘apostello’.

apostello {ap-os-tel’-lo}
1) to order (one) to go to a place appointed
2) to send away, dismiss
2a) to allow one to depart, that he may be in a state of liberty
2b) to order one to depart, send off
2c) to drive away

To be sent surely implies existence otherwise you would just say born or created. In fact this word (sent) is similar in meaning and sound to the word Apostle (apostolos), which means “one sent forth with orders”. To be sent forth with order, you must exist.

John 6:62
What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?

Jesus is clearly stating here that he came from above since he eventually ascended into Heaven to be at the right-hand of God.

How old is Jesus?

John 1:15
15 John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.‘ “

John the Baptist was six months older than Jesus Christ. So it is physically impossible for Christ to be before him in age. If this verse is referencing age, then it shows preexistence. Jesus existed before  John the Baptist in the least.

John 8:58
“I tell you the truth,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!

Jesus claimed to exist before Abraham, the father of the Jews. The words ‘I am’ mean ‘I exist’. So Jesus claimed existence before Abraham. We can see that Jesus is getting older as we explore the scriptures. But how old?

Jude 1:25
to the only God our Savior be glory, majesty, power and authority, through Jesus Christ our Lord, before all ages, now and forevermore! Amen.

Here we can see that majesty, power, and authority through Jesus Christ is before all ages (all worlds) and forever more into the future. This strongly implies that Jesus existed even before all things. But can we substantiate this?

Did Jesus exist before all creation?

Colossians 1:17
He is before all things, and in him all things hold together.

Colossians answers the question outright. It states that “He is before all things“.  But are there other verses that support this idea?

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus being there. This verse alone answers the question because the universe, angels, and men were made and Jesus was present when they were created according to these verses. In case that is not enough to convince you, I also add another clear verse that says the same thing.

Hebrews 1:1-2
1 In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways,
2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe.

Is Jesus the Word of God?

But some say that this is talking about the Word and not all believe that Jesus is the Word of God. They argue that Jesus came from the Word, but is not the Word itself that was with God in John 1:1. If you believe this, then please explain the next two verses within their wider context:

Revelation 19:13
He is dressed in a robe dipped in blood, and his name is the Word of God.

Colossians 1:15-18
The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him. He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. And he is the head of the body, the church; he is the beginning and the firstborn from among the dead, so that in everything he might have the supremacy.

Okay, if you are honest, this is a closed case. God created all things through the Word. Jesus is called the Word of God and also the son of God. We are also told that God created all things through the son of God. Even if you do not believe that Jesus is the Word, then you still have to believe that Jesus pre-existed on account of him being the son of God. But what we know from scripture is that Jesus existed as the Word of God before he came as a man called Jesus. We know that the Word became flesh.

More proof verses

If Jesus pre-existed, then you might expect that even though the above verses are clear, there would be more verses that teach or at least imply that he pre-existed. So let’s see if this is the case.

Revelation 22:16
“I, Jesus, have sent my angel to give you this testimony for the churches. I am the Root and the Offspring of David, and the bright Morning Star.”

Here we see that Jesus is the offspring of David, yet he is also the root of David, which at appears to show existence before King David. He also claims to be the bright Morning Star and we read in Job how the Morning Stars were present when God created the Earth.

Job 38:6-7
“On what were its bases sunk? Or who laid its cornerstone, When the morning stars sang together And all the sons of God shouted for joy? 

Luke 10:18
He replied, “I saw Satan fall like lightning from heaven.

Comparing Luke 10:18 with Revelation 12:1-10, some say that Satan and his angels fell to the earth before the birth of Christ as a man. If this was the case, then Jesus saw an event that took place before he was born as a man. However, others argue that Satan hasn’t fallen to the Earth yet, or that he has, but Jesus saw this in a vision. Regardless, it certainly doesn’t contradict that Jesus pre-existed.

Micah 5:2
“But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, though you are small among the clans of Judah, out of you will come for me one who will be ruler over Israel, whose origins are from of old, from ancient times.”

The above verse talks about someone who will rule Israel and whose origin is from ancient times. Who but Jesus could fit that description?

John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God/Divine.

John 1:14
The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only,[ 1:14 Or the Only Begotten] who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Clearly, Jesus was with God in the beginning as the Word of God. This places his existence as before all things and thus comes as no surprise that he was there when God created all things.

The Angel of YHWH

We know from certain scriptures that Jesus is Lord of the Sabbath and many assume that Jesus gave the Law of God. We are told in Acts:7:30-39 for instance that an Angel of the Lord appeared to Moses through whom God spoke and this is the same Angel who spoke to Moses on Mount Sinai and passed on the living words (The Law) to Moses.

30 “After forty years had passed, an angel appeared to Moses in the flames of a burning bush in the desert near Mount Sinai.
31 When he saw this, he was amazed at the sight. As he went over to look more closely, he heard the Lord’s voice:
32 ‘I am the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.’Moses trembled with fear and did not dare to look.
33 “Then the Lord said to him, ‘Take off your sandals; the place where you are standing is holy ground.
34 I have indeed seen the oppression of my people in Egypt. I have heard their groaning and have come down to set them free. Now come, I will send you back to Egypt.’
35 “This is the same Moses whom they had rejected with the words, ‘Who made you ruler and judge?’ He was sent to be their ruler and deliverer by God himself, through the angel who appeared to him in the bush.
36 He led them out of Egypt and did wonders and miraculous signs in Egypt, at the Red Sea and for forty years in the desert.
37 “This is that Moses who told the Israelites, ‘God will send you a prophet like me from your own people.’
38 He was in the assembly in the desert, with the angel who spoke to him on Mount Sinai, and with our fathers; and he received living words to pass on to us.
39 “But our fathers refused to obey him. Instead, they rejected him and in their hearts turned back to Egypt.

So is this Angel of the Lord, Jesus? Well it seems possible. Perhaps the correct model to look at is the one mentioned in Revelation 1:1

The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,

Here we can see that the order of the Revelation started with the Originator which is God. He then passed the message to Jesus Christ who in turn sent it to his Angel and then to John. So perhaps it is possible that the angel in Revelation is the same angel mentioned in Acts:7:30-39.

But the Angel of YHWH or Angel of the LORD is described as one like the son of gods.

Daniel 3:24-25
Then Nebuchadnezzar the king was astounded and stood up in haste; he said to his high officials, “Was it not three men we cast bound into the midst of the fire?” They replied to the king, “Certainly, O king.” He said, “Look! I see four men loosed and walking about in the midst of the fire without harm, and the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods!”

The idea that a preincarnate Jesus was this Angel of the LORD is a popular one. We know that this Angel of the LORD is never mentioned while Jesus is walking the earth which supports this idea. But it could also be a coincidence. One connection that can be made with Jesus being this messenger is found in Judges 13:18.

Manoah said to the angel of the LORD, “What is your name, so that when your words come to pass, we may honor you?” But the angel of the LORD said to him, “Why do you ask my name, seeing it is wonderful?”

Now read what Isaiah prophesied in Isaiah 9:6 .

For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

Clearly, Isaiah was speaking of Jesus Christ and note that he was called Wonderful Counselor. Is there a connection here? Perhaps. What we do know is the word ‘angel’ is the same word messenger in the Old Testament, and while it is held that Jesus is not an angel in kind, we know he certainly was a messenger of YHWH and would be fair to say even ‘The Messenger of YHWH’.

So the idea that he may be this angel is not that far fetched. Some vehemently oppose this idea, but they are not aware that both Jesus and John are called angels in the messenger sense.

More to come here……

More proof that Jesus pre-existed

Rev 3:14
And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God.

Moving on we read the following in Philippians 2:5-11
5 Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus:
6 Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,
7 but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.
8 And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to death even death on a cross!
9 Therefore God exalted him to the highest place and gave him the name that is above every name,
10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

Surely the above verses assumes preexistence.  Look at verse 7: ‘but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness’. This verse points out that Jesus humbled himself to become a (or like a) human and also a servant. So this suggests to us that he preexisted in a higher state because to humble oneself is to become lower. If he started life in this humbled state, then it would be incorrect to say that he humbled himself. Further, he “found himself in appearance as a man” is a weird statement to make if he first existed as a human baby.

This verse is often used in support of the trinity doctrine because of the word ‘equal’. But if you are equal to something it means that you are not that thing, rather you are like that thing. This scripture is also very clear about the following: The Father is God and Jesus is Lord and that God exalted Jesus to the highest place.

A closer look at verse 9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: Now I am not sure if Jesus was exalted higher than he was before he came to this world or whether he was exalted to the exact position that he had before. But if we look at John 17:5 again we can see that Jesus asked to return to his former glory.

John 17:5
And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began.

The above verse is clear about Christ’s pre-existence in glory before the world began. Just to prove this is not an isolated scripture here is a similar verse:

John 16:28
I came from the Father and entered the world; now I am leaving the world and going back to the Father.”

The next verse also confirms that Jesus pre-existed in Heaven.

John 3:12-15
12 I have spoken to you of earthly things and you do not believe; how then will you believe if I speak of heavenly things?
13 No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven, the Son of Man.
14 Just as Moses lifted up the snake in the desert, so the Son of Man must be lifted up,
15 that everyone who believes in him may have eternal life.

Ezekiel 8:1-3
1 In the sixth year, in the sixth month on the fifth day, while I was sitting in my house and the elders of Judah were sitting before me, the hand of the Sovereign LORD came upon me there.
2 I looked, and I saw a figure like that of a man. From what appeared to be his waist down he was like fire, and from there up his appearance was as bright as glowing metal.
3 He stretched out what looked like a hand and took me by the hair of my head. The Spirit lifted me up between earth and heaven and in visions of God he took me to Jerusalem, to the entrance to the north gate of the inner court, where the idol that provokes to jealousy stood.

This verse is interesting in the sense that the description is very similar to the description of Jesus Christ in Revelation 1:12-18,

12 I turned around to see the voice that was speaking to me. And when I turned I saw seven golden lampstands,
13 and among the lampstands was someone “like a son of man,” dressed in a robe reaching down to his feet and with a golden sash around his chest.
14 His head and hair were white like wool, as white as snow, and his eyes were like blazing fire.
15 His feet were like bronze glowing in a furnace, and his voice was like the sound of rushing waters.
16 In his right hand he held seven stars, and out of his mouth came a sharp double-edged sword. His face was like the sun shining in all its brilliance.
17 When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. Then he placed his right hand on me and said: “Do not be afraid. I am the First and the Last.
18 I am the Living One; I was dead, and behold I am alive for ever and ever! And I hold the keys of death and Hades.

Have a look at the next verse. 1 Corinthians 11:3 (English-NIV)
Now I want you to realize that the head of every man is Christ, and the head of the woman is man, and the head of Christ is God.

Now the word head in the Greek is ‘kephale’ which can mean head, source or master. Now if we notice the order in a time sense, we have to admit that God is the first as he is the only one who has existed for all eternity with no beginning. We also know from scripture that the man came first and the woman came from the man. So that part is correct if we use a timeline. That just leaves Christ. Did he come between God and Man. I think so, as I believe that all things came from him and this opinion does fit perfectly into this model in a time sense at least. Anyway the word Christ here is ‘Christos’ which means “anointed”. So the anointed is the head of Man.
God > Christ > Man > Woman

If God created all things for his Son and his Son was the channel for that creation to come into being, then we can only assume that Christ existed at this point. As Genesis says: Let us make Man in our image. God was talking to Christ at this point and we know that Christ is the image of God and we are the image of Christ. Therefore the image of the image of God (man) is still the image of God. But Christ is the original and first image and we can only assume again that that image existed before the image of the image. A bit like a mirror that reflects a mirror, the original mirror has to exist in order to reflect the second mirror.

So we know that Christ preexisted before creation and now we will look at some more scriptures that show that he was born before creation itself?

Colossians 1:15-16
15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.
16 For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him.

The above verse is quite clear that ALL things were created by or through Jesus.

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So again, there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus/The Word being there. Only the Father and Son were not made. God has always existed and the Son was born from God before the creation of the universe, before anything was made. The next verse describes clearly who/what was the first of God’s works.

Proverbs 8:22-30
22 “The LORD brought me forth as the first of his works, {[22] Or ; or } {[22] Or ; or } before his deeds of old;
23 I was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
24 When there were no oceans, I was given birth, when there were no springs abounding with water;
25 before the mountains were settled in place, before the hills, I was given birth,
26 before he made the earth or its fields or any of the dust of the world.
27 I was there when he set the heavens in place, when he marked out the horizon on the face of the deep,
28 when he established the clouds above and fixed securely the fountains of the deep,
29 when he gave the sea its boundary so the waters would not overstep his command, and when he marked out the foundations of the earth.
30 Then I was the craftsman at his side. I was filled with delight day after day, rejoicing always in his presence,

This verse is talking about Wisdom, whom many believe is Christ. This scriptures compliments other scriptures that that teach that Jesus was given birth by God and then created all THINGS though him.

So from this verse we can see the following points.

Wisdom was brought forth as the first of Gods works.
Wisdom was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
Wisdom was given birth before creation.
Wisdom was the craftsman at his side and rejoiced in his presence before creation.
Some say that Wisdom isn’t Christ, rather this is just wisdom in a conceptual sense and it is true that wisdom is being spoken of in that way. But from verse 22 onward it changes tempo. With terms like I was given birth, I was the craftsman at his side and I was filled with delight, we have to admit that it seems to be talking about a person. Now have a look at the following verses:

1 Corinthians 1:24 (English-NIV)
but to those whom God has called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God.

1 Corinthians 1:30 (English-NIV)
It is because of him that you are in Christ Jesus, who has become for us wisdom from God–that is, our righteousness, holiness and redemption.

Let’s look at some other concepts that Jesus personifies:

Jesus is the Truth. Yet truth is also a concept.
Jesus is the Way. Yet the way is also a concept.
Jesus is the Life. Yet life can also be a concept.
Now look at the following mystery:

1 Corinthians 2:6-9
6 We do, however, speak a message of wisdom among the mature, but not the wisdom of this age or of the rulers of this age, who are coming to nothing.
7 No, we speak of God’s secret wisdom, a wisdom that has been hidden and that God destined for our glory before time began.
8 None of the rulers of this age understood it, for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.
9 However, as it is written:
“No eye has seen,
no ear has heard,
no mind has conceived
what God has prepared for those who love him”

Ephesians 3:8-10
8 Although I am less than the least of all God’s people, this grace was given me: to preach to the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ,
9 and to make plain to everyone the administration of this mystery, which for ages past was kept hidden in God, who created all things.
10 His intent was that now, through the church, the manifold wisdom of God should be made known to the rulers and authorities in the heavenly realms,

Perhaps another scripture alluding to Jesus being the Wisdom of God.

Finally I leave you with the following OT scripture that suggests that God had a Son before the birth Of Jesus Christ on earth.

Proverbs 30:4
Who has gone up to heaven and come down? Who has gathered up the wind in the hollow of his hands? Who has wrapped up the waters in his cloak? Who has established all the ends of the earth? What is his name, and the name of his son? Tell me if you know!


Discussion

Viewing 20 posts - 12,041 through 12,060 (of 19,165 total)
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  • #267305
    Frank4YAHWEH
    Participant

    To ALL,

    Following is an excerpt from:

    Jesus Did Not Pre-Exist

    In The Beginning Was The Word (John 1)

    John's Gospel commences with this statement, and goes on to state that this word was with God and was God, and made all things (vv. 1-4). And because the title, Word of God, is applied to the Lord Jesus in Revelation 19:13, it is claimed that these verses in John relate to a pre-existent Christ.

    If this were so, however, it would make the Bible appear hopelessly contradictory, for such reference as: “I will be his Father, and He shall be my son,” “I will make him My firstborn,” “Jesus Christ the son of Abraham the son of David” are at variance with the teaching that represents Jesus as already living.

    The Greek term translated “word” is logos. It signifies the outward form of inward thought or reason, or the spoken word as illustrative of thought, wisdom and doctrine.

    John is teaching that in the very beginning, God's purpose, wisdom or revelation had been in evidence. It was “with God” in that it emanated from him; it “was God” in that it represented Him to mankind [a similar expression is used by Christ in Matthew 26:28: “This is my blood” — that is, this represents my blood. Again in Matthew 13:20: “the same is he” signifies the same, “represents he.” “That rock was Christ” (1 Cor. 10:4), it represented Christ]; and it became the motive power of all that God did, for all was made with it in mind, and it presented the hope of life to mankind (see John 1: 3-4).

    What John is stating, therefore, is that in the very beginning there existed the wisdom or purpose of God, and that it was revealed unto men to provide a way of life.

    What did it proclaim?

    The coming of one who would overcome sin and give reality to the hope of life. The promise of this was stated from the beginning in the Word or Doctrine of God (e.g. Genesis 3:15).

    This Word, Wisdom or Doctrine found its reality, its substance, its confirmation (Romans 15:8) in the person of the Lord Jesus Christ; therefore John taught:

    The word was made (Greek-ginomai “became”) flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth” (John 1:14).

    The Word was made flesh, or became flesh, as it is expressed in the Greek. The Declaration of Divine wisdom found its substance and reality in the person of the Lord Jesus Christ. Before his advent, it was a mere Word or Promise, but when he became manifested, it became a person.

    The person did not exist before the birth of the child Jesus; but the promise and wisdom of God always existed.

    That is the teaching of John. It does away with the embarrassment of teaching that an angel became an embryo in the womb of a woman, as demanded by the theory of a pre-existent Jesus.

    We acknowledge that “Word” is personalized as “him”, in John 1:4, but that is a common Hebraism found throughout the Bible. Riches, Wisdom, Sin, and other subjects are similarly treated. Sometimes these are used to press the doctrine of pre-existence. For example, on several occasions, Jehovah's Witnesses have drawn attention to such passages as Proverbs 8:22, and applied them to their notion of a pre-existent Jesus. The passage reads:

    The Lord possessed me in the beginning of His way, before His works of old.”

    The subject matter of the chapter is wisdom which is personified; but, unfortunately for the doctrine of the preexistent son, it is personified as a woman: “She standeth, she crieth” etc. (Prov. 8:1-3).

    Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?

    “Jesus IS God!”?

    #267322
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Dec. 09 2011,14:45)
    Mike,

    Would not Father Yahweh's word literally being separated from Him render Him speechless?


    Well, there ya go then. If the the Father's word is ALWAYS with the Father, like YOUR head is ALWAYS with you, then John would have no reason to say, “and the Word was WITH the Father”, anymore that I would have a reason to say, “Frank's head was WITH Frank”.

    Now do you see the point I'm making? Or do you even really care, Frank? I get the feeling that you are just here for kicks and giggles, and not to seriously discuss scriptures.

    #267327
    Frank4YAHWEH
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 10 2011,12:46)

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Dec. 09 2011,14:45)
    Mike,

    Would not Father Yahweh's word literally being separated from Him render Him speechless?


    Well, there ya go then.  If the the Father's word is ALWAYS with the Father, like YOUR head is ALWAYS with you, then John would have no reason to say, “and the Word was WITH the Father”, anymore that I would have a reason to say, “Frank's head was WITH Frank”.

    Now do you see the point I'm making?  Or do you even really care, Frank?  I get the feeling that you are just here for kicks and giggles, and not to seriously discuss scriptures.


    Mike,

    Yahchanan most certainly would have a reason to say “… and the word was with Yahweh …” just as he most certainly had a reason to say “… and the word was Yahweh.” He most certainly did not say '… and Jesus was with God and the word was Jesus.' as you deceptively teach.

    No Mike, the truth is, I do not really care what point it is that you are trying to make, since your main point is to somehow place Yahshua in existence with Father Yahweh in the beginning as an actual being. As I have made known to you a number of times in this thread, I have no desire whatsoever to have a discussion with you about Scripture. I have been getting nothing but kicks and giggles from what it is that you say! Now, if you were really serious about discussing what Scripture actually says, I would most certainly care what you had to say, but since you say things that Scripture does not say, I most certainly do not care to seriously discuss Scripture with you.

    Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?

    “Jesus IS God!”?

    #267328
    Frank4YAHWEH
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 10 2011,12:46)

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Dec. 09 2011,14:45)
    Mike,

    Would not Father Yahweh's word literally being separated from Him render Him speechless?


    Well, there ya go then.  If the the Father's word is ALWAYS with the Father, like YOUR head is ALWAYS with you, then John would have no reason to say, “and the Word was WITH the Father”, anymore that I would have a reason to say, “Frank's head was WITH Frank”.

    Now do you see the point I'm making?  Or do you even really care, Frank?  I get the feeling that you are just here for kicks and giggles, and not to seriously discuss scriptures.


    Mike,

    Yahchanan most certainly would have a reason to say “… and the word was with Yahweh …” just as he most certainly had a reason to say “… and the word was Yahweh.” He most certainly did not say '… and Jesus was with God and the word was Jesus.' as you deceptively teach.

    No Mike, the truth is, I do not really care what point it is that you are trying to make, since your main point is to somehow place Yahshua in existence with Father Yahweh in the beginning as an actual being. As I have made known to you a number of times in this thread, I have no desire whatsoever to have a discussion with you about Scripture. I have been getting nothing but kicks and giggles from what it is that you say! Now, if you were really serious about discussing what Scripture actually says, I would most certainly care what you had to say, but since you say things that Scripture does not say, I most certainly do not care to seriously discuss Scripture with you.

    Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?

    “Jesus IS God!”?

    #267337
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Dec. 09 2011,20:56)
    Mike,

    Yahchanan most certainly would have a reason to say “… and the word was with Yahweh …”


    And just what was that reason, Frank?

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Dec. 09 2011,20:56)
    but since you say things that Scripture does not say, I most certainly do not care to seriously discuss Scripture with you.


    :)  Says the man who just posted this:  “just as he most certainly had a reason to say “… and the word was Yahweh.”

    Frank, what scripture says “and the word was YAHWEH“?  ???

    #267360
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    Mike……….Who do you think the LORD OUR GOD is if not Yahweh. Who was the Father Yahweh Jesus said was(IN) him?, was that not our GOD. if you need help to put it together here is a scripture that might help you. “Here O Israel the LORD (Yahweh) our “GOD” is ONE LORD Yahweh. Hope this helped you.

    peace and lvoe……………………………………………………………..gene

    #267365
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    That's right Gene.  And Yahweh was identified in John 1:1 as “THE God” the Word was WITH.  The second mention of the word “theos” in 1:1 is not “THE theos”.  So here's what we KNOW about John 1:

    1.  Whoever the Word was, he was a god who was WITH “THE God, Yahweh”.  (Yahweh cannot be WITH Himself)

    2.  We know the Word was a PERSON, and not a thing, because of the many masculine pronouns associated with him.

    3.  We also know the Word was a PERSON, because this Word became flesh, and lived among humans, having the glory of God's only begotten Son.

    4.  We even know WHO this person was, because John the Baptist said the same words about the Word in 1:15 as he said about Jesus in 1:30.

    5.  We further know from other scriptures that all things were created by God through “His Son”, and through “our Lord Jesus Christ”.  So we can add the fact that all things were created through “the Word” to those other facts we know, and come up with a safe conclusion that “the Word” is the same person as “God's Son”, who is the same person as “our Lord Jesus Christ” – the one through whom all things were created.   Which would explain why the Word had the glory of God's only begotten Son.

    6.  Then we can conclude that “the Word” in John 1 is obviously “the Word of God”, because John sure wasn't talking about anyone else's “word”.  And that let's us also take Rev 19:13 into consideration, where we know it was Jesus Christ who was called “the Word of God” by the same Biblical writer.

    See Gene?  This is how we use MANY different scriptures and facts to paint the true picture of what the scriptures actually teach.  This is also where you have much denying to do in order to keep your flawed, unscriptural doctrine.  

    For example, you first have to claim that God Himself can be WITH God Himself – which is impossible unless there are TWO Gods.  

    And you'll have to insist that the Word is an “IT”, despite the fact that EVERY pronoun associated with the Word is written in the singular, masculine form – indicating that “the Word” is a “HE”, not an “IT”.

    And you'll have to start insisting that “through him” really means “for him”, despite the fact that Col 1:16 says all things were created both “through him” AND “for him”.

    Then you'll have to claim that John started talking about the Word in 1:14, and then inexplicably switched subjects and started talking about Jesus, without even introducing Jesus.

    Oh, and you'll have to claim that 1:14 says, “The Word came to be IN someone who was flesh”, despite the fact that it doesn't say those words.

    But these are all things you've already done to keep your unscriptural doctrine Gene.  And I would be willing to bet money that eventually, you'll end up siding with Ed, and claiming that Rev 19:13 doesn't describe Jesus – just to eliminate another link to Jesus being “the Word” from John 1.

    Because one thing I've noticed about people whose doctrines don't align with scripture is that as soon as one of their fellow believers takes the leap of nonsense, the others will soon follow, simply because the nonsensical words of the first one tickles their itching ears.

    Think about it Gene.  At some point in history, one person had to utter the nonsensical words, “Hey, Jesus IS the God he is the Son of!”  And although those illogical words send red flares up in any sensible person's brain, it didn't take long before millions of other like-minded people, trying to make Jesus their God, just accepted those illogical words as making perfect sense.  

    Let's watch and see.  I'll bet that soon you'll be denying that 19:13 is about Jesus – not because you believe it to be true, but because Ed's illogical words tickle your itching ears and tell you what you want to hear.

    #267377
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Eddy?  Were you going to address the last two posts on page 204?

    #267381
    terraricca
    Participant

    Quote (Gene Balthrop @ Dec. 11 2011,08:25)
    Mike……….Who do you think the LORD OUR GOD is if not Yahweh. Who was the Father Yahweh Jesus said was(IN) him?,  was that not our GOD. if you need help to put it together here is a scripture that might help you. “Here O Israel the LORD (Yahweh) our “GOD” is ONE LORD Yahweh. Hope this helped you.

    peace and lvoe……………………………………………………………..gene


    gene

    so after all you made Christ a MORPHED being ? I mean two in one

    Pierre

    #267389
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (terraricca @ Dec. 09 2011,08:07)

    Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 09 2011,08:30)
    Hi T8, here is yet more evidence…

                           Lord: means owner.

    YHVH is “The Owner”(The LORD); Jesus is “owner”(Lord)
         The HolySpirit is YHVH. (Lev.11:45/John 6:63)
         The HolySpirit is “The Word”; Jesus “word”(the proof is listed).

    This PROOF really is not that difficult to understand… (Matt.18:16)
    In English, the significant number (74) is attributed to “JOSHUA”=74 and “Messiah”=74; also
    in the following: “JESUS”=74, “Cross”=74, “Gospel”=74, and even “English”=74.
    “Jesus Christ” (74×32) also factors 74 in Greek Theomatically:
    [Jesus] Ιησους=74(x12), [Christ] Χριστоς=74(x20).
    [Son of Man] υιος τον ανθρωπου=74(x40).

    “JESUS OF NAZARETH THE KING OF THE JEWS”=373 (John 19:19)
    This most popular phrase curiously adds up to the 74th prime number: 373.

    John 1:1 was written in Greek.    
    The word for “Word” in Greek is: [λογος] Lōgôs
    and [λογος] has a “Theomatic” value of 373; and [ [373 is the 74th prime number] ]

    “The Word” from the Greek is: [ο λογος] Hō Lōgôs
    [ο λογος] has a “Theomatic” value of 443; and [ [443 is the 86th prime number] ].
    Here is a chart for you to see the “Bible Truth” that I refer to!

               English        ↔    Hebrew       ↔    Greek
         “Word of God”  ↔      “God”         ↔ “Hō Lōgôs”
    “Word of God”(86) =   (אלהים](86]     = [ο λογος](86)th Prime
             YHVH(63)      = ĔL-ō-Hêêm(63) = The Bible(63)

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    edj

    if you can show anyone that own anything or his a owner(i mean more than temporary ownership) before God ,you would impress me greatly

    Pierre


    PIERRE,

    My goal is not to impress man,
    but to speak truth. (Gal.1:10 / Prob.8:7)

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #267390
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Good post Mike and I believe to be a true conclusion.
    It is a case of having one's ears tickled as it is written.

    This is how human nature works. You see it in sport.
    Someone lives in New Zealand and they support the All Blacks.
    Someone lives in Manchester and they support Manchester United.
    Someone lives in New York and they support the Yankees (not from the States so might be a bad example).

    A man has his doubts about what he was being taught in a church then reads what someone wrote that aligns on the point he had a problem with.
    What does he do next, he swallows everything else that the person is writing and supports his doctrine as if he were supporting a sport team.
    Once indoctrinated, he takes this doctrine and tries to indoctrinate others.

    And one sure sign that you know this has happened is when you pose a serious but good question to them that infringes on their doctrine and they ignore you and point you back to their doctrine which doesn't answer the question.

    In the end, not all are truth seekers.
    Not all are like the Bereans who had a more noble character because of their respect for the truth in scripture.
    It should be possible to reason with a reasonable person, but if you cannot, then you up against a brainwashed person.
    It takes some serious work to unindoctrinate a person and often sound reason and scripture is not good enough for them anymore.

    #267391
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 09 2011,09:30)

    Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 08 2011,00:05)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 08 2011,08:13)

    Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 06 2011,17:39)
    1) “The Word's” glory is exemplified in his only begotten son.


    Okay Ed,

    Let's follow this thought through.  YOU think that the Word is the Holy Spirit, which is God Himself, right?

    Why would the Word/Holy Spirit/God Himself have the glory of an only begotten OF God?

    Because the Word is what became flesh; and the Word is what had the glory of God's only begotten.

    You try to do what Gene does with 1:14.  You PRETEND that it says, “The Word CAME TO BE IN SOMEONE WHO WAS FLESH“.  And if 1:14 actually said that, you might have a point.  But 1:14 doesn't say that, Ed.  Instead, it tells us that the Word himself BECAME flesh – not CAME TO BE IN flesh.

    peace,
    mike


    Quote
    Let's follow this thought through.  YOU think that the Word is the Holy Spirit,

    Quote
    which is God Himself, right?


    Hi Mike,

    Let's focus on one part of this at a time; OK?

    Quote
    (adjusted) Why would the Word/Holy Spirit have the glory as of an only begotten OF God?


    Because God's glory then can be seen in the physical world; compare…

          the glory as of the only begotten of the Father (John 1:14)
          compared with the glory which shall be revealed in us. (Romans 8:18)

    God bless
    Ed J


    Ed,

    First of all…………NO!  Since you DO think that the Word IS the Holy Spirit which IS God Himself, then there's no need to separate anything.

    My question stands:  Why would God Himself have the glory of the only begotten OF God?

    Also, your answer………

    Quote
    Because God's glory then can be seen in the physical world; compare…


    ………doesn't make a lick of sense.  If it was GOD'S GLORY, then why would they not have seen a glory as of GOD?  Why the glory as of an only begotten OF God?  ???


    Hi Mike,

    “the glory of children are their fathers.” (Prob.17:6)

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #267392
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 09 2011,09:43)

    Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 08 2011,00:23)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 08 2011,09:00)
    Show me where Christ is SPECIFICALLY mentioned in verse 14.


    Hi Mike,

    John 1:14 (KJV) And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us,
    (and we beheld his glory, the (word's) glory
    as of the only begotten of the Father,)
    full of grace and truth.


    Ed,

    You made MY point for me.  By your bolded words, you have clarified that you understand “the only begotten of the Father” is JESUS.

    Now, why in the world would the “Holy Spirit/God Himself” have the glory of Jesus?  ???

    Work it backwards, Ed.  The one who had the glory as of an only begotten is the one who made his dwelling among us.  And the one who made his dwelling among us is the one who became flesh.  And the one who became flesh is “The Word”.

    So if JESUS is the one who had the glory as of the only begotten from the Father, then JESUS is the one who made his dwelling among us.  And if JESUS is the one who made his dwelling among us, then JESUS is the one who became flesh.  And if JESUS is the one who became flesh, then JESUS is “The Word”.

    Ed, why would the Word's glory be the glory of God's only begotten Son?  Why would God's Holy Spirit, which you think is God Himself, have the glory of the only begotten Son OF God?


    Hi Mike,

    “the glory of children are their fathers.” (Prob.17:6)
    For thine (YHVH) is the kingdom, and the power,
    and the glory, for ever. (Matthew 6:13)

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #267393
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 09 2011,09:58)

    Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 08 2011,00:24)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 08 2011,09:00)
    Ed, consider that this is one continuous sentence, strung together with the conjunction “AND”.  So what you are claiming is that John started a sentence about the Word, and without even ending his sentence, he started using pronouns to refer to a subject he hadn't even identified.  That's quite a stretch of the imagination, IMO.

    peace,
    mike


    Hi Mike,

    Were you not aware that others put in comas and sentence breaks,
    they were not in the original texts; I hope this helps.
    :)

    John 1:14 (KJV) And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us,
    (and we beheld his glory, the (word's) glory
    as of the only begotten of the Father,)
    full of grace and truth.


    Right you are, Ed.  So let's write it without the punctuation:

    THE WORD BECAME FLESH AND MADE HIS DWELLING AMONG US AND WE HAVE SEEN HIS GLORY THE GLORY OF THE ONLY BEGOTTEN FROM THE FATHER FULL OF GRACE AND TRUTH

    Notice how it is all one sentence strung together by two conjuntions………..just like I said.  I didn't mention any puncutation in that post to you, did I?  

    So please don't divert the topic…………….instead just address my point about how illogical it would have been for John to switch subjects in the middle of a sentence, using pronouns to refer to a new subject that he hadn't even yet mentioned.


    Hi Mike,

    Can there be two subjects in one sentence? (Link)

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #267394
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 09 2011,10:01)

    Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 08 2011,08:37)
    Hi Gene,

    Explaining it to them is not good enough,
    they MUST see the evidence for themselves.


    And we've been waiting for that “evidence” for a long time, Ed.  When will you show it to us?  :)


    Hi Mike,

    I have been showing you the evidence, but you continue to discount it.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #267395
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Frank.

    Both God and the Word are mentioned with the definite article. Except the last word God in John 1:1c.

    This has implications and is meant to be understood in a certain way.
    Your view of John 1:1 does not line up with the way it is written and indeed does not line up with the rest of John 1 and the rest of the book.

    If we replace God and Logos for Man and Woman, then you can plainly see what you are teaching compared to what John 1:1 is really teaching.

    Your teaching is the one on the left and scripture is the one on the right.

    a) In the beginning was the woman,

    b) and the woman was with the man

    c) and the woman was the man

    a) In the beginning was the woman,

    b) and the woman was with the man

    c) and the woman was man

    In addition to the error you are making here, you also conveniently ignore the word WITH.

    When you have to ignore stuff to keep your doctrine intact, then that is the time to relearn the truth.
    And why be stubborn to learning a better way?
    Don't let pride come before a fall.

    The whole book was written for the purpose of telling us who Jesus is and you don't seem to be able to recognise Jesus in many of the verses in the Book of John.

    If a person cannot recognise him in scripture, then what does that say about him knowing God and the one whom he sent?

    #267398
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Dec. 10 2011,08:58)
    To ALL,

    Following is an excerpt from:

    Jesus Did Not Pre-Exist

    In The Beginning Was The Word (John 1)

    John's Gospel commences with this statement, and goes on to state that this word was with God and was God, and made all things (vv. 1-4). And because the title, Word of God, is applied to the Lord Jesus in Revelation 19:13, it is claimed that these verses in John relate to a pre-existent Christ.

    If this were so, however, it would make the Bible appear hopelessly contradictory, for such reference as: “I will be his Father, and He shall be my son,” “I will make him My firstborn,” “Jesus Christ the son of Abraham the son of David” are at variance with the teaching that represents Jesus as already living.

    The Greek term translated “word” is logos. It signifies the outward form of inward thought or reason, or the spoken word as illustrative of thought, wisdom and doctrine.

    John is teaching that in the very beginning, God's purpose, wisdom or revelation had been in evidence. It was “with God” in that it emanated from him; it “was God” in that it represented Him to mankind [a similar expression is used by Christ in Matthew 26:28: “This is my blood” — that is, this represents my blood. Again in Matthew 13:20: “the same is he” signifies the same, “represents he.” “That rock was Christ” (1 Cor. 10:4), it represented Christ]; and it became the motive power of all that God did, for all was made with it in mind, and it presented the hope of life to mankind (see John 1: 3-4).

    What John is stating, therefore, is that in the very beginning there existed the wisdom or purpose of God, and that it was revealed unto men to provide a way of life.

    What did it proclaim?

    The coming of one who would overcome sin and give reality to the hope of life. The promise of this was stated from the beginning in the Word or Doctrine of God (e.g. Genesis 3:15).

    This Word, Wisdom or Doctrine found its reality, its substance, its confirmation (Romans 15:8) in the person of the Lord Jesus Christ; therefore John taught:

    The word was made (Greek-ginomai “became”) flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth” (John 1:14).

    The Word was made flesh, or became flesh, as it is expressed in the Greek. The Declaration of Divine wisdom found its substance and reality in the person of the Lord Jesus Christ. Before his advent, it was a mere Word or Promise, but when he became manifested, it became a person.

    The person did not exist before the birth of the child Jesus; but the promise and wisdom of God always existed.

    That is the teaching of John. It does away with the embarrassment of teaching that an angel became an embryo in the womb of a woman, as demanded by the theory of a pre-existent Jesus.

    We acknowledge that “Word” is personalized as “him”, in John 1:4, but that is a common Hebraism found throughout the Bible. Riches, Wisdom, Sin, and other subjects are similarly treated. Sometimes these are used to press the doctrine of pre-existence. For example, on several occasions, Jehovah's Witnesses have drawn attention to such passages as Proverbs 8:22, and applied them to their notion of a pre-existent Jesus. The passage reads:

    The Lord possessed me in the beginning of His way, before His works of old.”

    The subject matter of the chapter is wisdom which is personified; but, unfortunately for the doctrine of the preexistent son, it is personified as a woman: “She standeth, she crieth” etc. (Prov. 8:1-3).

    Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?

    “Jesus IS God!”?


    Hi Frank,

    These are the verses that PROVE “The Word” is The HolySpirit”!

    Zech.4:6
    Zech.12:1

    Matt.13:19
    Mark 4:14
    Mark13:11
    Mark 13:19
    Luke 3:2
    Luke 8:11
    John 12:49
    John 14:24
    John 17:6-8
    John 17:14
    Acts 4:31
    Acts 10:36-38
    Acts 10:44
    Acts 11:15-16
    Acts 13:4-5
    Acts 13:47-49
    Acts 17:11
    Acts 20:32
    Romans 9:5-6
    Romans 10:17
    1Cor. 12:8-9
    1Cor. 14:36
    2Cor. 5:19
    2Cor. 6:6-7
    Gal.6:6
    Eph. 1:12-13
    Eph. 5:26
    Eph. 6:17
    Phillip.2:16
    1Tm.5:17-18
    2Tm.2:11-15
    2Tm.4:2
    Hebrews 1:1-2
    Hebrews 2:2-3
    Hebrews 4:2-6
    Hebrews 4:8-12
    Hebrews 5:13-14
    Hebrews 7:28
    Hebrews 11:3
    Hebrews 12:19
    James 1:18
    1Peter 1:21-23
    1Peter 2:6-8
    1John 2:7-10
    Rev.1:2
    Rev.1:9
    Rev.19:11-16
    Rev.20:4

    Your brother
    in Christ, Jesus.
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode

    #267400
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 11 2011,02:18)
    That's right Gene.  And Yahweh was identified in John 1:1 as “THE God” the Word was WITH.  The second mention of the word “theos” in 1:1 is not “THE theos”.  So here's what we KNOW about John 1:

    1.  Whoever the Word was, he was a god who was WITH “THE God, Yahweh”.  (Yahweh cannot be WITH Himself)

    2.  We know the Word was a PERSON, and not a thing, because of the many masculine pronouns associated with him.

    3.  We also know the Word was a PERSON, because this Word became flesh, and lived among humans, having the glory of God's only begotten Son.

    4.  We even know WHO this person was, because John the Baptist said the same words about the Word in 1:15 as he said about Jesus in 1:30.

    5.  We further know from other scriptures that all things were created by God through “His Son”, and through “our Lord Jesus Christ”.  So we can add the fact that all things were created through “the Word” to those other facts we know, and come up with a safe conclusion that “the Word” is the same person as “God's Son”, who is the same person as “our Lord Jesus Christ” – the one through whom all things were created.   Which would explain why the Word had the glory of God's only begotten Son.

    6.  Then we can conclude that “the Word” in John 1 is obviously “the Word of God”, because John sure wasn't talking about anyone else's “word”.  And that let's us also take Rev 19:13 into consideration, where we know it was Jesus Christ who was called “the Word of God” by the same Biblical writer.

    See Gene?  This is how we use MANY different scriptures and facts to paint the true picture of what the scriptures actually teach.  This is also where you have much denying to do in order to keep your flawed, unscriptural doctrine.  

    For example, you first have to claim that God Himself can be WITH God Himself – which is impossible unless there are TWO Gods.  

    And you'll have to insist that the Word is an “IT”, despite the fact that EVERY pronoun associated with the Word is written in the singular, masculine form – indicating that “the Word” is a “HE”, not an “IT”.

    And you'll have to start insisting that “through him” really means “for him”, despite the fact that Col 1:16 says all things were created both “through him” AND “for him”.

    Then you'll have to claim that John started talking about the Word in 1:14, and then inexplicably switched subjects and started talking about Jesus, without even introducing Jesus.

    Oh, and you'll have to claim that 1:14 says, “The Word came to be IN someone who was flesh”, despite the fact that it doesn't say those words.

    But these are all things you've already done to keep your unscriptural doctrine Gene.  And I would be willing to bet money that eventually, you'll end up siding with Ed, and claiming that Rev 19:13 doesn't describe Jesus – just to eliminate another link to Jesus being “the Word” from John 1.

    Because one thing I've noticed about people whose doctrines don't align with scripture is that as soon as one of their fellow believers takes the leap of nonsense, the others will soon follow, simply because the nonsensical words of the first one tickles their itching ears.

    Think about it Gene.  At some point in history, one person had to utter the nonsensical words, “Hey, Jesus IS the God he is the Son of!”  And although those illogical words send red flares up in any sensible person's brain, it didn't take long before millions of other like-minded people, trying to make Jesus their God, just accepted those illogical words as making perfect sense.  

    Let's watch and see.  I'll bet that soon you'll be denying that 19:13 is about Jesus – not because you believe it to be true, but because Ed's illogical words tickle your itching ears and tell you what you want to hear.


    Hi Mike,

    Thank you for realizing that my comprehensive view
    of the Scriptures, takes all Scripture into account.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #267401
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 11 2011,04:40)
    Eddy?  Were you going to address the last two posts on page 204?


    Hi Mike,

    If I missed one, please re-post it; OK?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #267402
    seekingtruth
    Participant

    Ed,
    I made it as far as John 17:6-8 but have not seen the proof you speak of on any verses so far, what version are you reading from?

    Wm

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