Did Jesus pre-exist before his birth on Earth?

Where did Jesus come from?

John 6:38-40
For I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will, but the will of him who sent me; and this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise it up at the last day. For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who sees the Son and believes in him should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.

The first verse suggests that Jesus came down from Heaven. This seems to contradict that belief which suggests he first existed as a man when he was born into this world. For if Jesus came into existence for the first time when he was conceived through Mary, how could he come down from Heaven? We (Man) came into existence when we are born into this world, but would it be correct to say that we came down from Heaven too? If a verse said that we came down from Heaven, would you think that we pre-existed in Heaven? If so, then why not Jesus?

John 3:17 is another verse that provides support that Jesus came down from Heaven or was sent rather than created.

For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.

The word ‘send’ is the Greek word ‘apostello’.

apostello {ap-os-tel’-lo}
1) to order (one) to go to a place appointed
2) to send away, dismiss
2a) to allow one to depart, that he may be in a state of liberty
2b) to order one to depart, send off
2c) to drive away

To be sent surely implies existence otherwise you would just say born or created. In fact this word (sent) is similar in meaning and sound to the word Apostle (apostolos), which means “one sent forth with orders”. To be sent forth with order, you must exist.

John 6:62
What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?

Jesus is clearly stating here that he came from above since he eventually ascended into Heaven to be at the right-hand of God.

How old is Jesus?

John 1:15
15 John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.‘ “

John the Baptist was six months older than Jesus Christ. So it is physically impossible for Christ to be before him in age. If this verse is referencing age, then it shows preexistence. Jesus existed before  John the Baptist in the least.

John 8:58
“I tell you the truth,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!

Jesus claimed to exist before Abraham, the father of the Jews. The words ‘I am’ mean ‘I exist’. So Jesus claimed existence before Abraham. We can see that Jesus is getting older as we explore the scriptures. But how old?

Jude 1:25
to the only God our Savior be glory, majesty, power and authority, through Jesus Christ our Lord, before all ages, now and forevermore! Amen.

Here we can see that majesty, power, and authority through Jesus Christ is before all ages (all worlds) and forever more into the future. This strongly implies that Jesus existed even before all things. But can we substantiate this?

Did Jesus exist before all creation?

Colossians 1:17
He is before all things, and in him all things hold together.

Colossians answers the question outright. It states that “He is before all things“.  But are there other verses that support this idea?

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus being there. This verse alone answers the question because the universe, angels, and men were made and Jesus was present when they were created according to these verses. In case that is not enough to convince you, I also add another clear verse that says the same thing.

Hebrews 1:1-2
1 In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways,
2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe.

Is Jesus the Word of God?

But some say that this is talking about the Word and not all believe that Jesus is the Word of God. They argue that Jesus came from the Word, but is not the Word itself that was with God in John 1:1. If you believe this, then please explain the next two verses within their wider context:

Revelation 19:13
He is dressed in a robe dipped in blood, and his name is the Word of God.

Colossians 1:15-18
The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him. He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. And he is the head of the body, the church; he is the beginning and the firstborn from among the dead, so that in everything he might have the supremacy.

Okay, if you are honest, this is a closed case. God created all things through the Word. Jesus is called the Word of God and also the son of God. We are also told that God created all things through the son of God. Even if you do not believe that Jesus is the Word, then you still have to believe that Jesus pre-existed on account of him being the son of God. But what we know from scripture is that Jesus existed as the Word of God before he came as a man called Jesus. We know that the Word became flesh.

More proof verses

If Jesus pre-existed, then you might expect that even though the above verses are clear, there would be more verses that teach or at least imply that he pre-existed. So let’s see if this is the case.

Revelation 22:16
“I, Jesus, have sent my angel to give you this testimony for the churches. I am the Root and the Offspring of David, and the bright Morning Star.”

Here we see that Jesus is the offspring of David, yet he is also the root of David, which at appears to show existence before King David. He also claims to be the bright Morning Star and we read in Job how the Morning Stars were present when God created the Earth.

Job 38:6-7
“On what were its bases sunk? Or who laid its cornerstone, When the morning stars sang together And all the sons of God shouted for joy? 

Luke 10:18
He replied, “I saw Satan fall like lightning from heaven.

Comparing Luke 10:18 with Revelation 12:1-10, some say that Satan and his angels fell to the earth before the birth of Christ as a man. If this was the case, then Jesus saw an event that took place before he was born as a man. However, others argue that Satan hasn’t fallen to the Earth yet, or that he has, but Jesus saw this in a vision. Regardless, it certainly doesn’t contradict that Jesus pre-existed.

Micah 5:2
“But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, though you are small among the clans of Judah, out of you will come for me one who will be ruler over Israel, whose origins are from of old, from ancient times.”

The above verse talks about someone who will rule Israel and whose origin is from ancient times. Who but Jesus could fit that description?

John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God/Divine.

John 1:14
The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only,[ 1:14 Or the Only Begotten] who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Clearly, Jesus was with God in the beginning as the Word of God. This places his existence as before all things and thus comes as no surprise that he was there when God created all things.

The Angel of YHWH

We know from certain scriptures that Jesus is Lord of the Sabbath and many assume that Jesus gave the Law of God. We are told in Acts:7:30-39 for instance that an Angel of the Lord appeared to Moses through whom God spoke and this is the same Angel who spoke to Moses on Mount Sinai and passed on the living words (The Law) to Moses.

30 “After forty years had passed, an angel appeared to Moses in the flames of a burning bush in the desert near Mount Sinai.
31 When he saw this, he was amazed at the sight. As he went over to look more closely, he heard the Lord’s voice:
32 ‘I am the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.’Moses trembled with fear and did not dare to look.
33 “Then the Lord said to him, ‘Take off your sandals; the place where you are standing is holy ground.
34 I have indeed seen the oppression of my people in Egypt. I have heard their groaning and have come down to set them free. Now come, I will send you back to Egypt.’
35 “This is the same Moses whom they had rejected with the words, ‘Who made you ruler and judge?’ He was sent to be their ruler and deliverer by God himself, through the angel who appeared to him in the bush.
36 He led them out of Egypt and did wonders and miraculous signs in Egypt, at the Red Sea and for forty years in the desert.
37 “This is that Moses who told the Israelites, ‘God will send you a prophet like me from your own people.’
38 He was in the assembly in the desert, with the angel who spoke to him on Mount Sinai, and with our fathers; and he received living words to pass on to us.
39 “But our fathers refused to obey him. Instead, they rejected him and in their hearts turned back to Egypt.

So is this Angel of the Lord, Jesus? Well it seems possible. Perhaps the correct model to look at is the one mentioned in Revelation 1:1

The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,

Here we can see that the order of the Revelation started with the Originator which is God. He then passed the message to Jesus Christ who in turn sent it to his Angel and then to John. So perhaps it is possible that the angel in Revelation is the same angel mentioned in Acts:7:30-39.

But the Angel of YHWH or Angel of the LORD is described as one like the son of gods.

Daniel 3:24-25
Then Nebuchadnezzar the king was astounded and stood up in haste; he said to his high officials, “Was it not three men we cast bound into the midst of the fire?” They replied to the king, “Certainly, O king.” He said, “Look! I see four men loosed and walking about in the midst of the fire without harm, and the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods!”

The idea that a preincarnate Jesus was this Angel of the LORD is a popular one. We know that this Angel of the LORD is never mentioned while Jesus is walking the earth which supports this idea. But it could also be a coincidence. One connection that can be made with Jesus being this messenger is found in Judges 13:18.

Manoah said to the angel of the LORD, “What is your name, so that when your words come to pass, we may honor you?” But the angel of the LORD said to him, “Why do you ask my name, seeing it is wonderful?”

Now read what Isaiah prophesied in Isaiah 9:6 .

For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

Clearly, Isaiah was speaking of Jesus Christ and note that he was called Wonderful Counselor. Is there a connection here? Perhaps. What we do know is the word ‘angel’ is the same word messenger in the Old Testament, and while it is held that Jesus is not an angel in kind, we know he certainly was a messenger of YHWH and would be fair to say even ‘The Messenger of YHWH’.

So the idea that he may be this angel is not that far fetched. Some vehemently oppose this idea, but they are not aware that both Jesus and John are called angels in the messenger sense.

More to come here……

More proof that Jesus pre-existed

Rev 3:14
And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God.

Moving on we read the following in Philippians 2:5-11
5 Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus:
6 Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,
7 but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.
8 And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to death even death on a cross!
9 Therefore God exalted him to the highest place and gave him the name that is above every name,
10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

Surely the above verses assumes preexistence.  Look at verse 7: ‘but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness’. This verse points out that Jesus humbled himself to become a (or like a) human and also a servant. So this suggests to us that he preexisted in a higher state because to humble oneself is to become lower. If he started life in this humbled state, then it would be incorrect to say that he humbled himself. Further, he “found himself in appearance as a man” is a weird statement to make if he first existed as a human baby.

This verse is often used in support of the trinity doctrine because of the word ‘equal’. But if you are equal to something it means that you are not that thing, rather you are like that thing. This scripture is also very clear about the following: The Father is God and Jesus is Lord and that God exalted Jesus to the highest place.

A closer look at verse 9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: Now I am not sure if Jesus was exalted higher than he was before he came to this world or whether he was exalted to the exact position that he had before. But if we look at John 17:5 again we can see that Jesus asked to return to his former glory.

John 17:5
And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began.

The above verse is clear about Christ’s pre-existence in glory before the world began. Just to prove this is not an isolated scripture here is a similar verse:

John 16:28
I came from the Father and entered the world; now I am leaving the world and going back to the Father.”

The next verse also confirms that Jesus pre-existed in Heaven.

John 3:12-15
12 I have spoken to you of earthly things and you do not believe; how then will you believe if I speak of heavenly things?
13 No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven, the Son of Man.
14 Just as Moses lifted up the snake in the desert, so the Son of Man must be lifted up,
15 that everyone who believes in him may have eternal life.

Ezekiel 8:1-3
1 In the sixth year, in the sixth month on the fifth day, while I was sitting in my house and the elders of Judah were sitting before me, the hand of the Sovereign LORD came upon me there.
2 I looked, and I saw a figure like that of a man. From what appeared to be his waist down he was like fire, and from there up his appearance was as bright as glowing metal.
3 He stretched out what looked like a hand and took me by the hair of my head. The Spirit lifted me up between earth and heaven and in visions of God he took me to Jerusalem, to the entrance to the north gate of the inner court, where the idol that provokes to jealousy stood.

This verse is interesting in the sense that the description is very similar to the description of Jesus Christ in Revelation 1:12-18,

12 I turned around to see the voice that was speaking to me. And when I turned I saw seven golden lampstands,
13 and among the lampstands was someone “like a son of man,” dressed in a robe reaching down to his feet and with a golden sash around his chest.
14 His head and hair were white like wool, as white as snow, and his eyes were like blazing fire.
15 His feet were like bronze glowing in a furnace, and his voice was like the sound of rushing waters.
16 In his right hand he held seven stars, and out of his mouth came a sharp double-edged sword. His face was like the sun shining in all its brilliance.
17 When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. Then he placed his right hand on me and said: “Do not be afraid. I am the First and the Last.
18 I am the Living One; I was dead, and behold I am alive for ever and ever! And I hold the keys of death and Hades.

Have a look at the next verse. 1 Corinthians 11:3 (English-NIV)
Now I want you to realize that the head of every man is Christ, and the head of the woman is man, and the head of Christ is God.

Now the word head in the Greek is ‘kephale’ which can mean head, source or master. Now if we notice the order in a time sense, we have to admit that God is the first as he is the only one who has existed for all eternity with no beginning. We also know from scripture that the man came first and the woman came from the man. So that part is correct if we use a timeline. That just leaves Christ. Did he come between God and Man. I think so, as I believe that all things came from him and this opinion does fit perfectly into this model in a time sense at least. Anyway the word Christ here is ‘Christos’ which means “anointed”. So the anointed is the head of Man.
God > Christ > Man > Woman

If God created all things for his Son and his Son was the channel for that creation to come into being, then we can only assume that Christ existed at this point. As Genesis says: Let us make Man in our image. God was talking to Christ at this point and we know that Christ is the image of God and we are the image of Christ. Therefore the image of the image of God (man) is still the image of God. But Christ is the original and first image and we can only assume again that that image existed before the image of the image. A bit like a mirror that reflects a mirror, the original mirror has to exist in order to reflect the second mirror.

So we know that Christ preexisted before creation and now we will look at some more scriptures that show that he was born before creation itself?

Colossians 1:15-16
15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.
16 For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him.

The above verse is quite clear that ALL things were created by or through Jesus.

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So again, there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus/The Word being there. Only the Father and Son were not made. God has always existed and the Son was born from God before the creation of the universe, before anything was made. The next verse describes clearly who/what was the first of God’s works.

Proverbs 8:22-30
22 “The LORD brought me forth as the first of his works, {[22] Or ; or } {[22] Or ; or } before his deeds of old;
23 I was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
24 When there were no oceans, I was given birth, when there were no springs abounding with water;
25 before the mountains were settled in place, before the hills, I was given birth,
26 before he made the earth or its fields or any of the dust of the world.
27 I was there when he set the heavens in place, when he marked out the horizon on the face of the deep,
28 when he established the clouds above and fixed securely the fountains of the deep,
29 when he gave the sea its boundary so the waters would not overstep his command, and when he marked out the foundations of the earth.
30 Then I was the craftsman at his side. I was filled with delight day after day, rejoicing always in his presence,

This verse is talking about Wisdom, whom many believe is Christ. This scriptures compliments other scriptures that that teach that Jesus was given birth by God and then created all THINGS though him.

So from this verse we can see the following points.

Wisdom was brought forth as the first of Gods works.
Wisdom was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
Wisdom was given birth before creation.
Wisdom was the craftsman at his side and rejoiced in his presence before creation.
Some say that Wisdom isn’t Christ, rather this is just wisdom in a conceptual sense and it is true that wisdom is being spoken of in that way. But from verse 22 onward it changes tempo. With terms like I was given birth, I was the craftsman at his side and I was filled with delight, we have to admit that it seems to be talking about a person. Now have a look at the following verses:

1 Corinthians 1:24 (English-NIV)
but to those whom God has called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God.

1 Corinthians 1:30 (English-NIV)
It is because of him that you are in Christ Jesus, who has become for us wisdom from God–that is, our righteousness, holiness and redemption.

Let’s look at some other concepts that Jesus personifies:

Jesus is the Truth. Yet truth is also a concept.
Jesus is the Way. Yet the way is also a concept.
Jesus is the Life. Yet life can also be a concept.
Now look at the following mystery:

1 Corinthians 2:6-9
6 We do, however, speak a message of wisdom among the mature, but not the wisdom of this age or of the rulers of this age, who are coming to nothing.
7 No, we speak of God’s secret wisdom, a wisdom that has been hidden and that God destined for our glory before time began.
8 None of the rulers of this age understood it, for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.
9 However, as it is written:
“No eye has seen,
no ear has heard,
no mind has conceived
what God has prepared for those who love him”

Ephesians 3:8-10
8 Although I am less than the least of all God’s people, this grace was given me: to preach to the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ,
9 and to make plain to everyone the administration of this mystery, which for ages past was kept hidden in God, who created all things.
10 His intent was that now, through the church, the manifold wisdom of God should be made known to the rulers and authorities in the heavenly realms,

Perhaps another scripture alluding to Jesus being the Wisdom of God.

Finally I leave you with the following OT scripture that suggests that God had a Son before the birth Of Jesus Christ on earth.

Proverbs 30:4
Who has gone up to heaven and come down? Who has gathered up the wind in the hollow of his hands? Who has wrapped up the waters in his cloak? Who has established all the ends of the earth? What is his name, and the name of his son? Tell me if you know!


Discussion

Viewing 20 posts - 11,981 through 12,000 (of 19,165 total)
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  • #267011
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (t8 @ Dec. 07 2011,06:31)

    Quote

    Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 07 2011,05:59)
    Hi Pierre,

    Proverbs calls wisdom a she,
    and the word “Spirit” is feminine.
    Yet these facts mean nothing to you,
    the traditions of men instead supersede.
    (Col.2:22)

    The systems of religion and traditions of men communicate…
    distortions of truth, confusion of mind, and distractions of spirit
    .

    God bless
    Ed J


    PIERRE,

    I was right, the FACTS mean nothing to you,
    instead you will cling to what the systems of religion
    have taught you, right? Do you deny it is there message?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    Yes that is true Edj.

    But then it changes tact once wisdom is given birth and even calls Wisdom the craftsMan at his side.
    And who was it that is at the right hand of the majesty on high by returning to the glory that he had with the Father before the world began?
    Is it not Jesus.

    Read it for yourself and see that wisdom that is spoken of as an attribute (in the feminine) once given birth is now no longer an attribute but is the craftsman at the right-hand of God.

    22 “The LORD brought me forth as the first of his works, before his deeds of old;
    23 I was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began. 24 When there were no oceans, I was given birth, when there were no springs abounding with water; 25 before the mountains were settled in place, before the hills, I was given birth, 26 before he made the earth or its fields or any of the dust of the world. 27 I was there when he set the heavens in place, when he marked out the horizon on the face of the deep, 28 when he established the clouds above and fixed securely the fountains of the deep, 29 when he gave the sea its boundary so the waters would not overstep his command, and when he marked out the foundations of the earth.
    30 Then I was the craftsman at his side. I was filled with delight day after day, rejoicing always in his presence,

    Do these facts mean anything to you Edj?


    Hi T8, sorry, the word 'birth' is not there either?

    Prob.8:22-28 The LORD possessed me in the beginning of his way, before his works of old.
    23 I was set up from everlasting, from the beginning, or ever the earth was.
    24 When there were no depths, I was brought forth; when there were no fountains abounding with water.
    25 Before the mountains were settled, before the hills was I brought forth:
    26 While as yet he had not made the earth, nor the fields, nor the highest part of the dust of the world.
    27 When he prepared the heavens, I was there: when he set a compass upon the face of the depth:
    28 When he established the clouds above: when he strengthened the fountains of the deep:

    Set up and brought forth.   …as in, the HolySpirit is raised up to be brought to the front of the class.

    (Gen.1:2)     “the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters.”
    Compare:         “he set a compass upon the face of the depth”

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #267017
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Hi Edj.

    Correct it is brought forth. So as you said sorry, I am going to have to say 'sorry sorry' because brought forth is used in other verses when talking not just of things, but also to bring forth a child.

    The following verses use the same word (chuwl {khool} or chiyl {kheel}):

    Proverbs 26:10: The great God that formed all things both rewardeth the fool, and rewardeth transgressors.
    Isaiah 45:10: Woe unto him that saith unto his father, What begettest thou? or to the woman, What hast thou brought forth?
    Isaiah 51:2: Look unto Abraham your father, and unto Sarah that bare you: for I called him alone, and blessed him, and increased him.
    Isaiah 54:1: Sing, O barren, thou that didst not bear; break forth into singing, and cry aloud, thou that didst not travail with child: for more are the children of the desolate than the children of the married wife, saith the LORD.

    So we are left with God bringing forth something that is called the “craftsman at his side” and call it a coincidence, but Jesus had glory with God before the world began is now at the right side of the majesty on high, and even more compelling is we are told that God created all things through and for his son. No interpretation of Jesus being the Word needed. It just says that God created all things through his son and he is before all things.

    Does this mean anything to you Edj?

    #267019
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 05 2011,17:37)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 06 2011,10:31)
    Of course the word of God was sometimes delivered via His Holy Spirit.  According to Jesus, Ps 110 is one of those times.


    Hi Mike,

    Thank you, then we are in agreement on this point. :)

    God bless
    Ed J


    Ed,

    If we are in agreement that the word of God came VIA His Holy Spirit, then we must also be in agreement that the Holy Spirit is not actually “the word of God”, but one of the many vessels through which the word of God came to men.

    Are we in agreement on this, Ed?

    #267021
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 06 2011,04:01)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 06 2011,08:01)
    Ed, here is 1:14-15 again, but instead of using pronouns, I will use the name of the subject to which they actually refer:

    14 The Word became flesh and made his THE WORD'S dwelling among us. We have seen his THE WORD'S glory, the glory of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth.

    15 John testifies concerning him THE WORD. He cries out, saying, “This THE WORD was he THE WORD of whom I said, ‘He THE WORD who comes after me has surpassed me because he THE WORD was before me.’”

    Ed, this is just the way it is.  And you KNOW it, based on your replies to my sample exercise about Keith.  Why you would now ignore what you clearly know, and attempt to make the scriptures form around YOUR understanding, instead of forming your understanding around the scriptures, is beyond me.


    Hi Mike,

    No, that's the way that you make it out to be.
    Because that's the only way you will let yourself see it.

    You have yet to poke any holes in my view;
    but you are welcome to keep trying.

    God bless
    Ed J


    Ed,

    The fact that you know John is speaking about “the Word”, but insist that all of a sudden, John switches to a different subject starting with the pronoun “him”, (as if we would have any idea who “him” is), leaves a HUGE, GAPING WHOLE in your view.  

    Do you remember how I began my sample exercise?  Do you remember how I left off the first sentence and asked out of the blue, “DO YOU LIKE HIM?” ?  You had to ask me who I was talking about, remember?  And what did you learn from that, Ed?  Didn't you learn that one cannot just start speaking of a new subject using the pronoun “him” without first identifying who the “him” is?

    Ed, my exercise was well thought out, and you fell right into the trap.  And now your words are in the Incarnation thread for all to see.  So your insistence that John just up and switched subjects using the pronoun “him”, without telling us who the “him” was, is see-through.  Ed, I can see clear as day that you know who both 1:14 AND 1:15 speak of.  And I can also see clear as day that you are willing to let us all think you are ignorant concerning grammar rules – just so you can PRETEND to be “right” and keep your flawed doctrine.

    Ed did this……………..Ed did that…………..Ed said this…………..Mike testified about HIM………….

    Only Ed would think Mike testified about someone other than “Ed”.  :)

    And truthfully, Ed wouldn't even think that.  He has shown that he understands John 1:14-15 full well.  He showed this by being able to recognize that the pronouns “his” and “him” referred to Worshipping Jesus in my sample exercise.  And that shows that his understanding of the grammatical rules of pronouns is sufficient to understand 1:14-15.  So, what good will it do me to talk to him further at this point?  Because it is clear to me that he is PRETENDING not to see what we all know he sees.

    Ed, all six of the bolded pronouns above refer to YOU – in case you were unable to figure that out on your own.  :)

    #267025
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (t8 @ Dec. 07 2011,08:18)
    Hi Edj.

    Correct it is brought forth. So as you said sorry, I am going to have to say 'sorry sorry' because brought forth is used in other verses when talking not just of things, but also to bring forth a child.

    The following verses use the same word (chuwl {khool} or chiyl {kheel}):

    Proverbs 26:10: The great God that formed all things both rewardeth the fool, and rewardeth transgressors.
    Isaiah 45:10: Woe unto him that saith unto his father, What begettest thou? or to the woman, What hast thou brought forth?
    Isaiah 51:2: Look unto Abraham your father, and unto Sarah that bare you: for I called him alone, and blessed him, and increased him.
    Isaiah 54:1: Sing, O barren, thou that didst not bear; break forth into singing, and cry aloud, thou that didst not travail with child: for more are the children of the desolate than the children of the married wife, saith the LORD.

    So we are left with God bringing forth something that is called the “craftsman at his side” and call it a coincidence, but Jesus had glory with God before the world began is now at the right side of the majesty on high, and even more compelling is we are told that God created all things through and for his son. No interpretation of Jesus being the Word needed. It just says that God created all things through his son and he is before all things.

    Does this mean anything to you Edj?


    Hi T8,

    Are we not born again with God's Spirit?
    The meaning of birth does not discount God's Spirit.
    Because it's with his Spirit the we do become born of spirit.

    What is the definition of the word that your translators translated to 'craftsman'?   <–Let's explore this; OK?

    Plus you've not addressed how Prob.9:1-6 apparently contradicts your belief here.    <–please do comment?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #267026
    terraricca
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 07 2011,03:50)

    Quote (terraricca @ Dec. 06 2011,20:11)
    edj

    Quote
    Hi Pierre,

    Proverbs calls wisdom a she,
    and the word “Spirit” is feminine.
    Yet these facts mean nothing to you,
    the traditions of men instead supersede.
    (Col.2:22)

    The systems of religion and traditions of men communicate…
    distortions of truth, confusion of mind, and distractions of spirit
    .

    you still do not see it but then my friend what can i say;Jn 6:44 “No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him,;

    Ex 31:1 Then the LORD said to Moses,
    Ex 31:2 “See, I have chosen Bezalel son of Uri, the son of Hur, of the tribe of Judah,
    Ex 31:3 and I have filled him with the Spirit of God, with skill, ability and knowledge in all kinds of crafts

    1KI 3:9 “So give Your servant an understanding heart to judge Your people to discern between good and evil. For who is able to judge this great people of Yours?”

    JOB 12:13
    “With Him are wisdom and might;
    To Him belong counsel and understanding.

    PS 32:9 Do not be as the horse or as the mule which have no understanding,
    Whose trappings include bit and bridle to hold them in check,
    Otherwise they will not come near to you.

    PS 119:125 I am Your servant; give me understanding,
    That I may know Your testimonies.
    PS 119:130 The unfolding of Your words gives light;
    It gives understanding to the simple.
    PS 119:144 Your testimonies are righteous forever;
    Give me understanding that I may live.

    PS 119:169
    Let my cry come before You, O LORD;
    Give me understanding according to YOUR WORD

    Pierre


    PIERRE,

    What do you have say ABOUT THE FACTS that I just gave you?   …do you consider them a distraction as well?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    edj

    it seems you did not read Gods word and so did not learn anything because you only can see feminine or masculine ,

    words ,words you missing the message ,you are killing the messanger as well,

    and yes they are a distraction of the real message,

    all the scriptures i have quoted are from the LXX OT,

    only the NT are from NIV 1984

    if I forgot to mention Revelation 19 ,it was purposetly done to make you focus on the other scriptures ,

    but it was of no avail,

    Pierre

    #267027
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 07 2011,08:22)

    Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 05 2011,17:37)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 06 2011,10:31)
    Of course the word of God was sometimes delivered via His Holy Spirit.  According to Jesus, Ps 110 is one of those times.


    Hi Mike,

    Thank you, then we are in agreement on this point. :)

    God bless
    Ed J


    Ed,

    If we are in agreement that the word of God came VIA His Holy Spirit, then we must also be in agreement that the Holy Spirit is not actually “the word of God”, but one of the many vessels through which the word of God came to men.

    Are we in agreement on this, Ed?


    Hi Mike,

    The bible says that “The Word” of the LORD came to them (meaning the Prophets),
    if we agree God's HolySpirit came to them, then God's HolySpirit is “The Word” of God; right?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #267032
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 07 2011,09:15)
    Plus you've not addressed how Prob.9:1-6 apparently contradicts your belief here.


    Edj.

    I believe that wisdom is an attribute thus it can be spoken as a she. If I have wisdom, I do not believe that I am Jesus for example.

    The difference is that the name of an attribute can also be given to a person with that attribute. e.g., when Jesus said “I am the truth”, he wasn't saying he was an attribute.
    When he said, I am the life, he wasn't saying he was an attribute.
    No he was saying that as a person he was these things.

    Thus wisdom spoken as an attribute in Proverbs changes tact as I mentioned earlier to say, “craftsman at his side” for example. The point being that a craftsman is no longer a she or attribute.

    Actually craftsman seems to be present in one translation, (possibly more but haven't checked), so I am happy to go with:
    “Then I was by him, [as] one brought up [with him]” or
    “Then I was constantly[a] at his side. I was filled with delight day after day, rejoicing always in his presence,”.

    Such language is not denoting an attribute but as someone or something beside God.
    When we see the word rejoicing and delight, it gives an emotion or response that a person, not an attribute gives.
    It not only denotes existence with God, but distinction from him too.

    The second century Fathers often said that Jesus was the first work of the Father which was their way of saying that he was Wisdom.
    The strength of this view was reinforced with Jesus being called both wisdom and the logos in the New Testament. And we also have direct reference that it was the son by whom God made all things through.

    When you take the whole counsel of scripture, it is hard to deny that he was the first born of all creation, the first work of the Father, and the one by whom all things were made through.

    Admittedly, some of this involves looking at the whole of scripture to give it context, but other scriptures can stand on their own, such as “All things were made through him and for him”.

    #267035
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 06 2011,16:20)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 07 2011,08:22)

    Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 05 2011,17:37)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 06 2011,10:31)
    Of course the word of God was sometimes delivered via His Holy Spirit.  According to Jesus, Ps 110 is one of those times.


    Hi Mike,

    Thank you, then we are in agreement on this point. :)

    God bless
    Ed J


    Ed,

    If we are in agreement that the word of God came VIA His Holy Spirit, then we must also be in agreement that the Holy Spirit is not actually “the word of God”, but one of the many vessels through which the word of God came to men.

    Are we in agreement on this, Ed?


    Hi Mike,

    The bible says that “The Word” of the LORD came to them (meaning the Prophets),
    if we agree God's HolySpirit came to them, then God's HolySpirit is “The Word” of God; right?

    God bless
    Ed J


    Angels also came to them delivering the word of God. Are angels also “the Word of God”?

    #267036
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 07 2011,08:54)

    Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 06 2011,04:01)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 06 2011,08:01)
    Ed, here is 1:14-15 again, but instead of using pronouns, I will use the name of the subject to which they actually refer:

    14 The Word became flesh and made his THE WORD'S dwelling among us. We have seen his THE WORD'S glory, the glory of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth.

    15 John testifies concerning him THE WORD. He cries out, saying, “This THE WORD was he THE WORD of whom I said, ‘He THE WORD who comes after me has surpassed me because he THE WORD was before me.’”

    Ed, this is just the way it is.  And you KNOW it, based on your replies to my sample exercise about Keith.  Why you would now ignore what you clearly know, and attempt to make the scriptures form around YOUR understanding, instead of forming your understanding around the scriptures, is beyond me.


    Hi Mike,

    No, that's the way that you make it out to be.
    Because that's the only way you will let yourself see it.

    You have yet to poke any holes in my view;
    but you are welcome to keep trying.

    God bless
    Ed J


    Ed,

    The fact that you know John is speaking about “the Word”, but insist that all of a sudden, John switches to a different subject starting with the pronoun “him”, (as if we would have any idea who “him” is), leaves a HUGE, GAPING WHOLE in your view.  

    Do you remember how I began my sample exercise?  Do you remember how I left off the first sentence and asked out of the blue, “DO YOU LIKE HIM?” ?  You had to ask me who I was talking about, remember?  And what did you learn from that, Ed?  Didn't you learn that one cannot just start speaking of a new subject using the pronoun “him” without first identifying who the “him” is?

    Ed, my exercise was well thought out, and you fell right into the trap.  And now your words are in the Incarnation thread for all to see.  So your insistence that John just up and switched subjects using the pronoun “him”, without telling us who the “him” was, is see-through.  Ed, I can see clear as day that you know who both 1:14 AND 1:15 speak of.  And I can also see clear as day that you are willing to let us all think you are ignorant concerning grammar rules – just so you can PRETEND to be “right” and keep your flawed doctrine.

    Ed did this……………..Ed did that…………..Ed said this…………..Mike testified about HIM………….

    Only Ed would think Mike testified about someone other than “Ed”.  :)

    And truthfully, Ed wouldn't even think that.  He has shown that he understands John 1:14-15 full well.  He showed this by being able to recognize that the pronouns “his” and “him” referred to Worshipping Jesus in my sample exercise.  And that shows that his understanding of the grammatical rules of pronouns is sufficient to understand 1:14-15.  So, what good will it do me to talk to him further at this point?  Because it is clear to me that he is PRETENDING not to see what we all know he sees.

    Ed, all six of the bolded pronouns above refer to YOU – in case you were unable to figure that out on your own.  :)


    Hi Mike,

    The new subject is identified: “the only begotten of the Father.”
    Here is an example for you how the subject can change from
    one verse to the next; which you present as your argument.

    Romans 5:8-9 But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us.
    9 Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him.

    This is more evidence to support my view; what say you?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #267037
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 07 2011,09:20)
    Hi Mike,

    The bible says that “The Word” of the LORD came to them (meaning the Prophets),
    if we agree God's HolySpirit came to them, then God's HolySpirit is “The Word” of God; right?


    Why can't God's Spirit deliver the Word or the message to the Prophets. There is probably a reason why the Spirit and Word are different words.

    And we know that Jesus is called the Word of God in Revelation, but where is he directly called the Holy Spirit?

    #267038
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    I think that there is confusion here based on not distinguishing between attributes and persons.
    Attributes even objects are often called 'she”, while a person 'he'.

    Also a person reacts to things, while an attribute cannot.
    A person can feel delight. An attribute cannot.

    #267040
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 06 2011,16:15)
    What is the definition of the word that your translators translated to 'craftsman'? <–Let's explore this; OK?


    Okay.

    From NETNotes:
    Critical to the interpretation of this line is the meaning of אָמוֹן (’amon). Several suggestions have been made: “master craftsman” (cf. ASV, NASB, NIV, NRSV), “nursing child” (cf. NCV), “foster father.”

    The image of a child is consistent with the previous figure of being “given birth to” (vv. 24, 25). However, “craftsman” has the most support (LXX, Vulgate, Syriac, Tg. Prov 8:30, Song 7:1; Jer 52:15……..)

    Ed, the LXX has craftsman. Same with the Latin Vulgate and the Syriac text. Not to mention that the New KJV has updated their translation to “craftsman”.

    As for the two supporting scriptures listed by NETNotes, the KJV renders the word “amon” as “cunning workman” in Song 7:1. They do not use “craftsman” in Jer 52:15, but the New KJV does.

    I guess my opinion will follow the LXX, which was most likely translated by Greek speaking Jews, who knew both languages very well. And the LXX has “craftsman”, along with virtually every translation except for the KJV.

    #267042
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (t8 @ Dec. 07 2011,09:36)

    Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 07 2011,09:15)
    Plus you've not addressed how Prob.9:1-6 apparently contradicts your belief here.


    Edj.

    I believe that wisdom is an attribute thus it can be spoken as a she. If I have wisdom, I do not believe that I am Jesus for example.

    The difference is that the name of an attribute can also be given to a person with that attribute. e.g., when Jesus said “I am the truth”, he wasn't saying he was an attribute.
    When he said, I am the life, he wasn't saying he was an attribute.
    (1)No he was saying that as a person he was these things.

    Thus wisdom spoken as an attribute in Proverbs changes tact as I mentioned earlier to say, “craftsman at his side” for example. The point being that a craftsman is no longer a she or attribute.

    Actually craftsman seems to be present in one translation, (possibly more but haven't checked), so I am happy to go with:
    “Then I was by him, [as] one brought up [with him]” or
    “Then I was constantly[a] at his side. I was filled with delight day after day, rejoicing always in his presence,”.

    (2)Such language is not denoting an attribute but as someone or something beside God.
    (3)When we see the word rejoicing and delight, it gives an emotion or response that a person, not an attribute gives.
    It not only denotes existence with God, but distinction from him too.

    The second century Fathers often said that Jesus was the first work of the Father which was their way of saying that he was Wisdom.
    The strength of this view was reinforced with Jesus being called both wisdom and the logos in the New Testament. And we also have direct reference that it was the son by whom God made all things through.

    When you take the whole counsel of scripture, it is hard to deny that he was the first born of all creation, the first work of the Father, and the one by whom all things were made through.

    Admittedly, some of this involves looking at the whole of scripture to give it context, but other scriptures can stand on their own, such as (4)”All things were made through him and for him”.


    Hi T8,

    Hi T8,

    1) Are you patience? Would you consider me prudence?
        Do you not instead mean He had these things, the wording
        you choose seems a bit selected and slanted towards your belief; Yes?

    2) So the word that was translated as workman, means a skill
        rather than a gender, once again supporting my view; yes?

    3) God makes the distinction of his “HolySpirt” himself.

    4) I don't remember any scripture worded in such manor?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #267043
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 06 2011,17:02)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 07 2011,08:54)

    Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 06 2011,04:01)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 06 2011,08:01)
    Ed, here is 1:14-15 again, but instead of using pronouns, I will use the name of the subject to which they actually refer:

    14 The Word became flesh and made his THE WORD'S dwelling among us. We have seen his THE WORD'S glory, the glory of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth.

    15 John testifies concerning him THE WORD. He cries out, saying, “This THE WORD was he THE WORD of whom I said, ‘He THE WORD who comes after me has surpassed me because he THE WORD was before me.’”

    Ed, this is just the way it is.  And you KNOW it, based on your replies to my sample exercise about Keith.  Why you would now ignore what you clearly know, and attempt to make the scriptures form around YOUR understanding, instead of forming your understanding around the scriptures, is beyond me.


    Hi Mike,

    No, that's the way that you make it out to be.
    Because that's the only way you will let yourself see it.

    You have yet to poke any holes in my view;
    but you are welcome to keep trying.

    God bless
    Ed J


    Ed,

    The fact that you know John is speaking about “the Word”, but insist that all of a sudden, John switches to a different subject starting with the pronoun “him”, (as if we would have any idea who “him” is), leaves a HUGE, GAPING WHOLE in your view.  

    Do you remember how I began my sample exercise?  Do you remember how I left off the first sentence and asked out of the blue, “DO YOU LIKE HIM?” ?  You had to ask me who I was talking about, remember?  And what did you learn from that, Ed?  Didn't you learn that one cannot just start speaking of a new subject using the pronoun “him” without first identifying who the “him” is?

    Ed, my exercise was well thought out, and you fell right into the trap.  And now your words are in the Incarnation thread for all to see.  So your insistence that John just up and switched subjects using the pronoun “him”, without telling us who the “him” was, is see-through.  Ed, I can see clear as day that you know who both 1:14 AND 1:15 speak of.  And I can also see clear as day that you are willing to let us all think you are ignorant concerning grammar rules – just so you can PRETEND to be “right” and keep your flawed doctrine.

    Ed did this……………..Ed did that…………..Ed said this…………..Mike testified about HIM………….

    Only Ed would think Mike testified about someone other than “Ed”.  :)

    And truthfully, Ed wouldn't even think that.  He has shown that he understands John 1:14-15 full well.  He showed this by being able to recognize that the pronouns “his” and “him” referred to Worshipping Jesus in my sample exercise.  And that shows that his understanding of the grammatical rules of pronouns is sufficient to understand 1:14-15.  So, what good will it do me to talk to him further at this point?  Because it is clear to me that he is PRETENDING not to see what we all know he sees.

    Ed, all six of the bolded pronouns above refer to YOU – in case you were unable to figure that out on your own.  :)


    Hi Mike,

    The new subject is identified: “the only begotten of the Father.”
    Here is an example for you how the subject can change from
    one verse to the next; which you present as your argument.

    Romans 5:8-9 But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us.
    9 Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him.

    This is more evidence to support my view; what say you?

    God bless
    Ed J


    Ed, “the only begotten of the Father” refers to a glory that the subject had. And the subject that had that glory was “the Word”.

    As for your example, pay attention to the words “Christ died for us”. Now the “his blood” could refer to either “God” or “Christ”, because “Christ” has been introduced into the thought.

    Where was “Christ” introduced into 1:14-15, Ed?

    #267044
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 07 2011,09:59)

    Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 06 2011,16:20)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 07 2011,08:22)

    Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 05 2011,17:37)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 06 2011,10:31)
    Of course the word of God was sometimes delivered via His Holy Spirit.  According to Jesus, Ps 110 is one of those times.


    Hi Mike,

    Thank you, then we are in agreement on this point. :)

    God bless
    Ed J


    Ed,

    If we are in agreement that the word of God came VIA His Holy Spirit, then we must also be in agreement that the Holy Spirit is not actually “the word of God”, but one of the many vessels through which the word of God came to men.

    Are we in agreement on this, Ed?


    Hi Mike,

    The bible says that “The Word” of the LORD came to them (meaning the Prophets),
    if we agree God's HolySpirit came to them, then God's HolySpirit is “The Word” of God; right?

    God bless
    Ed J


    Angels also came to them delivering the word of God.  Are angels also “the Word of God”?


    Hi Mike,

    Is this a serious question?
    Neither Angels nor humans
    are called “The Word” of God!
    Only God's HolySpirt is called this.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #267045
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 07 2011,10:27)

    Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 06 2011,17:02)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 07 2011,08:54)

    Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 06 2011,04:01)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 06 2011,08:01)
    Ed, here is 1:14-15 again, but instead of using pronouns, I will use the name of the subject to which they actually refer:

    14 The Word became flesh and made his THE WORD'S dwelling among us. We have seen his THE WORD'S glory, the glory of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth.

    15 John testifies concerning him THE WORD. He cries out, saying, “This THE WORD was he THE WORD of whom I said, ‘He THE WORD who comes after me has surpassed me because he THE WORD was before me.’”

    Ed, this is just the way it is.  And you KNOW it, based on your replies to my sample exercise about Keith.  Why you would now ignore what you clearly know, and attempt to make the scriptures form around YOUR understanding, instead of forming your understanding around the scriptures, is beyond me.


    Hi Mike,

    No, that's the way that you make it out to be.
    Because that's the only way you will let yourself see it.

    You have yet to poke any holes in my view;
    but you are welcome to keep trying.

    God bless
    Ed J


    Ed,

    The fact that you know John is speaking about “the Word”, but insist that all of a sudden, John switches to a different subject starting with the pronoun “him”, (as if we would have any idea who “him” is), leaves a HUGE, GAPING WHOLE in your view.  

    Do you remember how I began my sample exercise?  Do you remember how I left off the first sentence and asked out of the blue, “DO YOU LIKE HIM?” ?  You had to ask me who I was talking about, remember?  And what did you learn from that, Ed?  Didn't you learn that one cannot just start speaking of a new subject using the pronoun “him” without first identifying who the “him” is?

    Ed, my exercise was well thought out, and you fell right into the trap.  And now your words are in the Incarnation thread for all to see.  So your insistence that John just up and switched subjects using the pronoun “him”, without telling us who the “him” was, is see-through.  Ed, I can see clear as day that you know who both 1:14 AND 1:15 speak of.  And I can also see clear as day that you are willing to let us all think you are ignorant concerning grammar rules – just so you can PRETEND to be “right” and keep your flawed doctrine.

    Ed did this……………..Ed did that…………..Ed said this…………..Mike testified about HIM………….

    Only Ed would think Mike testified about someone other than “Ed”.  :)

    And truthfully, Ed wouldn't even think that.  He has shown that he understands John 1:14-15 full well.  He showed this by being able to recognize that the pronouns “his” and “him” referred to Worshipping Jesus in my sample exercise.  And that shows that his understanding of the grammatical rules of pronouns is sufficient to understand 1:14-15.  So, what good will it do me to talk to him further at this point?  Because it is clear to me that he is PRETENDING not to see what we all know he sees.

    Ed, all six of the bolded pronouns above refer to YOU – in case you were unable to figure that out on your own.  :)


    Hi Mike,

    The new subject is identified: “the only begotten of the Father.”
    Here is an example for you how the subject can change from
    one verse to the next; which you present as your argument.

    Romans 5:8-9 But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us.
    9 Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him.

    This is more evidence to support my view; what say you?

    God bless
    Ed J


    Ed, (1)”the only begotten of the Father” refers to a glory that the subject had.  And the subject that had that glory was “the Word”.

    (2)As for your example, pay attention to the words “Christ died for us”.  Now the “his blood” could refer to either “God” or “Christ”, because “Christ” has been introduced into the thought.

    (3)Where was “Christ” introduced into (John) 1:14-15, Ed?


    Hi Mike, I added (John) to your quote for purposes of clarification.

    1) “The Word's” glory is exemplified in his only begotten son.

    2) It's definitely referring to the blood in Christ; correct?

    3) Indirectly in verse 4, and specifically in verse 14.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #267047
    terraricca
    Participant

    edj

    Quote
    Hi Mike,

    Is this a serious question?
    Neither Angels nor humans
    are called “The Word” of God!
    Only God's HolySpirt is called this.

    God bless

    only eddy believe this

    Pierre

    #267050
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (terraricca @ Dec. 07 2011,10:52)
    edj

    Quote
    Hi Mike,

    Is this a serious question?
    Neither Angels nor humans
    are called “The Word” of God!
    Only God's HolySpirt is called this.

    God bless

    only eddy believe this

    Pierre


    PIERRE,

    Are you purposely lying?   …because we all know Gene believes this way as well. :)

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #267052
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 07 2011,10:25)
    Hi T8,

    1) Are you patience? Would you consider me prudence?
       Do you not instead mean He had these things, the wording
       you choose seems a bit selected and slanted towards your belief; Yes?

    2) So the word that was translated as workman, means a skill
       rather than a gender, once again supporting my view; yes?

    3) God makes the distinction of his “HolySpirt” himself.

    4) I don't remember any scripture worded in such manor?


    Q1: Do you not instead mean He had these things, the wording you choose seems a bit selected and slanted towards your belief; Yes?

    A: No he was saying that as a person he was these things because Jesus is not an attribute, furthermore, he was saying, “I am the truth”…
    So my point stands. That wisdom can be an attribute and a person with that attribute. No slant here. This stands on its own as sound understanding.


    Q2: So the word that was translated as workman, means a skill rather than a gender, once again supporting my view; yes?

    A: Edj, a skill cannot have delight. Only a living person can express such things.
    If you look as the wisdom scripture in Prov 8, it certainly starts of with wisdom as an attribute.
    But those who believe weird things about Jesus usually say that the latter part is not different to the former, when it clearly is.
    The latter part is certainly looking very much like a person rather than an attribute to me. I guess if you could point out 'she' in the latter part as you say you can in the former, then you might have something.

    FYI however, the word craftsmen is translated correctly from the English words “one brought up” which is 'amown {aw-mone'} meaning artificer, architect, master workman, skilled workman. That words origin is '0539', probably meaning in the sense of training. So the word craft is the skill and a craftsman is the one with the skill. The scripture refers to the latter, not the former.


    Q3: God makes the distinction of his “HolySpirt” himself.
    A: I don't understand your question.


    Q4: I don't remember any scripture worded in such manor?
    A: OK, so Jesus is called the Word of God, and not the Holy Spirit.
    Yet the Holy Spirit is the Word of God.
    Well on the outset it is still possible of course, but you haven't shown me anything to convince me so far.

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