Did Jesus pre-exist before his birth on Earth?

Where did Jesus come from?

John 6:38-40
For I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will, but the will of him who sent me; and this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise it up at the last day. For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who sees the Son and believes in him should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.

The first verse suggests that Jesus came down from Heaven. This seems to contradict that belief which suggests he first existed as a man when he was born into this world. For if Jesus came into existence for the first time when he was conceived through Mary, how could he come down from Heaven? We (Man) came into existence when we are born into this world, but would it be correct to say that we came down from Heaven too? If a verse said that we came down from Heaven, would you think that we pre-existed in Heaven? If so, then why not Jesus?

John 3:17 is another verse that provides support that Jesus came down from Heaven or was sent rather than created.

For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.

The word ‘send’ is the Greek word ‘apostello’.

apostello {ap-os-tel’-lo}
1) to order (one) to go to a place appointed
2) to send away, dismiss
2a) to allow one to depart, that he may be in a state of liberty
2b) to order one to depart, send off
2c) to drive away

To be sent surely implies existence otherwise you would just say born or created. In fact this word (sent) is similar in meaning and sound to the word Apostle (apostolos), which means “one sent forth with orders”. To be sent forth with order, you must exist.

John 6:62
What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?

Jesus is clearly stating here that he came from above since he eventually ascended into Heaven to be at the right-hand of God.

How old is Jesus?

John 1:15
15 John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.‘ “

John the Baptist was six months older than Jesus Christ. So it is physically impossible for Christ to be before him in age. If this verse is referencing age, then it shows preexistence. Jesus existed before  John the Baptist in the least.

John 8:58
“I tell you the truth,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!

Jesus claimed to exist before Abraham, the father of the Jews. The words ‘I am’ mean ‘I exist’. So Jesus claimed existence before Abraham. We can see that Jesus is getting older as we explore the scriptures. But how old?

Jude 1:25
to the only God our Savior be glory, majesty, power and authority, through Jesus Christ our Lord, before all ages, now and forevermore! Amen.

Here we can see that majesty, power, and authority through Jesus Christ is before all ages (all worlds) and forever more into the future. This strongly implies that Jesus existed even before all things. But can we substantiate this?

Did Jesus exist before all creation?

Colossians 1:17
He is before all things, and in him all things hold together.

Colossians answers the question outright. It states that “He is before all things“.  But are there other verses that support this idea?

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus being there. This verse alone answers the question because the universe, angels, and men were made and Jesus was present when they were created according to these verses. In case that is not enough to convince you, I also add another clear verse that says the same thing.

Hebrews 1:1-2
1 In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways,
2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe.

Is Jesus the Word of God?

But some say that this is talking about the Word and not all believe that Jesus is the Word of God. They argue that Jesus came from the Word, but is not the Word itself that was with God in John 1:1. If you believe this, then please explain the next two verses within their wider context:

Revelation 19:13
He is dressed in a robe dipped in blood, and his name is the Word of God.

Colossians 1:15-18
The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him. He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. And he is the head of the body, the church; he is the beginning and the firstborn from among the dead, so that in everything he might have the supremacy.

Okay, if you are honest, this is a closed case. God created all things through the Word. Jesus is called the Word of God and also the son of God. We are also told that God created all things through the son of God. Even if you do not believe that Jesus is the Word, then you still have to believe that Jesus pre-existed on account of him being the son of God. But what we know from scripture is that Jesus existed as the Word of God before he came as a man called Jesus. We know that the Word became flesh.

More proof verses

If Jesus pre-existed, then you might expect that even though the above verses are clear, there would be more verses that teach or at least imply that he pre-existed. So let’s see if this is the case.

Revelation 22:16
“I, Jesus, have sent my angel to give you this testimony for the churches. I am the Root and the Offspring of David, and the bright Morning Star.”

Here we see that Jesus is the offspring of David, yet he is also the root of David, which at appears to show existence before King David. He also claims to be the bright Morning Star and we read in Job how the Morning Stars were present when God created the Earth.

Job 38:6-7
“On what were its bases sunk? Or who laid its cornerstone, When the morning stars sang together And all the sons of God shouted for joy? 

Luke 10:18
He replied, “I saw Satan fall like lightning from heaven.

Comparing Luke 10:18 with Revelation 12:1-10, some say that Satan and his angels fell to the earth before the birth of Christ as a man. If this was the case, then Jesus saw an event that took place before he was born as a man. However, others argue that Satan hasn’t fallen to the Earth yet, or that he has, but Jesus saw this in a vision. Regardless, it certainly doesn’t contradict that Jesus pre-existed.

Micah 5:2
“But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, though you are small among the clans of Judah, out of you will come for me one who will be ruler over Israel, whose origins are from of old, from ancient times.”

The above verse talks about someone who will rule Israel and whose origin is from ancient times. Who but Jesus could fit that description?

John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God/Divine.

John 1:14
The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only,[ 1:14 Or the Only Begotten] who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Clearly, Jesus was with God in the beginning as the Word of God. This places his existence as before all things and thus comes as no surprise that he was there when God created all things.

The Angel of YHWH

We know from certain scriptures that Jesus is Lord of the Sabbath and many assume that Jesus gave the Law of God. We are told in Acts:7:30-39 for instance that an Angel of the Lord appeared to Moses through whom God spoke and this is the same Angel who spoke to Moses on Mount Sinai and passed on the living words (The Law) to Moses.

30 “After forty years had passed, an angel appeared to Moses in the flames of a burning bush in the desert near Mount Sinai.
31 When he saw this, he was amazed at the sight. As he went over to look more closely, he heard the Lord’s voice:
32 ‘I am the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.’Moses trembled with fear and did not dare to look.
33 “Then the Lord said to him, ‘Take off your sandals; the place where you are standing is holy ground.
34 I have indeed seen the oppression of my people in Egypt. I have heard their groaning and have come down to set them free. Now come, I will send you back to Egypt.’
35 “This is the same Moses whom they had rejected with the words, ‘Who made you ruler and judge?’ He was sent to be their ruler and deliverer by God himself, through the angel who appeared to him in the bush.
36 He led them out of Egypt and did wonders and miraculous signs in Egypt, at the Red Sea and for forty years in the desert.
37 “This is that Moses who told the Israelites, ‘God will send you a prophet like me from your own people.’
38 He was in the assembly in the desert, with the angel who spoke to him on Mount Sinai, and with our fathers; and he received living words to pass on to us.
39 “But our fathers refused to obey him. Instead, they rejected him and in their hearts turned back to Egypt.

So is this Angel of the Lord, Jesus? Well it seems possible. Perhaps the correct model to look at is the one mentioned in Revelation 1:1

The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,

Here we can see that the order of the Revelation started with the Originator which is God. He then passed the message to Jesus Christ who in turn sent it to his Angel and then to John. So perhaps it is possible that the angel in Revelation is the same angel mentioned in Acts:7:30-39.

But the Angel of YHWH or Angel of the LORD is described as one like the son of gods.

Daniel 3:24-25
Then Nebuchadnezzar the king was astounded and stood up in haste; he said to his high officials, “Was it not three men we cast bound into the midst of the fire?” They replied to the king, “Certainly, O king.” He said, “Look! I see four men loosed and walking about in the midst of the fire without harm, and the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods!”

The idea that a preincarnate Jesus was this Angel of the LORD is a popular one. We know that this Angel of the LORD is never mentioned while Jesus is walking the earth which supports this idea. But it could also be a coincidence. One connection that can be made with Jesus being this messenger is found in Judges 13:18.

Manoah said to the angel of the LORD, “What is your name, so that when your words come to pass, we may honor you?” But the angel of the LORD said to him, “Why do you ask my name, seeing it is wonderful?”

Now read what Isaiah prophesied in Isaiah 9:6 .

For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

Clearly, Isaiah was speaking of Jesus Christ and note that he was called Wonderful Counselor. Is there a connection here? Perhaps. What we do know is the word ‘angel’ is the same word messenger in the Old Testament, and while it is held that Jesus is not an angel in kind, we know he certainly was a messenger of YHWH and would be fair to say even ‘The Messenger of YHWH’.

So the idea that he may be this angel is not that far fetched. Some vehemently oppose this idea, but they are not aware that both Jesus and John are called angels in the messenger sense.

More to come here……

More proof that Jesus pre-existed

Rev 3:14
And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God.

Moving on we read the following in Philippians 2:5-11
5 Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus:
6 Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,
7 but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.
8 And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to death even death on a cross!
9 Therefore God exalted him to the highest place and gave him the name that is above every name,
10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

Surely the above verses assumes preexistence.  Look at verse 7: ‘but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness’. This verse points out that Jesus humbled himself to become a (or like a) human and also a servant. So this suggests to us that he preexisted in a higher state because to humble oneself is to become lower. If he started life in this humbled state, then it would be incorrect to say that he humbled himself. Further, he “found himself in appearance as a man” is a weird statement to make if he first existed as a human baby.

This verse is often used in support of the trinity doctrine because of the word ‘equal’. But if you are equal to something it means that you are not that thing, rather you are like that thing. This scripture is also very clear about the following: The Father is God and Jesus is Lord and that God exalted Jesus to the highest place.

A closer look at verse 9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: Now I am not sure if Jesus was exalted higher than he was before he came to this world or whether he was exalted to the exact position that he had before. But if we look at John 17:5 again we can see that Jesus asked to return to his former glory.

John 17:5
And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began.

The above verse is clear about Christ’s pre-existence in glory before the world began. Just to prove this is not an isolated scripture here is a similar verse:

John 16:28
I came from the Father and entered the world; now I am leaving the world and going back to the Father.”

The next verse also confirms that Jesus pre-existed in Heaven.

John 3:12-15
12 I have spoken to you of earthly things and you do not believe; how then will you believe if I speak of heavenly things?
13 No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven, the Son of Man.
14 Just as Moses lifted up the snake in the desert, so the Son of Man must be lifted up,
15 that everyone who believes in him may have eternal life.

Ezekiel 8:1-3
1 In the sixth year, in the sixth month on the fifth day, while I was sitting in my house and the elders of Judah were sitting before me, the hand of the Sovereign LORD came upon me there.
2 I looked, and I saw a figure like that of a man. From what appeared to be his waist down he was like fire, and from there up his appearance was as bright as glowing metal.
3 He stretched out what looked like a hand and took me by the hair of my head. The Spirit lifted me up between earth and heaven and in visions of God he took me to Jerusalem, to the entrance to the north gate of the inner court, where the idol that provokes to jealousy stood.

This verse is interesting in the sense that the description is very similar to the description of Jesus Christ in Revelation 1:12-18,

12 I turned around to see the voice that was speaking to me. And when I turned I saw seven golden lampstands,
13 and among the lampstands was someone “like a son of man,” dressed in a robe reaching down to his feet and with a golden sash around his chest.
14 His head and hair were white like wool, as white as snow, and his eyes were like blazing fire.
15 His feet were like bronze glowing in a furnace, and his voice was like the sound of rushing waters.
16 In his right hand he held seven stars, and out of his mouth came a sharp double-edged sword. His face was like the sun shining in all its brilliance.
17 When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. Then he placed his right hand on me and said: “Do not be afraid. I am the First and the Last.
18 I am the Living One; I was dead, and behold I am alive for ever and ever! And I hold the keys of death and Hades.

Have a look at the next verse. 1 Corinthians 11:3 (English-NIV)
Now I want you to realize that the head of every man is Christ, and the head of the woman is man, and the head of Christ is God.

Now the word head in the Greek is ‘kephale’ which can mean head, source or master. Now if we notice the order in a time sense, we have to admit that God is the first as he is the only one who has existed for all eternity with no beginning. We also know from scripture that the man came first and the woman came from the man. So that part is correct if we use a timeline. That just leaves Christ. Did he come between God and Man. I think so, as I believe that all things came from him and this opinion does fit perfectly into this model in a time sense at least. Anyway the word Christ here is ‘Christos’ which means “anointed”. So the anointed is the head of Man.
God > Christ > Man > Woman

If God created all things for his Son and his Son was the channel for that creation to come into being, then we can only assume that Christ existed at this point. As Genesis says: Let us make Man in our image. God was talking to Christ at this point and we know that Christ is the image of God and we are the image of Christ. Therefore the image of the image of God (man) is still the image of God. But Christ is the original and first image and we can only assume again that that image existed before the image of the image. A bit like a mirror that reflects a mirror, the original mirror has to exist in order to reflect the second mirror.

So we know that Christ preexisted before creation and now we will look at some more scriptures that show that he was born before creation itself?

Colossians 1:15-16
15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.
16 For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him.

The above verse is quite clear that ALL things were created by or through Jesus.

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So again, there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus/The Word being there. Only the Father and Son were not made. God has always existed and the Son was born from God before the creation of the universe, before anything was made. The next verse describes clearly who/what was the first of God’s works.

Proverbs 8:22-30
22 “The LORD brought me forth as the first of his works, {[22] Or ; or } {[22] Or ; or } before his deeds of old;
23 I was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
24 When there were no oceans, I was given birth, when there were no springs abounding with water;
25 before the mountains were settled in place, before the hills, I was given birth,
26 before he made the earth or its fields or any of the dust of the world.
27 I was there when he set the heavens in place, when he marked out the horizon on the face of the deep,
28 when he established the clouds above and fixed securely the fountains of the deep,
29 when he gave the sea its boundary so the waters would not overstep his command, and when he marked out the foundations of the earth.
30 Then I was the craftsman at his side. I was filled with delight day after day, rejoicing always in his presence,

This verse is talking about Wisdom, whom many believe is Christ. This scriptures compliments other scriptures that that teach that Jesus was given birth by God and then created all THINGS though him.

So from this verse we can see the following points.

Wisdom was brought forth as the first of Gods works.
Wisdom was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
Wisdom was given birth before creation.
Wisdom was the craftsman at his side and rejoiced in his presence before creation.
Some say that Wisdom isn’t Christ, rather this is just wisdom in a conceptual sense and it is true that wisdom is being spoken of in that way. But from verse 22 onward it changes tempo. With terms like I was given birth, I was the craftsman at his side and I was filled with delight, we have to admit that it seems to be talking about a person. Now have a look at the following verses:

1 Corinthians 1:24 (English-NIV)
but to those whom God has called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God.

1 Corinthians 1:30 (English-NIV)
It is because of him that you are in Christ Jesus, who has become for us wisdom from God–that is, our righteousness, holiness and redemption.

Let’s look at some other concepts that Jesus personifies:

Jesus is the Truth. Yet truth is also a concept.
Jesus is the Way. Yet the way is also a concept.
Jesus is the Life. Yet life can also be a concept.
Now look at the following mystery:

1 Corinthians 2:6-9
6 We do, however, speak a message of wisdom among the mature, but not the wisdom of this age or of the rulers of this age, who are coming to nothing.
7 No, we speak of God’s secret wisdom, a wisdom that has been hidden and that God destined for our glory before time began.
8 None of the rulers of this age understood it, for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.
9 However, as it is written:
“No eye has seen,
no ear has heard,
no mind has conceived
what God has prepared for those who love him”

Ephesians 3:8-10
8 Although I am less than the least of all God’s people, this grace was given me: to preach to the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ,
9 and to make plain to everyone the administration of this mystery, which for ages past was kept hidden in God, who created all things.
10 His intent was that now, through the church, the manifold wisdom of God should be made known to the rulers and authorities in the heavenly realms,

Perhaps another scripture alluding to Jesus being the Wisdom of God.

Finally I leave you with the following OT scripture that suggests that God had a Son before the birth Of Jesus Christ on earth.

Proverbs 30:4
Who has gone up to heaven and come down? Who has gathered up the wind in the hollow of his hands? Who has wrapped up the waters in his cloak? Who has established all the ends of the earth? What is his name, and the name of his son? Tell me if you know!


Discussion

Viewing 20 posts - 10,001 through 10,020 (of 19,165 total)
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  • #225846
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 21 2010,10:04)
    And Jesus was called THE begotten god in John 1:18.  That doesn't imply “nature” or “qualifyer” to me, but an “identity”.


    Mike look at the Greek.

    18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him .

    the only begotten Son part is the monogenes.

    The definite article precedes monogenes.

    Therefore it is identifying him as THE Only begotten son, not as THE Begotten God.

    The word for son is 'huios' and it is not using the word 'theos'.

    #225848
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Do you have any other verses that you think do not fit what I am saying?

    #225850
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (t8 @ Nov. 21 2010,10:59)
    The word for son is 'huios' and it is not using the word 'theos'.


    Hi t8,

    This info is from NETNotes:

    Joh 1:181tc The textual problem μονογενὴς θεός (monogenh” qeo”, “the only God”) versus ὁ μονογενὴς υἱός (Jo monogenh” Juio”, “the only son”) is a notoriously difficult one. Only one letter would have differentiated the readings in the mss, since both words would have been contracted as nomina sacra: thus qMs or uMs. Externally, there are several variants, but they can be grouped essentially by whether they read θεός or υἱός. The majority of mss, especially the later ones (A C3 Θ Ψ Ë1,13 Ï lat), read ὁ μονογενὴς υἱός. Ì75 א1 33 pc have ὁ μονογενὴς θεός, while the anarthrous μονογενὴς θεός is found in Ì66 א* B C* L pc. The articular θεός is almost certainly a scribal emendation to the anarthrous θεός, for θεός without the article is a much harder reading. The external evidence thus strongly supports μονογενὴς θεός. Internally, although υἱός fits the immediate context more readily, θεός is much more difficult. As well, θεός also explains the origin of the other reading (υἱός), because it is difficult to see why a scribe who found υἱός in the text he was copying would alter it to θεός. Scribes would naturally change the wording to υἱός however, since μονογενὴς υἱός is a uniquely Johannine christological title (cf. John 3:16, 18; 1 John 4:9). But θεός as the older and more difficult reading is preferred. As for translation, it makes the most sense to see the word θεός as in apposition to μονογενής, and the participle ὁ ὤν (Jo wn) as in apposition to θεός, giving in effect three descriptions of Jesus rather than only two. (B. D. Ehrman, The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture, 81, suggests that it is nearly impossible and completely unattested in the NT for an adjective followed immediately by a noun that agrees in gender, number, and case, to be a substantival adjective: “when is an adjective ever used substantivally when it immediately precedes a noun of the same inflection?” This, however, is an overstatement. First, as Ehrman admits, μονογενής in John 1:14 is substantival. And since it is an established usage for the adjective in this context, one might well expect that the author would continue to use the adjective substantivally four verses later. Indeed, μονογενής is already moving toward a crystallized substantival adjective in the NT [cf. Luke 9:38; Heb 11:17]; in patristic Greek, the process continued [cf. PGL 881 s.v. 7]. Second, there are several instances in the NT in which a substantival adjective is followed by a noun with which it has complete concord: cf., e.g., Rom 1:30; Gal 3:9; 1 Tim 1:9; 2 Pet 2:5.) The modern translations which best express this are the NEB (margin) and TEV. Several things should be noted: μονογενής alone, without υἱός, can mean “only son,” “unique son,” “unique one,” etc. (see 1:14). Furthermore, θεός is anarthrous. As such it carries qualitative force much like it does in 1:1c, where θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος (qeo” hn Jo logo”) means “the Word was fully God” or “the Word was fully of the essence of deity.” Finally, ὁ ὤν occurs in Rev 1:4, 8; 4:8, 11:17; and 16:5, but even more significantly in the LXX of Exod 3:14. Putting all of this together leads to the translation given in the text.

    http://net.bible.org/verse.php?book=Joh&chapter=1&verse=18#

    Have fun with all that mumbo-jumbo! :)

    mike

    #225851
    terraricca
    Participant

    T8

    can we bring a copy of all our scriptures that we have collected right here in the begining so we do not have to search for them in a other place

    pierre

    #225853
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (t8 @ Nov. 21 2010,11:00)
    Do you have any other verses that you think do not fit what I am saying?


    Hi t8,

    Here are just a few.

    John 8:44
    You belong to your father, the devil, and you want to carry out your father's desire. He was a murderer from the beginning, not holding to the truth, for there is no truth in him. When he lies, he speaks his native language, for he is a liar and the father of lies.

    Acts 28:6 NIV
    6The people expected him to swell up or suddenly fall dead, but after waiting a long time and seeing nothing unusual happen to him, they changed their minds and said he was a god.

    Acts 12:22
    They shouted, “This is the voice of a god, not of a man.”

    1 Corinthians 8:7
    But not everyone possesses this knowledge. Some people are still so accustomed to idols that when they eat sacrificial food they think of it as having been sacrificed to a god, and since their conscience is weak, it is defiled.

    1 Corinthians 14:33
    For God is not a God of disorder but of peace—as in all the congregations of the Lord’s people.

    While the Greeks did not use the indefinite article “a”, English translators add it in each and every time it is necessary for us to read the passage sensibly.  That is………every time but one – John 1:1.

    You seem to be picking and choosing here t8.  When in reference to an idol, then you say the word “a” should be added, but understood it refers to “A” false god.

    But when used of others besides idols, you want to leave the “A” out and call it “nature” or “a qualifyer”.  

    So was Herod speaking like “A” god, or did he have the nature of God Himself?  Did the people on Malta think Paul was “a god”, or that he had the nature of God Himself?

    And what about 1 Cor?  Does it mean God is not “A” God of disorder, or that God is not “the nature of God” of disorder?

    And which one makes more sense when Paul calls Satan the god of this age?  Is Paul calling Satan “A” god or mighty one, or is he saying he has the “nature of God”?

    The way I see it, the English translators are right to add the “A” in all of the above scriptures so they make sense to us.  It just makes me wonder why the NWT seems to be the only translation that is not afraid to stick with the formula and also add it in John 1:1.  Actually, it doesn't make me wonder at all – we both know that “the Word was God” makes a much more compelling case for the trinitarians.

    As far as our discussion goes, if you agree that the above scriptures should have the “A” added, then why would you just assume for some reason that it SHOULDN'T also be added in John 1?

    peace and love,
    mike

    #225854
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (terraricca @ Nov. 21 2010,11:26)
    T8

    can we bring a copy of all our scriptures that we have collected right here in the begining so we do not have to search for them in a other place

    pierre


    Hey Pierre,

    I'll add the last few in by order and post it here for us. I'm sure t8 won't mind.

    mike

    #225857
    terraricca
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 21 2010,18:38)

    Quote (terraricca @ Nov. 21 2010,11:26)
    T8

    can we bring a copy of all our scriptures that we have collected right here in the begining so we do not have to search for them in a other place

    pierre


    Hey Pierre,

    I'll add the last few in by order and post it here for us.  I'm sure t8 won't mind.

    mike


    mike

    thanks brother

    pierre

    #225859
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    These scriptures that teach the pre-existence of Jesus have been compiled by Irene (Baker), Pierre (Terrarica), Wm (Seeking Truth), Mike (mikeboll64) and t8.

    There are currently 48 scriptures or passages listed.

    Proverbs 8:22-31 NIV
    22 “The LORD brought me forth as the first of his works,
    before his deeds of old;
    23 I was formed long ages ago,
    at the very beginning, when the world came to be.
    24 When there were no watery depths, I was given birth,
    when there were no springs overflowing with water;
    25 before the mountains were settled in place,
    before the hills, I was given birth,
    26 before he made the world or its fields
    or any of the dust of the earth.
    27 I was there when he set the heavens in place,
    when he marked out the horizon on the face of the deep,
    28 when he established the clouds above
    and fixed securely the fountains of the deep,
    29 when he gave the sea its boundary
    so the waters would not overstep his command,
    and when he marked out the foundations of the earth.
    30 Then I was constantly at his side.
    I was filled with delight day after day,
    rejoicing always in his presence,
    31 rejoicing in his whole world
    and delighting in mankind.

    Proverbs 30:4 NIV
    4 Who has gone up to heaven and come down?
    Whose hands have gathered up the wind?
    Who has wrapped up the waters in a cloak?
    Who has established all the ends of the earth?
    What is his name, and what is the name of his son?
    Surely you know!

    Micah 5:2 NIV
    2 “But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah,
    though you are small among the clans of Judah,
    out of you will come for me
    one who will be ruler over Israel,
    whose origins are from of old,
    from ancient times.”

    Isaiah 11:1 NIV
    A shoot will come up from the stump of Jesse; from his roots a Branch will bear fruit.

    Isaiah 11:10 NIV
    In that day the Root of Jesse will stand as a banner for the peoples; the nations will rally to him, and his place of rest will be glorious.

    Matthew 22:41-46 NIV
    41While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them, 42″What do you think about the Christ? Whose son is he?”
    “The son of David,” they replied.
    43He said to them, “How is it then that David, speaking by the Spirit, calls him 'Lord'? For he says,
    44″ 'The Lord said to my Lord:
    “Sit at my right hand
    until I put your enemies
    under your feet.” ' 45If then David calls him 'Lord,' how can he be his son?” 46No one could say a word in reply, and from that day on no one dared to ask him any more questions.

    John 1:1-3 NWT
    In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god. 2 This one was in [the] beginning with God. 3 All things came into existence through him, and apart from him not even one thing came into existence.

    John 1:9-12 NIV
    9 The true light that gives light to everyone was coming into the world. 10 He was in the world, and though the world was made through him, the world did not recognize him. 11 He came to that which was his own, but his own did not receive him. 12 Yet to all who did receive him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God—

    John 1:14 NIV
    14The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the only begotten, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

    John 1:15 NWT
    15 (John bore witness about him, yes, he actually cried out—this was the one who said [it]—saying: “The one coming behind me has advanced in front of me, because he existed before me.”)

    John 3:13 NIV
    13No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven—the Son of Man.

    John 3:16-19 NIV
    16 For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. 17 For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him. 18 Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe stands condemned already because they have not believed in the name of God’s one and only Son. 19 This is the verdict: Light has come into the world, but people loved darkness instead of light because their deeds were evil.

    John 5:19-20 NIV
    19 Jesus gave them this answer: “Very truly I tell you, the Son can do nothing by himself; he can do only what he sees his Father doing, because whatever the Father does the Son also does. 20 For the Father loves the Son and shows him all he does. Yes, and he will show him even greater works than these, so that you will be amazed.

    John 6:32-33 NIV
    32 Jesus said to them, “Very truly I tell you, it is not Moses who has given you the bread from heaven, but it is my Father who gives you the true bread from heaven. 33 For the bread of God is the bread that comes down from heaven and gives life to the world.”

    John 6:35 NIV
    35 Then Jesus declared, “I am the bread of life. Whoever comes to me will never go hungry, and whoever believes in me will never be thirsty.

    John 6:38 NIV
    38 For I have come down from heaven not to do my will but to do the will of him who sent me.

    John 6:41-42 NIV
    41 At this the Jews there began to grumble about him because he said, “I am the bread that came down from heaven.” 42 They said, “Is this not Jesus, the son of Joseph, whose father and mother we know? How can he now say, ‘I came down from heaven’?”

    John 6:46 NIV
    No one has seen the Father except the one who is from God; only he has seen the Father.

    John 6:48-51 NIV
    48 I am the bread of life. 49 Your ancestors ate the manna in the wilderness, yet they died. 50 But here is the bread that comes down from heaven, which anyone may eat and not die. 51 I am the living bread that came down from heaven. Whoever eats this bread will live forever. This bread is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world.”

    John 6:62 NIV
    62What if you see the Son of Man ascend to where he was before!

    John 8:12 NIV
    When Jesus spoke again to the people, he said, “I am the light of the world. Whoever follows me will never walk in darkness, but will have the light of life.”

    John 8:23 NIV
    23 But he continued, “You are from below; I am from above. You are of this world; I am not of this world.

    John 8:38 NIV
    38 I am telling you what I have seen in the Father’s presence, and you are doing what you have heard from your father.”

    John 8:42 NET
    Jesus replied, “If God were your Father, you would love me, for I have come from God and am now here. I have not come on my own initiative, but he sent me.”

    John 8:58 NWT
    58 Jesus said to them: “Most truly I say to YOU, Before Abraham came into existence, I have been.”

    John 9:5 NIV
    While I am in the world, I am the light of the world.”

    John 16:28 NIV
    “I came from the Father and entered the world; now I am leaving the world and going back to the Father.”

    John 17:5 NRSV
    So now, Father, glorify me in your own presence with the glory that I had in your presence before the world existed.

    Romans 1:3 NIV
    regarding his Son, who as to his human nature was a descendant of David,

    Romans 8:3 NIV
    For what the law was powerless to do in that it was weakened by the sinful nature, God did by sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful man to be a sin offering.

    Romans 9:5 NASB
    whose are the fathers, and from whom is the Christ accord
    ing to the flesh, who is over all, God blessed forever. Amen.

    1 Corinthians 8:6 NIV
    6yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we live; and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we live.

    1 Corinthians 10:3-4 NIV
    3They all ate the same spiritual food 4and drank the same spiritual drink; for they drank from the spiritual rock that accompanied them, and that rock was Christ.

    1 Corinthians 11:3 NIV
    3 But I want you to realize that the head of every man is Christ, and the head of the woman is man,[a] and the head of Christ is God.

    1 Corinthians 15:47 NIV
    47The first man was of the dust of the earth, the second man from heaven.

    Galatians 4:4-5 NIV
    4But when the time had fully come, God sent his Son, born of a woman, born under law, 5to redeem those under law, that we might receive the full rights of sons.

    Philippians 2:6-8 NIV
    6Who, being in the form of God,
    did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,
    7but made himself nothing,
    taking the form of a servant,
    being made in human likeness.
    8And being found in appearance as a man,
    he humbled himself
    and became obedient to death—
    even death on a cross!

    Colossians 1:15-17 NIV
    15 The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. 16 For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him. 17 He is before all things, and in him all things hold together.

    1 Timothy 3:16 NWT
    16 Indeed, the sacred secret of this godly devotion is admittedly great: ‘He was made manifest in flesh, was declared righteous in spirit, appeared to angels, was preached about among nations, was believed upon in [the] world, was received up in glory.’

    Hebrews 1:1-2 NIV
    1In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways, 2but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe.

    Hebrews 1:10 NIV
    10He also says,
    “In the beginning, O Lord, you laid the foundations of the earth,
    and the heavens are the work of your hands.

    Hebrews 2:14 NIV
    Since the children have flesh and blood, he too shared in their humanity so that by his death he might break the power of him who holds the power of death—that is, the devil—

    Hebrews 10:5 NIV
    5 Therefore, when Christ came into the world, he said:

    “Sacrifice and offering you did not desire,
    but a body you prepared for me;

    1 John 1:1 NIV
    That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked at and our hands have touched—this we proclaim concerning the Word of life.

    1 John 2:12-13 NIV
    12I write to you, dear children,
    because your sins have been forgiven on account of his name.
    13I write to you, fathers,
    because you have known him who is from the beginning.

    Jude 1:25 NIV
    25 to the only God our Savior be glory, majesty, power and authority, through Jesus Christ our Lord, before all ages, now and forevermore! Amen.

    Revelation 3:14 NWT
    14 “And to the angel of the congregation in La‧o‧di‧ce′a write: These are the things that the Amen says, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation by God,

    Revelation 22:16 NIV
    “I, Jesus, have sent my angel to give you this testimony for the churches. I am the Root and the Offspring of David, and the bright Morning Star.”

    #225866
    kerwin
    Participant

    Just Askin,

    You wrote:

    Quote

    Kerwin,

    Maybe it's just a slip but 'Jesus is evil'

    No, Kerwin. Jesus, as man, had the POTENTIAL to do Evil, to BE Sinful…but he resisted.

    I stated it correctly but meant it differently than you understood it.  We are actually stating the same thing as I was Jesus’ nature as in his human nature is evil because it is like the nature of all human beings as it is without God.   On the other hand he also had the righteous or good nature of God that is the result of living by the Spirit.  He was obviously not referring to the Spirit as it is part of God and not man.

    #225868
    kerwin
    Participant

    Mike Boll,

    You wrote:

    Quote

    Kerwin says if his mother made him a gift before he was born, then he could speak about the gift “HE HAD” before he was born.  I could see him saying, “Where is the gift you made for me BEFORE I was born?”, but I doubt anyone in that situation would say “the gift I HAD before I was born”.  A person is not an “I” until they exist as a person, so therefore a person cannot possibly “HAVE” a possession until they exist as a person.

    Do you not see the illogical and far reaching things people must come up with just to make a clearly spoken sentence by Jesus not mean what it very clearly says?  Why the mystery and the secret hidden meanings?  Why can't it just clearly mean what it clearly says?

    It is not illogical to use words different than Mike Boll has been taught is appropriate.  Culture influences the way we choose to word our sentences and non-English speakers will use the sentence structure that they have learned sometimes even when speaking English.  Those speaking common Greek are non-English speakers.  I am not even sure I structure my words as have been taught is proper.

    Jesus tells you why he chooses to use mystery and secret meanings.  Do you remember where he does?

    #225875
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 21 2010,11:35)

    Quote (t8 @ Nov. 21 2010,11:00)
    Do you have any other verses that you think do not fit what I am saying?


    Hi t8,

    Here are just a few.

    John 8:44
    You belong to your father, the devil, and you want to carry out your father's desire. He was a murderer from the beginning, not holding to the truth, for there is no truth in him. When he lies, he speaks his native language, for he is a liar and the father of lies.

    Acts 28:6 NIV
    6The people expected him to swell up or suddenly fall dead, but after waiting a long time and seeing nothing unusual happen to him, they changed their minds and said he was a god.

    Acts 12:22
    They shouted, “This is the voice of a god, not of a man.”

    1 Corinthians 8:7
    But not everyone possesses this knowledge. Some people are still so accustomed to idols that when they eat sacrificial food they think of it as having been sacrificed to a god, and since their conscience is weak, it is defiled.

    1 Corinthians 14:33
    For God is not a God of disorder but of peace—as in all the congregations of the Lord’s people.

    While the Greeks did not use the indefinite article “a”, English translators add it in each and every time it is necessary for us to read the passage sensibly.  That is………every time but one – John 1:1.

    You seem to be picking and choosing here t8.  When in reference to an idol, then you say the word “a” should be added, but understood it refers to “A” false god.

    But when used of others besides idols, you want to leave the “A” out and call it “nature” or “a qualifyer”.  

    So was Herod speaking like “A” god, or did he have the nature of God Himself?  Did the people on Malta think Paul was “a god”, or that he had the nature of God Himself?

    And what about 1 Cor?  Does it mean God is not “A” God of disorder, or that God is not “the nature of God” of disorder?

    And which one makes more sense when Paul calls Satan the god of this age?  Is Paul calling Satan “A” god or mighty one, or is he saying he has the “nature of God”?

    The way I see it, the English translators are right to add the “A” in all of the above scriptures so they make sense to us.  It just makes me wonder why the NWT seems to be the only translation that is not afraid to stick with the formula and also add it in John 1:1.  Actually, it doesn't make me wonder at all – we both know that “the Word was God” makes a much more compelling case for the trinitarians.

    As far as our discussion goes, if you agree that the above scriptures should have the “A” added, then why would you just assume for some reason that it SHOULDN'T also be added in John 1?

    peace and love,
    mike


    Mike.

    In English where there 'a' is mentioned it is not in the Greek. However, it can be interpreted in as 'a' in our understanding too.

    So it is up to the context whether 'a' is added or not.

    e.g., if you say in Greek 'river' without the definite article 'the', then you are talking about rivers in general, or the qualities that make it a river. So you can say “it is like a river', or 'it flows like a river', or next to a 'river'. Notice that you are not identifying the river. If you say “the river”, the question that arises is what river or the name of the river.

    John 8:44 for example says 'THE Devil' (identifier) and 'a murderer' (qualifier/nature/characteristic). Saying a murder is not identifying the murderer. That has already been done where is says THE Devil.

    In Acts 28:6 it says a god. It is not identifying the God but is qualifying him. It's like saying “he is like a professional”. You are not saying “what or which professional” but using it as a qualifier.

    Acts 12:22 is not identifying the God it is really saying is like a god or has the voice like a god and not a man. No identifying going on here either.

    1 Corinthians 8:7 is not identifying the God but is talking of a god.

    Yes sometimes gods are identified. Such as THE God of this age or the name of a particular false God. But where you just see THE God with no context to say otherwise, it is the true God.
    e.g., the Word was with THE God is talking of the true God. The God of this age is talking of the true God of this age which is the Devil.

    I have yet to see a verse that says “THE God” in reference to Jesus or anyone else that has a ministry from God. Rather it is theos used without the definite article and thereby is talking about the ministry, quality, nature, or characteristic of divine nature or divine agenda.

    #225877
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    “Irenaeus [in the second century] could still interpret MK. Xiii, 32 in the following manner: the Son confessed not to know that which only the Father knew; hence ' we learn from himself that the Father is over all', as he who is greater also than the Son. But the Nicene theologians had now suddenly to deny that Jesus could have said such a thing about the Son. In the long-recognized scriptural testimony for the Logos-doctrine provided by Prov. Viii, 22 ff. The exegetes of the second and third centuries had found the creation of the preexistent Logos-Christ set forth without dispute and equivocation. But now, when the Arians also interpreted the passage in this way, the interpretation was suddenly reckoned as false…. A theologian such as Tertullian by virtue of his Subordinationist manner of thinking, could confidently on occasion maintain that, before all creation, God the Father had been originally 'alone', and thus there was a time when 'the Son was not'. When he did so, within the Church of his day such a statement did not inevitably provoke a controversy, and indeed there was none about it. But now, when Arius said the same thing in almost the same words, he raised thereby in the Church a mighty uproar, and such a view was condemned as heresy in the anathemas of Nicaea.” e.a.]
    -pp. 155-8. The Formation of Christian Dogma, by Martin Werner, D.D.

    When the writers of the New Testament speak of God they mean the God and Father of Our Lord Jesus Christ. When they speak of Jesus Christ, they do not speak of him, nor think of him as God. He is God's Christ, God's Son, God's Wisdom, God's Word. Even the prologue to St. John {John 1:1-18} which comes nearest to the Nicene Doctrine, must be read in the light of the pronounced subordinationism of the Gospel as a whole; and the Prologue is less explicit in Greek with the anarthrous theos [the word “god” at John 1:1c without the article] than it appears in English… The adoring exclamation of St. Thomas “my Lord and my god” (Joh. xx. 28) is still not quite the same as an address to Christ as being without qualification [limitation] God, and it must be balanced by the words of the risen Christ himself to Mary Magdalene (verse. 17) “Go unto my brethren and say to them, I ascend unto my Father and your Father, and my God and your God.” Jesus Christ is frequently spoken of in the Ignation Epistles as “our God”, “my God”, but probably never as “God” without qualification.
    – John Martin Creed in The Divinity of Jesus Christ.

    The word for “god” in Greek is QEOS. In John 1:1 the last occurrence of QEOS is called “a predicate noun” or, “a predicate nominative”. Such a noun tells us something about the subject, instead of telling what the subject is doing. This use of QEOS has reference to the subject, the Word, and does not have the article preceding it; it is anarthrous. This indicates that it is not definite. That is to say, it does not tell what position or office or rank the subject (the Word) occupies. The verb HN “was” follows the predicate noun QEOS; this is another factor in identifying QEOS here as qualitative. This discloses the quality or character of the Word. Of course, the gentleman up above disagrees with me, and he has used Moulton and Colwell to buttress his argument. But what have other Grammarians said about this same type of construction? There is no basis for regarding the predicate theos as definite. In John 1:1 I think that the qualitative force of the predicate [noun] is so prominent that the noun cannot be regarded as definite.
    -Philip Harner, Journal of Biblical Literature, Vol. 92:1, 1973, pp. 85, 7.

    We must, then take Theos, without the article, in the indefinite [“qualitative” would have been a better word choice] sense of a divine nature or a divine being, as distinguished from the definite absolute God [the Father], ho Theos, the authotheos [selfgod] of Origen. Thus the Theos of John [1:1c] answers to “the image of God'' of Paul, Col. 1:15.
    -G. Lucke, “Dissertation on the Logos”, quoted by John Wilson in, Unitarian Principles Confirmed by Trinitarian Testimonies, p. 428.

    #225891
    kerwin
    Participant

    Pierre,

    You ask where scripture states the divine righteousness of God is part of his nature?

    As to the word “nature” the definition is “A spontaneous attitude”.

    As to the word “divine” the definition is “of, relating to, or proceeding directly from God or a god”.

    I thus point out that the words divine nature as defined above can mean righteous attitude of God.

    As to scripture Christians are explicitly commanded to wear the divine righteous nature of God in Ephesians 4:24 and Galatians 5:16 makes it clear the command is also stated as walk by the Spirit.

    You state that Jesus having an evil nature is not scripture and yet you claim to believe he was tempted as we are.  You should consider what James states about temptation and then remove the contradiction from your doctrine.

    James 1:14(NIV) reads:

    Quote

    but each person is tempted when they are dragged away by their own evil desire and enticed.

    It follows that Jesus knew what he was speaking of when he stated “no one but God is good”.

    #225919
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (t8 @ Nov. 21 2010,14:27)
    John 8:44 for example says 'THE Devil' (identifier) and 'a murderer' (qualifier/nature/characteristic). Saying a murder is not identifying the murderer. That has already been done where is says THE Devil.


    Hi t8,

    Yet it doesn't say in English, “THE Devil was murderer” does it?  No, because for us to readily understand it in English, the indefinite must be added before “murderer”.

    And this is what I'm saying.  If they want to NOT add the indefinite in John 1:1, then they should follow suit throughout the Bible.  But if they add the indefinite EVERY OTHER time it is needed for English clarity, then why not also in John 1:1?

    Just like we wouldn't in English say, “THE Devil is murderer”, we also wouldn't say, “THE Word is god”.  Because both of them give the connotation that the qualifyer is a specific thing or person with that title.  We should know that the Devil was A murderer, not THE Murderer, so we add the “A”.  Likewise, we should know that the Word was A god, not THE God, so we should add the “A”.

    How about “peter”?  It means “rock”.  In Greek, they might have said, “Pick up and throw rock”.  But we know the speaker meant “A rock”, not “Peter”.

    We can go round and round about this, but the bottom line is this:  If they add the “A” for English clarity in EVERY OTHER instance, they should also add it in John 1:1, like the NWT does.

    t8, do you have a problem with Jesus being “a god”?  Because he most definitely is, as Isaiah 9:6 attests to.  “Mighty god” there is not a qualifyer, but an identifying title by which Jesus will be called.  Just like Wonderful Counselor and Everlasting Father and Prince of Peace, right?  These are all identifying titles, not qualifyers.

    peace and love,
    mike

    #225920
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (kerwin @ Nov. 21 2010,13:27)
    It is not illogical to use words different than Mike Boll has been taught is appropriate.


    That's a cheap shot Kerwin. Okay, so you think it is logical to say you HAD things before you even existed. How about the “in your presence” part?

    Do you also consider it logical for someone who doesn't yet exist to be “in the presence” of someone else?

    mike

    #225922
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (t8 @ Nov. 21 2010,14:32)
    The word for “god” in Greek is QEOS. In John 1:1 the last occurrence of QEOS is called “a predicate noun” or, “a predicate nominative”. Such a noun tells us something about the subject, instead of telling what the subject is doing. This use of QEOS has reference to the subject, the Word, and does not have the article preceding it; it is anarthrous. This indicates that it is not definite. That is to say, it does not tell what position or office or rank the subject (the Word) occupies. The verb HN “was” follows the predicate noun QEOS; this is another factor in identifying QEOS here as qualitative. This discloses the quality or character of the Word. Of course, the gentleman up above disagrees with me, and he has used Moulton and Colwell to buttress his argument. But what have other Grammarians said about this same type of construction? There is no basis for regarding the predicate theos as definite. In John 1:1 I think that the qualitative force of the predicate [noun] is so prominent that the noun cannot be regarded as definite.


    Hi t8,

    Every bit of this info could also be applied to “murderer” in John 8:44. Yet every English translation adds the “A” to make the reading clear to us. So why not in John 1:1?

    mike

    #225923
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    Mike………..It does not say in Jesus' presents does or that he was even there , it say in GOD presents Jesus had this glory . Jesus existed (IN) the BOSOM or (Heart) of the Father he was not really there as a Living being until he was born on earth and dies and resurrected to the Glory that GOD had in the First reserved for HIM as the First man to achieve what God had planned for all man kind all along. You force the text to a conclusion it does not say (specifically), If it was so clear there would be no argument about it , you ought to at least understand that. IMO

    peace and love………………………………gene

    #225928
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Gene Balthrop @ Nov. 22 2010,03:36)
    Mike………..It does not say in Jesus' presents does or that he was even there , it say in GOD presents Jesus had this glory .


    Hi Gene,

    Let's see what it really DOES say:

    John 17:5 NRSV
    So now, Father, glorify me in your own presence with the glory that I had in your presence before the world existed.

    It says the word “I”.  What does “I” mean Gene?  

    Then it says this “I” “HAD” glory.  Can someone who doesn't yet exist be an “I”?  Can someone who doesn't yet exist “HAVE” glory?  

    It says that this “I” “HAD” “GLORY”.  Can someone who doesn't even exist “HAVE GLORY”?  For what?  If he didn't exist, then he hadn't done anything yet to receive glory, nor does he have any use for it.  

    It says this “I” “HAD” “GLORY” “IN YOUR PRESENCE”.  Can someone who doesn't yet exist be said to be “IN THE PRESENCE” of another?

    These are the simple words used in the scripture Gene.  And we all have the choice to take these words to mean a person was saying he had glory in the presence of God before the world was created.  

    OR………we can illogically twist their meaning to say a person's non-existent thought of himself somehow had glory.

    Gene, aren't you the one who argues tirelessly about a person's words being that person?  Well, if a person's words are themselves, then surely a person's THOUGHTS are themselves, right?  So if Jesus was just “a thought in God's head” at this time, then he was really God Himself, right?  And how can God Himself have glory in His OWN presence?  ???

    mike

    #225933
    terraricca
    Participant

    Quote (kerwin @ Nov. 22 2010,02:14)
    Pierre,

    You ask where scripture states the divine righteousness of God is part of his nature?

    As to the word “nature” the definition is “A spontaneous attitude”.

    As to the word “divine” the definition is “of, relating to, or proceeding directly from God or a god”.

    I thus point out that the words divine nature as defined above can mean righteous attitude of God.

    As to scripture Christians are explicitly commanded to wear the divine righteous nature of God in Ephesians 4:24 and Galatians 5:16 makes it clear the command is also stated as walk by the Spirit.

    You state that Jesus having an evil nature is not scripture and yet you claim to believe he was tempted as we are.  You should consider what James states about temptation and then remove the contradiction from your doctrine.

    James 1:14(NIV) reads:

    Quote

    but each person is tempted when they are dragged away by their own evil desire and enticed.

    It follows that Jesus knew what he was speaking of when he stated “no one but God is good”.


    Kerwin

    i still stand to what i have said;

    Dt 6:18 Do what is right and good in the LORD'S sight, so that it may go well with you and you may go in and take over the good land that the LORD promised on oath to your forefathers,

    Dt 12:28 Be careful to obey all these regulations I am giving you, so that it may always go well with you and your children after you, because you will be doing what is good and right in the eyes of the LORD your God.

    Jos 23:14 “Now I am about to go the way of all the earth. You know with all your heart and soul that not one of all the good promises the LORD your God gave you has failed. Every promise has been fulfilled; not one has failed.
    Jos 23:15 But just as every good promise of the LORD your God has come true, so the LORD will bring on you all the evil he has threatened, until he has destroyed you from this good land he has given you.

    yes scriptures says that men can and do good and be good if it is done in God way.

    so again your interpretation is not understanding of God s scriptures but Kerwin tradition of men

    even now i doubt that you understand what it means.

    Pierre

    #225966
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 22 2010,04:32)

    Quote (Gene Balthrop @ Nov. 22 2010,03:36)
    Mike………..It does not say in Jesus' presents does or that he was even there , it say in GOD presents Jesus had this glory .


    Hi Gene,

    Let's see what it really DOES say:

    John 17:5 NRSV
    So now, Father, glorify me in your own presence with the glory that I had in your presence before the world existed.

    It says the word “I”.  What does “I” mean Gene?  

    Then it says this “I” “HAD” glory.  Can someone who doesn't yet exist be an “I”?  Can someone who doesn't yet exist “HAVE” glory?  

    It says that this “I” “HAD” “GLORY”.  Can someone who doesn't even exist “HAVE GLORY”?  For what?  If he didn't exist, then he hadn't done anything yet to receive glory, nor does he have any use for it.  

    It says this “I” “HAD” “GLORY” “IN YOUR PRESENCE”.  Can someone who doesn't yet exist be said to be “IN THE PRESENCE” of another?

    These are the simple words used in the scripture Gene.  And we all have the choice to take these words to mean a person was saying he had glory in the presence of God before the world was created.  

    OR………we can illogically twist their meaning to say a person's non-existent thought of himself somehow had glory.

    Gene, aren't you the one who argues tirelessly about a person's words being that person?  Well, if a person's words are themselves, then surely a person's THOUGHTS are themselves, right?  So if Jesus was just “a thought in God's head” at this time, then he was really God Himself, right?  And how can God Himself have glory in His OWN presence?  ???

    mike


    Mike ……..why don't you read some commentary on that verse, No where doe it say Jesus was Present there at any time , He simply said the Glory was Present with GOD , Before he even existed, Jesus was talking to God about that Glory given Him in the beginning and it (the Glory) was present in the plan and will of God. He had that Glory before he ever existed God brought Him forth at the right time and brought him to that Glory after his resurrection from the dead, he never had that Glory until he achieved it. IMO

    peace and love…………………………….gene

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