Did Jesus pre-exist before his birth on Earth?

Where did Jesus come from?

John 6:38-40
For I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will, but the will of him who sent me; and this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise it up at the last day. For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who sees the Son and believes in him should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.

The first verse suggests that Jesus came down from Heaven. This seems to contradict that belief which suggests he first existed as a man when he was born into this world. For if Jesus came into existence for the first time when he was conceived through Mary, how could he come down from Heaven? We (Man) came into existence when we are born into this world, but would it be correct to say that we came down from Heaven too? If a verse said that we came down from Heaven, would you think that we pre-existed in Heaven? If so, then why not Jesus?

John 3:17 is another verse that provides support that Jesus came down from Heaven or was sent rather than created.

For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.

The word ‘send’ is the Greek word ‘apostello’.

apostello {ap-os-tel’-lo}
1) to order (one) to go to a place appointed
2) to send away, dismiss
2a) to allow one to depart, that he may be in a state of liberty
2b) to order one to depart, send off
2c) to drive away

To be sent surely implies existence otherwise you would just say born or created. In fact this word (sent) is similar in meaning and sound to the word Apostle (apostolos), which means “one sent forth with orders”. To be sent forth with order, you must exist.

John 6:62
What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?

Jesus is clearly stating here that he came from above since he eventually ascended into Heaven to be at the right-hand of God.

How old is Jesus?

John 1:15
15 John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.‘ “

John the Baptist was six months older than Jesus Christ. So it is physically impossible for Christ to be before him in age. If this verse is referencing age, then it shows preexistence. Jesus existed before  John the Baptist in the least.

John 8:58
“I tell you the truth,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!

Jesus claimed to exist before Abraham, the father of the Jews. The words ‘I am’ mean ‘I exist’. So Jesus claimed existence before Abraham. We can see that Jesus is getting older as we explore the scriptures. But how old?

Jude 1:25
to the only God our Savior be glory, majesty, power and authority, through Jesus Christ our Lord, before all ages, now and forevermore! Amen.

Here we can see that majesty, power, and authority through Jesus Christ is before all ages (all worlds) and forever more into the future. This strongly implies that Jesus existed even before all things. But can we substantiate this?

Did Jesus exist before all creation?

Colossians 1:17
He is before all things, and in him all things hold together.

Colossians answers the question outright. It states that “He is before all things“.  But are there other verses that support this idea?

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus being there. This verse alone answers the question because the universe, angels, and men were made and Jesus was present when they were created according to these verses. In case that is not enough to convince you, I also add another clear verse that says the same thing.

Hebrews 1:1-2
1 In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways,
2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe.

Is Jesus the Word of God?

But some say that this is talking about the Word and not all believe that Jesus is the Word of God. They argue that Jesus came from the Word, but is not the Word itself that was with God in John 1:1. If you believe this, then please explain the next two verses within their wider context:

Revelation 19:13
He is dressed in a robe dipped in blood, and his name is the Word of God.

Colossians 1:15-18
The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him. He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. And he is the head of the body, the church; he is the beginning and the firstborn from among the dead, so that in everything he might have the supremacy.

Okay, if you are honest, this is a closed case. God created all things through the Word. Jesus is called the Word of God and also the son of God. We are also told that God created all things through the son of God. Even if you do not believe that Jesus is the Word, then you still have to believe that Jesus pre-existed on account of him being the son of God. But what we know from scripture is that Jesus existed as the Word of God before he came as a man called Jesus. We know that the Word became flesh.

More proof verses

If Jesus pre-existed, then you might expect that even though the above verses are clear, there would be more verses that teach or at least imply that he pre-existed. So let’s see if this is the case.

Revelation 22:16
“I, Jesus, have sent my angel to give you this testimony for the churches. I am the Root and the Offspring of David, and the bright Morning Star.”

Here we see that Jesus is the offspring of David, yet he is also the root of David, which at appears to show existence before King David. He also claims to be the bright Morning Star and we read in Job how the Morning Stars were present when God created the Earth.

Job 38:6-7
“On what were its bases sunk? Or who laid its cornerstone, When the morning stars sang together And all the sons of God shouted for joy? 

Luke 10:18
He replied, “I saw Satan fall like lightning from heaven.

Comparing Luke 10:18 with Revelation 12:1-10, some say that Satan and his angels fell to the earth before the birth of Christ as a man. If this was the case, then Jesus saw an event that took place before he was born as a man. However, others argue that Satan hasn’t fallen to the Earth yet, or that he has, but Jesus saw this in a vision. Regardless, it certainly doesn’t contradict that Jesus pre-existed.

Micah 5:2
“But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, though you are small among the clans of Judah, out of you will come for me one who will be ruler over Israel, whose origins are from of old, from ancient times.”

The above verse talks about someone who will rule Israel and whose origin is from ancient times. Who but Jesus could fit that description?

John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God/Divine.

John 1:14
The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only,[ 1:14 Or the Only Begotten] who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Clearly, Jesus was with God in the beginning as the Word of God. This places his existence as before all things and thus comes as no surprise that he was there when God created all things.

The Angel of YHWH

We know from certain scriptures that Jesus is Lord of the Sabbath and many assume that Jesus gave the Law of God. We are told in Acts:7:30-39 for instance that an Angel of the Lord appeared to Moses through whom God spoke and this is the same Angel who spoke to Moses on Mount Sinai and passed on the living words (The Law) to Moses.

30 “After forty years had passed, an angel appeared to Moses in the flames of a burning bush in the desert near Mount Sinai.
31 When he saw this, he was amazed at the sight. As he went over to look more closely, he heard the Lord’s voice:
32 ‘I am the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.’Moses trembled with fear and did not dare to look.
33 “Then the Lord said to him, ‘Take off your sandals; the place where you are standing is holy ground.
34 I have indeed seen the oppression of my people in Egypt. I have heard their groaning and have come down to set them free. Now come, I will send you back to Egypt.’
35 “This is the same Moses whom they had rejected with the words, ‘Who made you ruler and judge?’ He was sent to be their ruler and deliverer by God himself, through the angel who appeared to him in the bush.
36 He led them out of Egypt and did wonders and miraculous signs in Egypt, at the Red Sea and for forty years in the desert.
37 “This is that Moses who told the Israelites, ‘God will send you a prophet like me from your own people.’
38 He was in the assembly in the desert, with the angel who spoke to him on Mount Sinai, and with our fathers; and he received living words to pass on to us.
39 “But our fathers refused to obey him. Instead, they rejected him and in their hearts turned back to Egypt.

So is this Angel of the Lord, Jesus? Well it seems possible. Perhaps the correct model to look at is the one mentioned in Revelation 1:1

The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,

Here we can see that the order of the Revelation started with the Originator which is God. He then passed the message to Jesus Christ who in turn sent it to his Angel and then to John. So perhaps it is possible that the angel in Revelation is the same angel mentioned in Acts:7:30-39.

But the Angel of YHWH or Angel of the LORD is described as one like the son of gods.

Daniel 3:24-25
Then Nebuchadnezzar the king was astounded and stood up in haste; he said to his high officials, “Was it not three men we cast bound into the midst of the fire?” They replied to the king, “Certainly, O king.” He said, “Look! I see four men loosed and walking about in the midst of the fire without harm, and the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods!”

The idea that a preincarnate Jesus was this Angel of the LORD is a popular one. We know that this Angel of the LORD is never mentioned while Jesus is walking the earth which supports this idea. But it could also be a coincidence. One connection that can be made with Jesus being this messenger is found in Judges 13:18.

Manoah said to the angel of the LORD, “What is your name, so that when your words come to pass, we may honor you?” But the angel of the LORD said to him, “Why do you ask my name, seeing it is wonderful?”

Now read what Isaiah prophesied in Isaiah 9:6 .

For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

Clearly, Isaiah was speaking of Jesus Christ and note that he was called Wonderful Counselor. Is there a connection here? Perhaps. What we do know is the word ‘angel’ is the same word messenger in the Old Testament, and while it is held that Jesus is not an angel in kind, we know he certainly was a messenger of YHWH and would be fair to say even ‘The Messenger of YHWH’.

So the idea that he may be this angel is not that far fetched. Some vehemently oppose this idea, but they are not aware that both Jesus and John are called angels in the messenger sense.

More to come here……

More proof that Jesus pre-existed

Rev 3:14
And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God.

Moving on we read the following in Philippians 2:5-11
5 Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus:
6 Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,
7 but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.
8 And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to death even death on a cross!
9 Therefore God exalted him to the highest place and gave him the name that is above every name,
10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

Surely the above verses assumes preexistence.  Look at verse 7: ‘but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness’. This verse points out that Jesus humbled himself to become a (or like a) human and also a servant. So this suggests to us that he preexisted in a higher state because to humble oneself is to become lower. If he started life in this humbled state, then it would be incorrect to say that he humbled himself. Further, he “found himself in appearance as a man” is a weird statement to make if he first existed as a human baby.

This verse is often used in support of the trinity doctrine because of the word ‘equal’. But if you are equal to something it means that you are not that thing, rather you are like that thing. This scripture is also very clear about the following: The Father is God and Jesus is Lord and that God exalted Jesus to the highest place.

A closer look at verse 9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: Now I am not sure if Jesus was exalted higher than he was before he came to this world or whether he was exalted to the exact position that he had before. But if we look at John 17:5 again we can see that Jesus asked to return to his former glory.

John 17:5
And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began.

The above verse is clear about Christ’s pre-existence in glory before the world began. Just to prove this is not an isolated scripture here is a similar verse:

John 16:28
I came from the Father and entered the world; now I am leaving the world and going back to the Father.”

The next verse also confirms that Jesus pre-existed in Heaven.

John 3:12-15
12 I have spoken to you of earthly things and you do not believe; how then will you believe if I speak of heavenly things?
13 No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven, the Son of Man.
14 Just as Moses lifted up the snake in the desert, so the Son of Man must be lifted up,
15 that everyone who believes in him may have eternal life.

Ezekiel 8:1-3
1 In the sixth year, in the sixth month on the fifth day, while I was sitting in my house and the elders of Judah were sitting before me, the hand of the Sovereign LORD came upon me there.
2 I looked, and I saw a figure like that of a man. From what appeared to be his waist down he was like fire, and from there up his appearance was as bright as glowing metal.
3 He stretched out what looked like a hand and took me by the hair of my head. The Spirit lifted me up between earth and heaven and in visions of God he took me to Jerusalem, to the entrance to the north gate of the inner court, where the idol that provokes to jealousy stood.

This verse is interesting in the sense that the description is very similar to the description of Jesus Christ in Revelation 1:12-18,

12 I turned around to see the voice that was speaking to me. And when I turned I saw seven golden lampstands,
13 and among the lampstands was someone “like a son of man,” dressed in a robe reaching down to his feet and with a golden sash around his chest.
14 His head and hair were white like wool, as white as snow, and his eyes were like blazing fire.
15 His feet were like bronze glowing in a furnace, and his voice was like the sound of rushing waters.
16 In his right hand he held seven stars, and out of his mouth came a sharp double-edged sword. His face was like the sun shining in all its brilliance.
17 When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. Then he placed his right hand on me and said: “Do not be afraid. I am the First and the Last.
18 I am the Living One; I was dead, and behold I am alive for ever and ever! And I hold the keys of death and Hades.

Have a look at the next verse. 1 Corinthians 11:3 (English-NIV)
Now I want you to realize that the head of every man is Christ, and the head of the woman is man, and the head of Christ is God.

Now the word head in the Greek is ‘kephale’ which can mean head, source or master. Now if we notice the order in a time sense, we have to admit that God is the first as he is the only one who has existed for all eternity with no beginning. We also know from scripture that the man came first and the woman came from the man. So that part is correct if we use a timeline. That just leaves Christ. Did he come between God and Man. I think so, as I believe that all things came from him and this opinion does fit perfectly into this model in a time sense at least. Anyway the word Christ here is ‘Christos’ which means “anointed”. So the anointed is the head of Man.
God > Christ > Man > Woman

If God created all things for his Son and his Son was the channel for that creation to come into being, then we can only assume that Christ existed at this point. As Genesis says: Let us make Man in our image. God was talking to Christ at this point and we know that Christ is the image of God and we are the image of Christ. Therefore the image of the image of God (man) is still the image of God. But Christ is the original and first image and we can only assume again that that image existed before the image of the image. A bit like a mirror that reflects a mirror, the original mirror has to exist in order to reflect the second mirror.

So we know that Christ preexisted before creation and now we will look at some more scriptures that show that he was born before creation itself?

Colossians 1:15-16
15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.
16 For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him.

The above verse is quite clear that ALL things were created by or through Jesus.

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So again, there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus/The Word being there. Only the Father and Son were not made. God has always existed and the Son was born from God before the creation of the universe, before anything was made. The next verse describes clearly who/what was the first of God’s works.

Proverbs 8:22-30
22 “The LORD brought me forth as the first of his works, {[22] Or ; or } {[22] Or ; or } before his deeds of old;
23 I was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
24 When there were no oceans, I was given birth, when there were no springs abounding with water;
25 before the mountains were settled in place, before the hills, I was given birth,
26 before he made the earth or its fields or any of the dust of the world.
27 I was there when he set the heavens in place, when he marked out the horizon on the face of the deep,
28 when he established the clouds above and fixed securely the fountains of the deep,
29 when he gave the sea its boundary so the waters would not overstep his command, and when he marked out the foundations of the earth.
30 Then I was the craftsman at his side. I was filled with delight day after day, rejoicing always in his presence,

This verse is talking about Wisdom, whom many believe is Christ. This scriptures compliments other scriptures that that teach that Jesus was given birth by God and then created all THINGS though him.

So from this verse we can see the following points.

Wisdom was brought forth as the first of Gods works.
Wisdom was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
Wisdom was given birth before creation.
Wisdom was the craftsman at his side and rejoiced in his presence before creation.
Some say that Wisdom isn’t Christ, rather this is just wisdom in a conceptual sense and it is true that wisdom is being spoken of in that way. But from verse 22 onward it changes tempo. With terms like I was given birth, I was the craftsman at his side and I was filled with delight, we have to admit that it seems to be talking about a person. Now have a look at the following verses:

1 Corinthians 1:24 (English-NIV)
but to those whom God has called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God.

1 Corinthians 1:30 (English-NIV)
It is because of him that you are in Christ Jesus, who has become for us wisdom from God–that is, our righteousness, holiness and redemption.

Let’s look at some other concepts that Jesus personifies:

Jesus is the Truth. Yet truth is also a concept.
Jesus is the Way. Yet the way is also a concept.
Jesus is the Life. Yet life can also be a concept.
Now look at the following mystery:

1 Corinthians 2:6-9
6 We do, however, speak a message of wisdom among the mature, but not the wisdom of this age or of the rulers of this age, who are coming to nothing.
7 No, we speak of God’s secret wisdom, a wisdom that has been hidden and that God destined for our glory before time began.
8 None of the rulers of this age understood it, for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.
9 However, as it is written:
“No eye has seen,
no ear has heard,
no mind has conceived
what God has prepared for those who love him”

Ephesians 3:8-10
8 Although I am less than the least of all God’s people, this grace was given me: to preach to the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ,
9 and to make plain to everyone the administration of this mystery, which for ages past was kept hidden in God, who created all things.
10 His intent was that now, through the church, the manifold wisdom of God should be made known to the rulers and authorities in the heavenly realms,

Perhaps another scripture alluding to Jesus being the Wisdom of God.

Finally I leave you with the following OT scripture that suggests that God had a Son before the birth Of Jesus Christ on earth.

Proverbs 30:4
Who has gone up to heaven and come down? Who has gathered up the wind in the hollow of his hands? Who has wrapped up the waters in his cloak? Who has established all the ends of the earth? What is his name, and the name of his son? Tell me if you know!


Discussion

Viewing 20 posts - 9,761 through 9,780 (of 19,165 total)
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  • #223436
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (kerwin @ Nov. 05 2010,17:27)
    To those who support the Preexistence tenet,

    An example of a mistranslated word according to your own tenet is the word “make” in John 1:14 since you do not believe that the hypothetical Spiritual being known as Christ was made into flesh. It also does not fit the tenet Holy Spirit, a.k.a. Spirit of God and others came to inhabit Jesus.  It does fit the literal Word tenet as God spoke and the world was made. The alternative translation of “married” does fit your tenet.

    Your tenet seems to replace the Spirit of Christ with the hypothetical Spiritual being known as Christ.


    Hi Kerwin,

    I'm not sure what you're even saying here, but the word translated as “became” in 1:14 is “ginomai”, which means:

    ginomai
    1) to become, i.e. to come into existence, begin to be, receive being
    2) to become, i.e. to come to pass, happen
      2a) of events
    3) to arise, appear in history, come upon the stage
      3a) of men appearing in public
    4) to be made, finished
      4a) of miracles, to be performed, wrought
    5) to become, be made

    It seems that “become” is the main gist of the word no matter which definition you pick.  This is what Strong says:

    a prolongation and middle voice form of a primary verb; to cause to be
    (“gen”-erate)
    , i.e. (reflexively) to become (come into being),
    used with great latitude (literal, figurative, intensive, etc.):-arise, be
    assembled, be(-come, -fall, -have self), be brought (to pass), (be)
    come (to pass), continue, be divided, draw, be ended, fall, be
    finished, follow, be found, be fulfilled, + God forbid, grow, happen,
    have, be kept, be made, be married, be ordained to be, partake, pass,
    be performed, be published, require, seem, be showed, X soon as it
    was, sound, be taken, be turned, use, wax, will, would, be wrought.

    I see your “married” definition in there, but keep in mind that it's primary usage is to denote “being generated”.  “Ginomai” is one of the base words used in “monogenes”, which means “only begotten”, or more accurately, “only generated”.

    I see no reason to think it means “married” in John 1:14, but even if it did, it would mean that “the Word” was “married to flesh, and the Word had the glory of an only begotten Son from the Father”.

    So even if you want to say “the Word married the flesh body of Jesus Christ”, it would still mean two things:
    1.  The Word and the flesh body of Jesus became one flesh.
    2.  The Word would still be the pre-existent being who has the glory of an only begotten Son from the Father.

    For it is the Word, not a flesh body, that is said to have that glory in John 1:14.  And God has only ONE only begotten Son according to scripture.  And neither “the spoken words of God” nor “God's Holy Spirit” fit the definition of “the only begotten Son of God” according to the rest of the scriptures.

    Do you know that same word “ginomai” is used twice in John 1:3?  But even if you insist on “married” as it's definition in 1:14, it still means that the “one flesh” created by the “marriage” of “the Word” and the flesh of Jesus was the only begotten Son of God.  And it was this only begotten Son of God who spoke with the authority that came from being in God's presence before the world was created. It was this same only begotten Son of God who said he would “ascend to where I was before”.

    So the bottom line is that no matter how you want to change the meanings of the Greek words used, you still end up with a pre-existent Son of God who was flesh for a while, suffered, died, and was raised back up to his former glory at the right hand of his God and Father.

    peace and love,
    mike

    #223438
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 05 2010,17:39)
    Hi Mike,

    Your words seem to be at odds with…

    John 14:8-9 Philip saith unto him, Lord, show us the Father, and it sufficeth us.
    Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip?
    he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Show us the Father?

    My explanation (of The Word being the “HolySpirit”) also encompass what Jesus said to Phillip in John 14:9!
    You discounted 1 Tim 3:16's association with John 1:14, lets see what you have to say about this one?


    Hi Ed,

    You didn't post the beginning of the conversation:

    6 Jesus answered, “I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me. 7 If you really know me, you will know my Father as well. From now on, you do know him and have seen him.”

    If you read it in context, it's easy to see that Jesus is someone other than the Father (see underlined part).  And it is also easy to see that Jesus is saying that since he does and says only what he learned from the Father, in a sense, hearing and seeing what he does is just like seeing the Father.

    But we apparently can't take it to literally mean that human beings were actually visibly “seeing the Father Himself”, because Jesus also says:

    John 6:46 NIV
    No one has seen the Father except the one who is from God; only he has seen the Father.

    peace and love,
    mike

    #223440
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 05 2010,17:46)
    2) Do you believe that Jesus ONLY only had God's finger in him?


    Ed,

    Your question can either mean:

    1. Did Jesus have NOTHING in him EXCEPT God's finger?…….or,

    2. Is Jesus the ONLY one who had God's finger in him?

    Please clarify.

    mike

    #223441
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 06 2010,03:15)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 05 2010,13:54)

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 04 2010,22:15)
    6) No; It means that “God The Father”,
       the “God Spirit”, will speak “The Word”(HolySpirit) through us! (Rom.10:17)


    Matthew 10:20 NIV
    20 for it will not be you speaking, but the Spirit of your Father speaking through you.

    No Ed, according to your theory, the above scripture means “the God the Father of your God the Father” will speak through them.

    There is nothing else that scripture can be saying if God's Spirit is actually “God the Father” as you claim.

    mike


    Hi Mike,

    That verse means: God The Father will speak
    The Word through them as he did through Jesus.

    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    No Ed. If the Holy Spirit OF God is really “God the Father Himself”, as you claim, then that scripture can ONLY mean:

    “The God the Father OF the God the Father” will be speaking through you.”

    Face it Ed. This one little scripture proves your “Holy Spirit IS God the Father” theory to be inaccurate.

    mike

    #223442
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (kerwin @ Nov. 06 2010,08:35)
    Thus according to your own doctrine the current word “made” is a mistranslation.


    Hi Kerwin,

    Both “became” and “made” fit the scriptures just fine. The pre-existent Word of God “was made flesh”, “became flesh” “came into existence AS FLESH”, etc.

    There is no dilemma for us.

    mike

    #223450
    Baker
    Participant

    Quote (kerwin @ Nov. 06 2010,12:20)
    Gene,

    We should remember that individuals not yet completely free of sin sometimes have insecurities.  I obvious hit such in my conversation with Irene.  I am sorry she was hurt by my stating she did not know something she believes she does but I believe I still needed to say it.  She has admitted that she has been taught wrong in the past and merely am saying she still has wrong teachings to overcome. My belief is she has interpreted my words different than I intended them.


    kerwin, I waited until today to answer you what you said to Gene.  First of all I never said that I still had to overcome something that I still believed from my former Catholic Church…..It is 26 years ago that we left.  Second of all, the Catholic Church never believed in the preexisting of Jesus……thirdly you are no better then Gene who is always gets personal, when he does not know what to say about all the Scriptures given……You too have given me one accuse after the other.  Then you give a word, that first is make and then is  made…..Others have come now and, read what Mike said …….you are so totally wrong……you are a sad Christian to deny all those Scriptures…..I feel sorry for you, because one day you too will have to stand in front of our Savior and explain to Him why you became personal with me to another member….
    Irene

    #223455
    Baker
    Participant

    To all those who do not believe in the preexisting of Jesus.  Go and look at all the Scriptures that have been posted, in the preexisting debate tread…….. And then tell us, which Scripture is mistranslated……Irene

    #223476
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    You can see 29 of them here:

    https://heavennet.net/cgi-bin….5;st=20

    They are organized according to the cannon on the ninth post down.  

    The database keeps growing though. :)

    peace and love,
    mike

    #223498
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 07 2010,03:57)

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 06 2010,03:15)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 05 2010,13:54)

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 04 2010,22:15)
    6) No; It means that “God The Father”,
       the “God Spirit”, will speak “The Word”(HolySpirit) through us! (Rom.10:17)


    Matthew 10:20 NIV
    20 for it will not be you speaking, but the Spirit of your Father speaking through you.

    No Ed, according to your theory, the above scripture means “the God the Father of your God the Father” will speak through them.

    There is nothing else that scripture can be saying if God's Spirit is actually “God the Father” as you claim.

    mike


    Hi Mike,

    That verse means: God The Father will speak
    The Word through them as he did through Jesus.

    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    No Ed.  If the Holy Spirit OF God is really “God the Father Himself”, as you claim, then that scripture can ONLY mean:

    “The God the Father OF the God the Father” will be speaking through you.”

    Face it Ed.  This one little scripture proves your “Holy Spirit IS God the Father” theory to be inaccurate.

    mike


    Hi Mike,

    How so?

    God The Father is not separated,
    so the Spirit of God The Father is God The Father.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #223563
    kerwin
    Participant

    Mike Boll,

    Are you really blind to the fact that you are stating two different things or are you unaware what the definition of “made” is?

    ‘Made’ in this case is defined as artificially creating, constructing, forming, or shaping according to dictionary.com.

    So in other words you are stating the hypothetical spiritual being known as the Christ was shaped into flesh, created as flesh, constructed into flesh, or transformed to flesh. As far as I know, you do not believe any of these occurred as I have heard you believe the Spiritual being took on a tent of flesh instead.

    This is why your answer confuses me since you seem to be stating both yes and no.

    #223569
    Baker
    Participant

    The Word of God in John 1:14 became flesh. How hard is that to understand….Also if you don't believe that is what John is talking about then what about what it says in
    Rev 19:13 And he [was] clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God.

    Rev 19:14 And the armies [which were] in heaven followed him upon white horses, clothed in fine linen, white and clean.

    Rev 19:15 And out of his mouth goeth a sharp sword, that with it he should smite the nations: and he shall rule them with a rod of iron: and he treadeth the winepress of the fierceness and wrath of Almighty God.

    Rev 19:16 And he hath on [his] vesture and on his thigh a name written, KING OF KINGS, AND LORD OF LORDS.

    This is showing us that The Word of God is King of Kings and Lord of Lords. Now if you still have doubt that this is Jesus who after He became flesh, and went back to God our Heavenly Father in

    Jhn 17:5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.

    We also know that flesh and blood does not enter the Kingdom of God. So Jesus glory is that He is a Spirit Being….He now has divinity and will come back as what Rev. 19 explains….that is what He was before He became a Human being…..
    I never interpret the Scriptures in any way or form. It is plainly written, and easy to understand….I wonder who is blind around here….

    #223577
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (kerwin @ Nov. 08 2010,07:25)
    Mike Boll,

    Are you really blind to the fact that you are stating two different things or are you unaware what the definition of “made” is?


    Hi Kerwin,

    I think Jesus was the Word who was the only begotten Son of God who all things were created through in the beginning.  I believe he emptied himself of his glorious heavenly position at the right hand of God to BECOME a flesh and blood person.  I believe, that while he always had God working for and in him through His Holy Spirit, God filled him with the Spirit without measure at the Jordan.  I believe that is when the full memories of exactly who he was and who he used to be were restored to him.  I believe that everything he did and taught during his ministry on earth was being done or taught by someone who had full memories of his “past life” at the side of God.  

    The only reason I “augmented” it was you bring you on board.  If you can come to a place where you embrace scriptures by thinking of the flesh body of Jesus being “filled” with the spirit body of God's Son, then I'm willing to state it that way.  Because the outcome is still the same.  The “Jesus” who was teaching was teaching with the knowledge he learned directly from his God before he ever came to be in a flesh body.  Did you notice I even added the “IN” a flesh body for you, even though that's not what scripture says.

    Look Kerwin, we have discussed Phil 2.  Aside from ignoring the fact the someone who already is a human being cannot be made into a human being, you also rejected my understanding that the whole passage was to teach us to be willing to give up anything we have for the glory of God.  I understand that Jesus had a “cushy” postion at the right hand of God, but was willing to empty himself of all that and be made as flesh to the glory of his God.

    Well, I was reading in 2 Cor today and found this:

    2 Corinthians 8:8-9 NIV
    8 I am not commanding you, but I want to test the sincerity of your love by comparing it with the earnestness of others. 9 For you know the grace of our Lord Jesus Christ, that though he was rich, yet for your sake he became poor, so that you through his poverty might become rich.

    Kerwin, in what way was Jesus “rich” except for his uniquely wonderful position at God's right hand?  He was a tradesman's son.  His family was apparently not “rich”, for when the time came for them to present Jesus to Jehovah at the temple for his purification rites, they didn't have the lamb and dove to offer, but instead offered the two doves that were deemed acceptable by God for people who could not afford a lamb.

    So exactly what “riches” did Jesus empty himself of to become poor for us?

    I think this ties into my understanding of Phil 2 wonderfully, don't you? :)

    peace and love,
    mike

    #223578
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 07 2010,15:06)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 07 2010,03:57)

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 06 2010,03:15)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 05 2010,13:54)

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 04 2010,22:15)
    6) No; It means that “God The Father”,
       the “God Spirit”, will speak “The Word”(HolySpirit) through us! (Rom.10:17)


    Matthew 10:20 NIV
    20 for it will not be you speaking, but the Spirit of your Father speaking through you.

    No Ed, according to your theory, the above scripture means “the God the Father of your God the Father” will speak through them.

    There is nothing else that scripture can be saying if God's Spirit is actually “God the Father” as you claim.

    mike


    Hi Mike,

    That verse means: God The Father will speak
    The Word through them as he did through Jesus.

    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    No Ed.  If the Holy Spirit OF God is really “God the Father Himself”, as you claim, then that scripture can ONLY mean:

    “The God the Father OF the God the Father” will be speaking through you.”

    Face it Ed.  This one little scripture proves your “Holy Spirit IS God the Father” theory to be inaccurate.

    mike


    Hi Mike,

    How so?

    God The Father is not separated,
    so the Spirit of God The Father is God The Father.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    Hi Ed,

    But the scripture doesn't say “God will be speaking through you”, although we know that's who it will be.  Why do you think they distinguish the Spirit from God who is heaven?  They are saying that God will speak for you BY MEANS of HIS Spirit.  

    The Spirit is not the whole being of God Himself, but a part of the whole being of God the Father.  Try this one on for size:

    John 16:13 NIV
    13 But when he, the Spirit of truth, comes, he will guide you into all the truth. He will not speak on his own; he will speak only what he hears, and he will tell you what is yet to come.

    If the Spirit IS God the Father, then why will it only speak what it hears?  Hears from WHO?  Who is it that tells God Almighty what to say or not say?

    The Spirit is OF God and FROM God.  It is not the being “God the Father”, but a part of Him. Just like when it is called “the Finger of God”, no one in their right mind would think a finger is the complete being of someone. It is a part OF someone that can be used to accomplish certain tasks. But a finger is not a “whole being”.

    Ed, we're to that “point” again.  If you don't want to include the words “OF” and “FROM” into your understanding, then you are re-arranging scriptures.  And at that point, I will discuss it no further with you.

    I've showed the scriptures.  You can believe or not.

    peace and love,
    mike

    #223614
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 08 2010,11:44)

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 07 2010,15:06)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 07 2010,03:57)

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 06 2010,03:15)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 05 2010,13:54)

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 04 2010,22:15)
    6) No; It means that “God The Father”,
       the “God Spirit”, will speak “The Word”(HolySpirit) through us! (Rom.10:17)


    Matthew 10:20 NIV
    20 for it will not be you speaking, but the Spirit of your Father speaking through you.

    No Ed, according to your theory, the above scripture means “the God the Father of your God the Father” will speak through them.

    There is nothing else that scripture can be saying if God's Spirit is actually “God the Father” as you claim.

    mike


    Hi Mike,

    That verse means: God The Father will speak
    The Word through them as he did through Jesus.

    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    No Ed.  If the Holy Spirit OF God is really “God the Father Himself”, as you claim, then that scripture can ONLY mean:

    “The God the Father OF the God the Father” will be speaking through you.”

    Face it Ed.  This one little scripture proves your “Holy Spirit IS God the Father” theory to be inaccurate.

    mike


    Hi Mike,

    How so?

    God The Father is not separated,
    so the Spirit of God The Father is God The Father.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    Hi Ed,

    But the scripture doesn't say “God will be speaking through you”, although we know that's who it will be.  Why do you think they distinguish the Spirit from God who is heaven?  They are saying that God will speak for you BY MEANS of HIS Spirit.  

    The Spirit is not the whole being of God Himself, but a part of the whole being of God the Father.  Try this one on for size:

    John 16:13 NIV
    13 But when he, the Spirit of truth, comes, he will guide you into all the truth. He will not speak on his own; he will speak only what he hears, and he will tell you what is yet to come.

    If the Spirit IS God the Father, then why will it only speak what it hears?  Hears from WHO?  Who is it that tells God Almighty what to say or not say?

    The Spirit is OF God and FROM God.  It is not the being “God the Father”, but a part of Him.  Just like when it is called “the Finger of God”, no one in their right mind would think a finger is the complete being of someone.  It is a part OF someone that can be used to accomplish certain tasks.  But a finger is not a “whole being”.

    Ed, we're to that “point” again.  If you don't want to include the words “OF” and “FROM” into your understanding, then you are re-arranging scriptures.  And at that point, I will discuss it no further with you.

    I've showed the scriptures.  You can believe or not.

    peace and love,
    mike


    Hi Mike,

    Your juggling words again in an attempt to avoid the obvious truth.
    Acts12:24 …”The Word” ([ο λογος] Hō Lōgôs) of God grew and multiplied.
    Mark 13:11 But when they shall lead you, and deliver you up, take no thought
    beforehand what ye shall speak, neither do ye premeditate: but whatsoever shall
    be given you in that hour, that speak ye: for it is not ye that speak, but the HolySpirit.
    Luke 12:12 For the HolySpirit shall teach you in the same hour what ye ought to say.
    Matt.10:20 For it is not ye that speak, but the Spirit of your Father which speaketh in you.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #223664
    terraricca
    Participant

    edj

    you still not understand;Ac 12:24 But the word of God continued to increase and spread.
    Ac 12:25 When Barnabas and Saul had finished their mission, they returned from Jerusalem, taking with them John, also called Mark.

    it talks about the scriptures;

    is it not obvious

    Pierre

    #223665
    terraricca
    Participant

    edj

    could you explain this to me??Matt.10:20 For it is not ye that speak, but the Spirit of your Father which speaketh in you.

    Pierre

    #223685
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (terraricca @ Nov. 09 2010,07:48)
    edj

    could you explain this to me??Matt.10:20 For it is not ye that speak, but the Spirit of your Father which speaketh in you.

    Pierre


    Hi Pierre,

    Isn't the meaning of that verse obvious?
    What part of that verse has you confused?

    God bless
    eD j (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #223690
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    EDJ…………They just do not get it brother. The reason is because they do not know what SPIRIT really IS. They think it is a PERSON , they do not understand about the Seven Spirits of GOD. They don't understand that Spirit is what transfers intellects to us making us cognate of things it is what composes a mind. God who is Spiirt can INDWELL is He considers us temples to Dwell in just as he did Jesus. Jesus was not lying when he said the FATHER is (IN) ME. The Father was indeed truly (IN) HIM via the HOLY SPIRIT He recieved at the Jordan. They do not understand Spiirt is NOT A BEING it is What is (IN) Beings.

    peace and love…………………………….gene

    #223700
    terraricca
    Participant

    Quote (terraricca @ Nov. 09 2010,14:48)
    edj

    could you explain this to me??Matt.10:20 For it is not ye that speak, but the Spirit of your Father which speaketh in you.

    Pierre


    edj

    the part you cannot explain

    Pierre

    #223701
    terraricca
    Participant

    Quote (Gene Balthrop @ Nov. 09 2010,18:05)
    EDJ…………They just do not get it brother. The reason is because they do not know what SPIRIT really IS. They think it is a PERSON , they do not understand about the Seven Spirits of GOD.  They don't understand that Spirit is what transfers intellects to us making us cognate of things it is what composes a mind.  God who is Spiirt can INDWELL is He considers us temples to Dwell in just as he did Jesus. Jesus was not lying when he said the FATHER is (IN) ME. The Father was indeed truly (IN) HIM via the HOLY SPIRIT He recieved at the Jordan.  They do not understand Spiirt is NOT A BEING it is What is (IN) Beings.

    peace and love…………………………….gene


    gene

    you to are confused ,since you know what the spirit his ,why you explain it to me

    Pierre

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