Did Jesus pre-exist before his birth on Earth?

Where did Jesus come from?

John 6:38-40
For I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will, but the will of him who sent me; and this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise it up at the last day. For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who sees the Son and believes in him should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.

The first verse suggests that Jesus came down from Heaven. This seems to contradict that belief which suggests he first existed as a man when he was born into this world. For if Jesus came into existence for the first time when he was conceived through Mary, how could he come down from Heaven? We (Man) came into existence when we are born into this world, but would it be correct to say that we came down from Heaven too? If a verse said that we came down from Heaven, would you think that we pre-existed in Heaven? If so, then why not Jesus?

John 3:17 is another verse that provides support that Jesus came down from Heaven or was sent rather than created.

For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.

The word ‘send’ is the Greek word ‘apostello’.

apostello {ap-os-tel’-lo}
1) to order (one) to go to a place appointed
2) to send away, dismiss
2a) to allow one to depart, that he may be in a state of liberty
2b) to order one to depart, send off
2c) to drive away

To be sent surely implies existence otherwise you would just say born or created. In fact this word (sent) is similar in meaning and sound to the word Apostle (apostolos), which means “one sent forth with orders”. To be sent forth with order, you must exist.

John 6:62
What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?

Jesus is clearly stating here that he came from above since he eventually ascended into Heaven to be at the right-hand of God.

How old is Jesus?

John 1:15
15 John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.‘ “

John the Baptist was six months older than Jesus Christ. So it is physically impossible for Christ to be before him in age. If this verse is referencing age, then it shows preexistence. Jesus existed before  John the Baptist in the least.

John 8:58
“I tell you the truth,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!

Jesus claimed to exist before Abraham, the father of the Jews. The words ‘I am’ mean ‘I exist’. So Jesus claimed existence before Abraham. We can see that Jesus is getting older as we explore the scriptures. But how old?

Jude 1:25
to the only God our Savior be glory, majesty, power and authority, through Jesus Christ our Lord, before all ages, now and forevermore! Amen.

Here we can see that majesty, power, and authority through Jesus Christ is before all ages (all worlds) and forever more into the future. This strongly implies that Jesus existed even before all things. But can we substantiate this?

Did Jesus exist before all creation?

Colossians 1:17
He is before all things, and in him all things hold together.

Colossians answers the question outright. It states that “He is before all things“.  But are there other verses that support this idea?

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus being there. This verse alone answers the question because the universe, angels, and men were made and Jesus was present when they were created according to these verses. In case that is not enough to convince you, I also add another clear verse that says the same thing.

Hebrews 1:1-2
1 In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways,
2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe.

Is Jesus the Word of God?

But some say that this is talking about the Word and not all believe that Jesus is the Word of God. They argue that Jesus came from the Word, but is not the Word itself that was with God in John 1:1. If you believe this, then please explain the next two verses within their wider context:

Revelation 19:13
He is dressed in a robe dipped in blood, and his name is the Word of God.

Colossians 1:15-18
The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him. He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. And he is the head of the body, the church; he is the beginning and the firstborn from among the dead, so that in everything he might have the supremacy.

Okay, if you are honest, this is a closed case. God created all things through the Word. Jesus is called the Word of God and also the son of God. We are also told that God created all things through the son of God. Even if you do not believe that Jesus is the Word, then you still have to believe that Jesus pre-existed on account of him being the son of God. But what we know from scripture is that Jesus existed as the Word of God before he came as a man called Jesus. We know that the Word became flesh.

More proof verses

If Jesus pre-existed, then you might expect that even though the above verses are clear, there would be more verses that teach or at least imply that he pre-existed. So let’s see if this is the case.

Revelation 22:16
“I, Jesus, have sent my angel to give you this testimony for the churches. I am the Root and the Offspring of David, and the bright Morning Star.”

Here we see that Jesus is the offspring of David, yet he is also the root of David, which at appears to show existence before King David. He also claims to be the bright Morning Star and we read in Job how the Morning Stars were present when God created the Earth.

Job 38:6-7
“On what were its bases sunk? Or who laid its cornerstone, When the morning stars sang together And all the sons of God shouted for joy? 

Luke 10:18
He replied, “I saw Satan fall like lightning from heaven.

Comparing Luke 10:18 with Revelation 12:1-10, some say that Satan and his angels fell to the earth before the birth of Christ as a man. If this was the case, then Jesus saw an event that took place before he was born as a man. However, others argue that Satan hasn’t fallen to the Earth yet, or that he has, but Jesus saw this in a vision. Regardless, it certainly doesn’t contradict that Jesus pre-existed.

Micah 5:2
“But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, though you are small among the clans of Judah, out of you will come for me one who will be ruler over Israel, whose origins are from of old, from ancient times.”

The above verse talks about someone who will rule Israel and whose origin is from ancient times. Who but Jesus could fit that description?

John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God/Divine.

John 1:14
The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only,[ 1:14 Or the Only Begotten] who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Clearly, Jesus was with God in the beginning as the Word of God. This places his existence as before all things and thus comes as no surprise that he was there when God created all things.

The Angel of YHWH

We know from certain scriptures that Jesus is Lord of the Sabbath and many assume that Jesus gave the Law of God. We are told in Acts:7:30-39 for instance that an Angel of the Lord appeared to Moses through whom God spoke and this is the same Angel who spoke to Moses on Mount Sinai and passed on the living words (The Law) to Moses.

30 “After forty years had passed, an angel appeared to Moses in the flames of a burning bush in the desert near Mount Sinai.
31 When he saw this, he was amazed at the sight. As he went over to look more closely, he heard the Lord’s voice:
32 ‘I am the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.’Moses trembled with fear and did not dare to look.
33 “Then the Lord said to him, ‘Take off your sandals; the place where you are standing is holy ground.
34 I have indeed seen the oppression of my people in Egypt. I have heard their groaning and have come down to set them free. Now come, I will send you back to Egypt.’
35 “This is the same Moses whom they had rejected with the words, ‘Who made you ruler and judge?’ He was sent to be their ruler and deliverer by God himself, through the angel who appeared to him in the bush.
36 He led them out of Egypt and did wonders and miraculous signs in Egypt, at the Red Sea and for forty years in the desert.
37 “This is that Moses who told the Israelites, ‘God will send you a prophet like me from your own people.’
38 He was in the assembly in the desert, with the angel who spoke to him on Mount Sinai, and with our fathers; and he received living words to pass on to us.
39 “But our fathers refused to obey him. Instead, they rejected him and in their hearts turned back to Egypt.

So is this Angel of the Lord, Jesus? Well it seems possible. Perhaps the correct model to look at is the one mentioned in Revelation 1:1

The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,

Here we can see that the order of the Revelation started with the Originator which is God. He then passed the message to Jesus Christ who in turn sent it to his Angel and then to John. So perhaps it is possible that the angel in Revelation is the same angel mentioned in Acts:7:30-39.

But the Angel of YHWH or Angel of the LORD is described as one like the son of gods.

Daniel 3:24-25
Then Nebuchadnezzar the king was astounded and stood up in haste; he said to his high officials, “Was it not three men we cast bound into the midst of the fire?” They replied to the king, “Certainly, O king.” He said, “Look! I see four men loosed and walking about in the midst of the fire without harm, and the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods!”

The idea that a preincarnate Jesus was this Angel of the LORD is a popular one. We know that this Angel of the LORD is never mentioned while Jesus is walking the earth which supports this idea. But it could also be a coincidence. One connection that can be made with Jesus being this messenger is found in Judges 13:18.

Manoah said to the angel of the LORD, “What is your name, so that when your words come to pass, we may honor you?” But the angel of the LORD said to him, “Why do you ask my name, seeing it is wonderful?”

Now read what Isaiah prophesied in Isaiah 9:6 .

For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

Clearly, Isaiah was speaking of Jesus Christ and note that he was called Wonderful Counselor. Is there a connection here? Perhaps. What we do know is the word ‘angel’ is the same word messenger in the Old Testament, and while it is held that Jesus is not an angel in kind, we know he certainly was a messenger of YHWH and would be fair to say even ‘The Messenger of YHWH’.

So the idea that he may be this angel is not that far fetched. Some vehemently oppose this idea, but they are not aware that both Jesus and John are called angels in the messenger sense.

More to come here……

More proof that Jesus pre-existed

Rev 3:14
And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God.

Moving on we read the following in Philippians 2:5-11
5 Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus:
6 Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,
7 but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.
8 And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to death even death on a cross!
9 Therefore God exalted him to the highest place and gave him the name that is above every name,
10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

Surely the above verses assumes preexistence.  Look at verse 7: ‘but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness’. This verse points out that Jesus humbled himself to become a (or like a) human and also a servant. So this suggests to us that he preexisted in a higher state because to humble oneself is to become lower. If he started life in this humbled state, then it would be incorrect to say that he humbled himself. Further, he “found himself in appearance as a man” is a weird statement to make if he first existed as a human baby.

This verse is often used in support of the trinity doctrine because of the word ‘equal’. But if you are equal to something it means that you are not that thing, rather you are like that thing. This scripture is also very clear about the following: The Father is God and Jesus is Lord and that God exalted Jesus to the highest place.

A closer look at verse 9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: Now I am not sure if Jesus was exalted higher than he was before he came to this world or whether he was exalted to the exact position that he had before. But if we look at John 17:5 again we can see that Jesus asked to return to his former glory.

John 17:5
And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began.

The above verse is clear about Christ’s pre-existence in glory before the world began. Just to prove this is not an isolated scripture here is a similar verse:

John 16:28
I came from the Father and entered the world; now I am leaving the world and going back to the Father.”

The next verse also confirms that Jesus pre-existed in Heaven.

John 3:12-15
12 I have spoken to you of earthly things and you do not believe; how then will you believe if I speak of heavenly things?
13 No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven, the Son of Man.
14 Just as Moses lifted up the snake in the desert, so the Son of Man must be lifted up,
15 that everyone who believes in him may have eternal life.

Ezekiel 8:1-3
1 In the sixth year, in the sixth month on the fifth day, while I was sitting in my house and the elders of Judah were sitting before me, the hand of the Sovereign LORD came upon me there.
2 I looked, and I saw a figure like that of a man. From what appeared to be his waist down he was like fire, and from there up his appearance was as bright as glowing metal.
3 He stretched out what looked like a hand and took me by the hair of my head. The Spirit lifted me up between earth and heaven and in visions of God he took me to Jerusalem, to the entrance to the north gate of the inner court, where the idol that provokes to jealousy stood.

This verse is interesting in the sense that the description is very similar to the description of Jesus Christ in Revelation 1:12-18,

12 I turned around to see the voice that was speaking to me. And when I turned I saw seven golden lampstands,
13 and among the lampstands was someone “like a son of man,” dressed in a robe reaching down to his feet and with a golden sash around his chest.
14 His head and hair were white like wool, as white as snow, and his eyes were like blazing fire.
15 His feet were like bronze glowing in a furnace, and his voice was like the sound of rushing waters.
16 In his right hand he held seven stars, and out of his mouth came a sharp double-edged sword. His face was like the sun shining in all its brilliance.
17 When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. Then he placed his right hand on me and said: “Do not be afraid. I am the First and the Last.
18 I am the Living One; I was dead, and behold I am alive for ever and ever! And I hold the keys of death and Hades.

Have a look at the next verse. 1 Corinthians 11:3 (English-NIV)
Now I want you to realize that the head of every man is Christ, and the head of the woman is man, and the head of Christ is God.

Now the word head in the Greek is ‘kephale’ which can mean head, source or master. Now if we notice the order in a time sense, we have to admit that God is the first as he is the only one who has existed for all eternity with no beginning. We also know from scripture that the man came first and the woman came from the man. So that part is correct if we use a timeline. That just leaves Christ. Did he come between God and Man. I think so, as I believe that all things came from him and this opinion does fit perfectly into this model in a time sense at least. Anyway the word Christ here is ‘Christos’ which means “anointed”. So the anointed is the head of Man.
God > Christ > Man > Woman

If God created all things for his Son and his Son was the channel for that creation to come into being, then we can only assume that Christ existed at this point. As Genesis says: Let us make Man in our image. God was talking to Christ at this point and we know that Christ is the image of God and we are the image of Christ. Therefore the image of the image of God (man) is still the image of God. But Christ is the original and first image and we can only assume again that that image existed before the image of the image. A bit like a mirror that reflects a mirror, the original mirror has to exist in order to reflect the second mirror.

So we know that Christ preexisted before creation and now we will look at some more scriptures that show that he was born before creation itself?

Colossians 1:15-16
15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.
16 For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him.

The above verse is quite clear that ALL things were created by or through Jesus.

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So again, there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus/The Word being there. Only the Father and Son were not made. God has always existed and the Son was born from God before the creation of the universe, before anything was made. The next verse describes clearly who/what was the first of God’s works.

Proverbs 8:22-30
22 “The LORD brought me forth as the first of his works, {[22] Or ; or } {[22] Or ; or } before his deeds of old;
23 I was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
24 When there were no oceans, I was given birth, when there were no springs abounding with water;
25 before the mountains were settled in place, before the hills, I was given birth,
26 before he made the earth or its fields or any of the dust of the world.
27 I was there when he set the heavens in place, when he marked out the horizon on the face of the deep,
28 when he established the clouds above and fixed securely the fountains of the deep,
29 when he gave the sea its boundary so the waters would not overstep his command, and when he marked out the foundations of the earth.
30 Then I was the craftsman at his side. I was filled with delight day after day, rejoicing always in his presence,

This verse is talking about Wisdom, whom many believe is Christ. This scriptures compliments other scriptures that that teach that Jesus was given birth by God and then created all THINGS though him.

So from this verse we can see the following points.

Wisdom was brought forth as the first of Gods works.
Wisdom was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
Wisdom was given birth before creation.
Wisdom was the craftsman at his side and rejoiced in his presence before creation.
Some say that Wisdom isn’t Christ, rather this is just wisdom in a conceptual sense and it is true that wisdom is being spoken of in that way. But from verse 22 onward it changes tempo. With terms like I was given birth, I was the craftsman at his side and I was filled with delight, we have to admit that it seems to be talking about a person. Now have a look at the following verses:

1 Corinthians 1:24 (English-NIV)
but to those whom God has called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God.

1 Corinthians 1:30 (English-NIV)
It is because of him that you are in Christ Jesus, who has become for us wisdom from God–that is, our righteousness, holiness and redemption.

Let’s look at some other concepts that Jesus personifies:

Jesus is the Truth. Yet truth is also a concept.
Jesus is the Way. Yet the way is also a concept.
Jesus is the Life. Yet life can also be a concept.
Now look at the following mystery:

1 Corinthians 2:6-9
6 We do, however, speak a message of wisdom among the mature, but not the wisdom of this age or of the rulers of this age, who are coming to nothing.
7 No, we speak of God’s secret wisdom, a wisdom that has been hidden and that God destined for our glory before time began.
8 None of the rulers of this age understood it, for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.
9 However, as it is written:
“No eye has seen,
no ear has heard,
no mind has conceived
what God has prepared for those who love him”

Ephesians 3:8-10
8 Although I am less than the least of all God’s people, this grace was given me: to preach to the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ,
9 and to make plain to everyone the administration of this mystery, which for ages past was kept hidden in God, who created all things.
10 His intent was that now, through the church, the manifold wisdom of God should be made known to the rulers and authorities in the heavenly realms,

Perhaps another scripture alluding to Jesus being the Wisdom of God.

Finally I leave you with the following OT scripture that suggests that God had a Son before the birth Of Jesus Christ on earth.

Proverbs 30:4
Who has gone up to heaven and come down? Who has gathered up the wind in the hollow of his hands? Who has wrapped up the waters in his cloak? Who has established all the ends of the earth? What is his name, and the name of his son? Tell me if you know!


Discussion

Viewing 20 posts - 9,661 through 9,680 (of 19,165 total)
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  • #222783
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    Quote (t8 @ Nov. 02 2010,19:50)

    Quote (Gene Balthrop @ Nov. 02 2010,15:39)
    Mike………..The seven /spirits of GOD are seven aspects with power or intellects with power of ONE GOD.


    And with the same mouth you say, “you force the text to say what you want it to say”.


    T8………..perhaps you failed to see the IN MY OPINION at the end of my post, the example i gave is the way i now see it. so me where i forced any text to say that. No is you and preexistences and your brothers the trinitarians that are the text forcer's her.

    But here is my reason for saying that anyway.

    Rev 4:5 And out of the throne proceeded lightings and thunderings and voices: and seven lamps of fire burning before the throne, which (ARE) the seven Spirits of GOD.

    Rev 5:6…> And I beheld and , lo in the midst of the throne and of the four beasts and in the midst of the elders, stood a Lamb as it had been slain, (HAVING) SEVEN HORNS (symbolic for power) And Seven EYES, which (ARE) the (SEVEN SPIRITS OF GOD) sent forth into (ALL) the earth.

    Now do you still believe there are not SEVEN SPIRITS OF GOD if so your argument is with scripture not me right?

    T8, problem is you do not know what Spirit actually is brother. Spirit is (NOT) Beings SPIRIT is What is (IN) Beings.

    T8……….Do you still think i am forcing the text or does the text say that here, notice and i did not have to change ONE Word.

    peace and love to you and yours…………………gene

    #222787
    Baker
    Participant

    Quote (kerwin @ Nov. 02 2010,18:19)
    Ed J,

    I suspicion that translation bias exists in every modern translation.  The question is whether or not the bias is godly.  Even with worldly bias God repeats himself and the fact scripture cannot be broken will reveal the truth as well as any important mistranslated scriptures.


    kerwin, I asked you once before, do you then do away with all Scriptures, and say they are misinterpret?  Look at all of them. I just made a post to Adam….That is a lot of Scriptures for someone to just ignore or to say the are bias to our understanding,…… to me they are plainly written and easy for me to understand……
    Peace and Love Irene

    #222806
    shimmer
    Participant

    Quote (gollamudi @ Nov. 03 2010,00:37)

    Quote (shimmer @ Nov. 01 2010,12:35)
    Mike, I HAD always believed Jesus pre-existed, but could never understand HOW Jesus came to be born as Jesus, so now i see it wasnt the flesh side of Jesus which pre-existed, it was a normal body, born as we are, but it was the spirit which was in him, the pre-existant word, I call the word the son of God, so Im not thinking like Gene either. What I believe is scriptual, from what I can see.

    Do I believe the word is the son of God ? Yes.
    Do I believe the word pre-existed ? Yes,
    Do I believe all was created through the son (the word)? Yes.
    Do i believe the word was made flesh ? Yes.
    Do I believe the word manifested to others throughout the old testement writings ? Yes,

    The word was in the flesh, in the man Jesus.


    Hi Sis,
    I am sorry to ask you, is there any scriptural support for your beliefs quoted above?

    Your logics are reasonal and seem to be fitting in the Christian doctrines that are prevalent today.

    So far I could not find any reasonable answers for my queries on pre-existence of Jesus prior to his human birth including those of Unitarianism.

    Thanks and love to you
    Adam


    Hi Adam, I spent years trying to understand..who Jesus was, etc, trying to find out led me to read every book you could imagine, most of them, all of them were no good for me, but it was everything from the free 'United church of God' magazines and booklets, to SDAdventist books, to books on revelations, early church fathers, one thing led to another, then it was Islam, then Juduism, not to mention all of the internet opinions which was crazy, suddenly one day I realised, I had lost everything I had gained, meaning the year or so before all of the reading, I had unbelievable experiences with God, prayer where I felt God was there in front of me spiritually, I felt Gods love, I had unbelievable answers to praying, God was listening and God was teaching me, and I went after Man I gave up on God as my teacher. So I learnt the hard way. About that time I had problems with my daughter, so that took my mind definatly away from anything, but eventually I came right, after i trusted in God alone again. After I stopped reading, all the books I got rid of, internet opinion became limited to just this site…..As i said in another thread to you, excuse me i'm quitting smoking, so I hope what I just wrote was ok, I try to be carefull with what I write, but am withdrawing at the moment (second hour)..as to your question, I only started again thinking of Jesus pre-existance (again) lately on this forum, and I must say i'm feeling confused (again)..I have read the 'Sheppard of Hermas' which helped me once, and the idea of Jesus pre-existance etc is alot different than most in Hermas. Hermas was popular in the earliest church and was considered for bible cannon, parts of it do go on a bit long. But in it there are two sons of God, the first is the spiritual son of God who I think is refered to as the Holy Spirit. Then is Jesus, a man who achieved sonship due to his obediance, and because of his obediance the (spiritual son) worked in Jesus… different than anything else I have read ? So it just has me curious thats all, curious but confused..

    http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/text/shepherd.html

    Hope you are doing ok Adam,

    #222814
    Baker
    Participant

    Quote (shimmer @ Nov. 03 2010,07:25)

    Quote (gollamudi @ Nov. 03 2010,00:37)

    Quote (shimmer @ Nov. 01 2010,12:35)
    Mike, I HAD always believed Jesus pre-existed, but could never understand HOW Jesus came to be born as Jesus, so now i see it wasnt the flesh side of Jesus which pre-existed, it was a normal body, born as we are, but it was the spirit which was in him, the pre-existant word, I call the word the son of God, so Im not thinking like Gene either. What I believe is scriptual, from what I can see.

    Do I believe the word is the son of God ? Yes.
    Do I believe the word pre-existed ? Yes,
    Do I believe all was created through the son (the word)? Yes.
    Do i believe the word was made flesh ? Yes.
    Do I believe the word manifested to others throughout the old testement writings ? Yes,

    The word was in the flesh, in the man Jesus.


    Hi Sis,
    I am sorry to ask you, is there any scriptural support for your beliefs quoted above?

    Your logics are reasonal and seem to be fitting in the Christian doctrines that are prevalent today.

    So far I could not find any reasonable answers for my queries on pre-existence of Jesus prior to his human birth including those of Unitarianism.

    Thanks and love to you
    Adam


    Hi Adam, I spent years trying to understand..who Jesus was, etc, trying to find out led me to read every book you could imagine, most of them, all of them were no good for me, but it was everything from the free 'United church of God' magazines and booklets, to SDAdventist books, to books on revelations, early church fathers, one thing led to another, then it was Islam, then Juduism, not to mention all of the internet opinions which was crazy, suddenly one day I realised, I had lost everything I had gained, meaning the year or so before all of the reading, I had unbelievable experiences with God, prayer where I felt God was there in front of me spiritually, I felt Gods love, I had unbelievable answers to praying, God was listening and God was teaching me, and I went after Man I gave up on God as my teacher. So I learnt the hard way. About that time I had problems with my daughter, so that took my mind definatly away from anything, but eventually I came right, after i trusted in God alone again. After I stopped reading, all the books I got rid of, internet opinion became limited to just this site…..As i said in another thread to you, excuse me i'm quitting smoking, so I hope what I just wrote was ok, I try to be carefull with what I write, but am withdrawing at the moment (second hour)..as to your question, I only started again thinking of Jesus pre-existance (again) lately on this forum, and I must say i'm feeling confused (again)..I have read the 'Sheppard of Hermas' which helped me once, and the idea of Jesus pre-existance etc is alot different than most in Hermas. Hermas was popular in the earliest church and was considered for bible cannon, parts of it do go on a bit long. But in it there are two sons of God, the first is the spiritual son of God who I think is refered to as the Holy Spirit. Then is Jesus, a man who achieved sonship due to his obediance, and because of his obediance the (spiritual son) worked in Jesus… different than anything else I have read ? So it just has me curious thats all, curious but confused..

    http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/text/shepherd.html

    Hope you are doing ok Adam,


    shimmer, I am going to say something to you/ I read the article that you wrote to Adam. I am sorry that you are confused. I just can't grasp why you are reading all that stuff of men. i believe that it is much better to read Scriptures that plainly tell me that Jesus was in Heaven with Almighty God before the world was….etc.
    I find it wise to just take those Scriptures and study them and ask
    God for wisdom, I know that He will show you……good luck and Peace and Love Irene

    #222824
    shimmer
    Participant

    Thankyou Irene, yeah I plan to read scripture all over again, I hope that then I will learn alot more, again, unbrainwash myself in a way. Thankyou Irene.

    #222842
    kerwin
    Participant

    Quote (Baker @ Nov. 02 2010,22:13)

    Quote (kerwin @ Nov. 02 2010,18:19)
    Ed J,

    I suspicion that translation bias exists in every modern translation.  The question is whether or not the bias is godly.  Even with worldly bias God repeats himself and the fact scripture cannot be broken will reveal the truth as well as any important mistranslated scriptures.


    kerwin, I asked you once before, do you then do away with all Scriptures, and say they are misinterpret?  Look at all of them. I just made a post to Adam….That is a lot of Scriptures for someone to just ignore or to say the are bias to our understanding,…… to me they are plainly written and easy for me to understand……
    Peace and Love Irene


    Irene,

    I realize you might have missed my response this question which is on page 963 posted November 2, 2010 at 4:31.

    #222848
    Baker
    Participant

    Quote (kerwin @ Nov. 03 2010,11:05)

    Quote (Baker @ Nov. 02 2010,22:13)

    Quote (kerwin @ Nov. 02 2010,18:19)
    Ed J,

    I suspicion that translation bias exists in every modern translation.  The question is whether or not the bias is godly.  Even with worldly bias God repeats himself and the fact scripture cannot be broken will reveal the truth as well as any important mistranslated scriptures.


    kerwin, I asked you once before, do you then do away with all Scriptures, and say they are misinterpret?  Look at all of them. I just made a post to Adam….That is a lot of Scriptures for someone to just ignore or to say the are bias to our understanding,…… to me they are plainly written and easy for me to understand……
    Peace and Love Irene


    Irene,

    I realize you might have missed my response this question which is on page 963 posted November 2, 2010 at 4:31.


    kerwin, so what you are saying then, that all Scriptures that I quoted were mistranslated????? Is that what you are saying?????
    That would be taken it to far. if there would only be one o even two, I could see it, but not with all of those I quoted. You are simple not dealing with them. I don't know why!!!!!!!

    Even by Jesus own words in John 17:5 which I did not give in my previous post.

    Also John 6:38 were Jesus is saying that He came down from heaven to do not His will, but the will of Him who send Him…..

    Peace and Love Irene

    #222850
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 02 2010,14:22)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 02 2010,11:03)
    Ed,

    All this info does is tell you that someone's spokesman can be referred to as their “word”.

    mike


    Hi Mike,

    No; that's what you info tells you!
    I consider it ‘squag’.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    Why Ed?

    It is the report of a man who studied different cultures. He wasn't writing this for a theological issue. He was just reporting the things he witnessed.

    Do you consider the secular history of the church to also be “squag”…………whatever that is?

    mike

    #222851
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 02 2010,14:26)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 02 2010,11:06)

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 01 2010,16:33)
    God has a thought process, but God is NOT a thought process.
    God is a Spirit rather than just having one as you suggest!


    So in Rev, when it mentions the seven spirits of God, it really means that we have seven Gods?  ???

    Or does it mean that the ONE spirit being known as Jehovah also has spirits at His command?

    mike


    Hi Mike,

    Neither; Seven manifestations of One “God Spirit”.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    So if God sends out all seven spirits at once, and according to you each spirit actually IS God the Father, then we have seven “God the Fathers” at once, right?  

    The way I see it, God is the “central being”, and that One Being is able to send each of His seven spirits in different directions at one time.  But each of those spirits cannot possibly be the being of God, or we would have seven Gods.

    The keyword is “OF”.  It most usually denotes possession.  If the seven spirits are said to be “OF” God, then He “owns” them.  They are possessions of God, not God Himself.  This is the same wording used in association with the Holy Spirit.  It is most generally referred to as “the Spirit OF God”.

    That's how I understand it Ed.

    peace and love,
    mike

    #222854
    kerwin
    Participant

    Irene,

    From what I see you are merely misunderstanding scripture as you do not properly understand the gospel.

    #222858
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 02 2010,14:37)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 02 2010,11:18)
    Hi Ed,

    1) John 1:1 NWT
    In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.

    2) Acts 12:22 NIV
    They shouted, “This is the voice of a god, not of a man.”

    3) Acts 28:6 NIV
    The people expected him to swell up or suddenly fall dead, but after waiting a long time and seeing nothing unusual happen to him, they changed their minds and said he was a god.

    They are listed above in blue print.  Discuss away.

    mike


    Hi Mike,

    1) The indefinite article is added here, corrupting the text.

    2) The indefinite article added here is necessary in English; but NOT in John 1:1!

    3) We can not suppose which god these people would refer to; can you?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    Ed:  

    Quote
    1) The indefinite article is added here, corrupting the text.


    How do you know ADDING it for our English understanding is what is “corrupting the text”?  How do you know LEAVING IT OUT isn't what “corrupts the text” in the English language?

    Ed:

    Quote
    2) The indefinite article added here is necessary in English; but NOT in John 1:1!


    And herein lies our problem Ed.  You are smart enough to recongnize the “a” should be added in this scripture.  Yet you INSIST it shouldn't be added in John 1:1……..why?  Why shouldn't it?  Give me a solid reason.

    Do you think the two examples I gave are the only places in scripture where English translators add the “a”?  The scriptures are loaded with added “a's”.  In fact, John 1:1 is the ONLY scripture where most English translators DON'T add the “a”.  And they don't add it there because they want people to think it says Jesus is God Almighty Himself.  And like you, they just ignore the fact that it makes the scripture say, “God Almighty was WITH God Almighty”.  Does that make sense to you Ed?  Can the being of God be WITH the being of God?

    Ed:

    Quote
    3) We can not suppose which god these people would refer to; can you?


    “These people” didn't write the Book of Acts……….Luke did.  So do you think LUKE was saying that “these people” thought the human being Paul was Jehovah Almighty?  I don't.  And apparently neither do the scholars who translated the major Bibles…..because they all add the “a”.

    The following sentences are fact Ed.  You can either believe them or pretend they don't exist:

    Most English translators add the indefinite article in every scripture that it is necessary for a better English understanding………EXCEPT ONE.  And by not adding it in John 1:1, they make the scripture tell us that God Almighty was WITH God Almighty.  But common sense tells us that cannot happen unless there are two separate God Almightys.

    peace and love,
    mike

    #222861
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 02 2010,14:48)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 02 2010,11:23)

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 01 2010,17:20)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 01 2010,05:49)
    Ed:

    Quote
    2) John 1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us,
    (and we beheld his(God's) glory, the glory(of God) as of the only begotten of the Father,)
    full of grace and truth.


    Ed, you are not thinking this through completely.  How does God have the glory of an only begotten FROM God?

    mike


    Hi Mike,

    Where does Jesus “Glory” come from?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    No, no, no, no, no…………

    Answer MY question. :)

    mike


    Hi Mike,

    Your question cannot be answered,
    because it doesn't make any sense.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    Ed,

    The Word had the glory of one who was the only begotten from the Father. You say the Word actually WAS the Father. The question itself makes perfect sense, it is only that any answer you give will not make sense.

    How can God the Father have the glory of someone who was the only begotten of God the Father?

    mike

    #222862
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 02 2010,14:52)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 02 2010,11:26)

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 01 2010,17:21)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 01 2010,05:49)

    Ed:

    Quote
    3) It is not my Job to convince you, only to present “Bible Truth”!


    If what you speak really is “Bible Truth”, then you would EASILY convince me Ed.  But that is a lame “fallback” sentence to say after I've showed you the scriptural and logical flaws in your theory……don't you think?


    Hi Mike,

    So you agree “The Word” becoming flesh [[[ in ]]] Jesus is what produces God's Glory; right?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    Not only is it ridiculous to come to that conclusion about what I think based on the prior discussion, but it is equally ridiculous to think Jesus had “God's glory”.  God shares His glory with no one……..not even His Son.  The Son has glory all his own.

    mike


    Hi Mike,

    Why Not?
    He can have God's Spirit,
    but not the Glory of God's Spirit?
    Tell us: where does Jesus glory come from?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    Why not? Because God tells us CLEARLY that He will share His glory with no other.

    If Jesus isn't God Almighty, then he is an “other”.

    That's “why not”. Because scripture says so.

    mike

    #222865
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 02 2010,14:55)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 02 2010,11:30)

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 01 2010,17:22)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 01 2010,05:49)
    Ed:

    Quote
    5) Became means: came to be; see earlier Post of mine.


    And see my answer to your earlier post.  No matter how you define “became”, it still adds up to “God BECAME flesh” in your theory.

    mike


    Hi Mike,

            “God BECAME flesh in”   …theory.

    Now that you understand; great!

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    Ed,

    You don't have to quote every word I say, but don't take out the one word that makes my quote sound like I'm saying the opposite of what I'm saying, okay?

    Now, please answer my point in the above post.  Is that what you really think?  That God became flesh?

    mike


    Hi Mike,

    How have I not answered your question?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    Here is the question again Ed.

    Does John 1:14 say:

    A.  The Word BECAME flesh?

    B.  The Word CAME TO BE IN SOMEONE WHO WAS FLESH?

    You see Ed, if God BECAME flesh, then He WAS the flesh person of Jesus Christ.  And that means God many times pointed out the fact that He was greater than Himself.  That also means that God prayed to Himself.

    What you are trying to do is take the word “BECAME” and make it mean “was in”.  But the scripture doesn't say the Word “was in” the flesh person of Jesus.  The scripture says the Word BECAME the flesh person Jesus.

    Do you understand?

    mike

    #222866
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 02 2010,15:07)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 02 2010,11:52)

    Quote (Gene Balthrop @ Nov. 02 2010,10:10)
    Let keep the questions short and not have so many in on post i will try not to also.


    Gene,

    Fair enough.  This is how I understand it so far:

    Who is the Word in John 1?

    Shimmer, Mike, Irene and Pierre:  The pre-existent Son of God.

    Gene, Kerwin:  The actual words that God spoke.

    Ed:  God's Holy Spirit.

    Do I have this correct so far?

    I would like to take these “choices” right down the line of scripture, starting with the Gospel of John.

    The first hurdle for Gene, Kerwin, Shimmer and Ed is John 1:14a.  It says “the word became flesh”.

    Note that it does NOT say “the Word came to be IN someone who was flesh”.

    Now without a big speech, can you all just let me know if your “choice” can reasonably BECOME flesh?

    Then we'll move on down the scriptural line.

    peace and love,
    mike


    Hi Mike,

    I love you brother, and I'm so glad you're here! My answer is:
    Before Jesus' baptism, “The Word” could ‘only’ become BOOK!

    Small speech: Now “The Word” can become, tape, record,
    microfiche, movie, telephone transmission and more flesh; ect.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    That wasn't the question Ed.

    Can your “choice” – the Holy Spirit – BECOME FLESH?  I know your answer is “Yes”, so let's move on down the scripture.

    John 1:14b NIV
    We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

    Can the above be said about your “choice” – the Holy Spirit?   Can God the Father be His own “only begotten Son”?  Can God the Father be said to have “come FROM the Father”?

    If so, please explain.

    And since none of the others have answered, I will move on with their “choices” also.

    Mike, Irene and Pierre:  Yes, Jesus can most definitely have this said about him.

    Shimmer:  I'm not sure where her view differs from mine.  She thinks the Word is God's Son.  She thinks the Word “became” the flesh person of Jesus Christ.  So far, she's in line with scripture……..as far as I can tell.

    Gene and Kerwin:  Can the “words of God”…….or “scripture”, be an “only begotten Son”?

    mike

    #222867
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (kerwin @ Nov. 02 2010,18:13)
    Mike Boll,

    I ask because I suspicion you acknowledge translation bias when the translation disagrees with your interpretation but not when it agrees. I then planned to demonstrate you were using two different measuring sticks hoping you would see your error or alleviate my suspicions by explain the apparent bias.


    I see your point, and agree to the “test” Kerwin. :)

    Yes, I look at what the Greek and Hebrew words actually say, and then agree with the translation that best words it.

    I quote from many different translations, but I like the NIV version far better that any of the others for “ease of understanding” so far.

    Would you like to start with a particular verse and compare our favorite translations of it……..or what?

    peace and love,
    mike

    #222868
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Gene Balthrop @ Nov. 03 2010,02:22)
    which (ARE) the (SEVEN SPIRITS OF GOD) sent forth into (ALL) the earth.


    Hi Gene,

    So then you DON'T agree with Ed that the Spirits OF God are actually the being of God Himself?

    Good. :)

    peace and love,
    mike

    #222869
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Baker @ Nov. 03 2010,03:13)
    kerwin, I asked you once before, do you then do away with all Scriptures, and say they are misinterpret?


    Hi Irene,

    It seems that Kerwin, when faced with a scripture that violates his belief, has started opting to claim “mistranslation” or “the scribe might have copied it down wrong”.

    While I'm sure there are instances of this in scripture, I don't think it should be used as a “failsafe” measure for any scripture that doesn't say what you want it to. At least without any scholarly evidence or thought to support your assertion.

    Just my two cents, nothing personal Kerwin
    mike

    #222881
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Hey Ed,

    I was just led to this scripture by a post from Pierre:

    Luke 11:13 NIV
    13 If you then, though you are evil, know how to give good gifts to your children, how much more will your Father in heaven give the Holy Spirit to those who ask him!”

    How does this scripture fit into your “The Holy Spirit IS God the Father” theory?

    mike

    #222893
    kerwin
    Participant

    To all,

    When teaching about resurrection after being tested by those of the Sadducee tradition Jesus quoted scripture that clearly demonstrated that those who had died the death of the corrupted flesh were yet living. He then stated the tenet of no resurrection that existed among the Sadducees at that time was false because scripture cannot be broken. Those of the Sadducee sects could answer, as certain individuals now do to support various tenets that contradict scripture, that Jesus was using human reasoning. What argument can Jesus use to counter their accusation and reveal its falseness to his students?

    I have more to say that is related but I believe this is enough to start.

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