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DesireTruthParticipant30–33 AD: The crucifixion of Jesus under the authority of Pontius Pilate.
66 AD: The outbreak of the Great Jewish Revolt against the Roman Empire.
70 AD: The siege of Jerusalem by Titus. The city was sacked, and the Second Temple was completely burned and destroyedThis is the time line you gave for the events and we have approximately 40 year between the death of the Jesus and the Temple being destroyed. Reading this prophecy (Dan 9:24-27) there are three time periods spoken of – 7 weeks, 62 weeks, and 1 week for a total of 70 weeks. The first time period begins when the first Temple is destroyed by Nebuchadnezzar and ends with the order going forth to rebuild Jerusalem by Cyrus, which begins the next period of 62 weeks. At the end of the 62 weeks is where Gabriel describes the destruction of the city and the Temple, the last week.
You believe the 70 weeks have been fulfilled already, and you are correct; but, you say in this last week is when the “messiah” (the Jesus is crucified) is cutoff. Except the Temple was still standing when he was crucified and wouldn’t be destroyed for another 40 years??? How can after the 62 weeks an anointed one be cutoff and left with nothing be the Jesus when the 62 weeks hasn’t ended?
If, as you say, there was a “period of reprieve”, that would mean there was another almost six weeks added to the prophecy. G-d didn’t say there will be 70 weeks and then HE would add another six. Or the “cutting off and left with nothing” happened 6 weeks before the end of the 62 weeks, which isn’t what G-d said either. Exactly how does the Jesus figure into this?
Back in my day of chrisitanity I spent weeks, months pondering and studying how this all worked out and and never arrived at a definitive answer because the math never worked out. Your “reasoning” of a “period of reprieve” sounds more like justification to reason away the fact the math fails and doesn’t support the Jesus.
Explain your version of how this works!
DesireTruthParticipantAt what point does the Jesus factor into this timeline and how does it parallel what Daniel was told in the 70 week prophecy?
You say the period between the crucifixion and the destruction of the Temple was a period of reprieve, a little confused. When I read vs 24, Gabriel explicitly tells Daniel 70 weeks have been determined upon the Jewish people and in this time period they are to end their rebellion, stop sinning, atone for their wickedness, and in doing so will usher in a period of perpetual righteousness. If they don’t turn away from all they are doing against G-d, HE would bring judgement on them and the Temple would be destroyed. So what is this 40 years of “reprieve” you’re talking about? G-d gave them 490 years to turn back to HIM and they failed. Even the Jesus told the disciples of the Temple’s destruction and with its destruction, ended the 70 week prophecy.
DesireTruthParticipantP.S. It didn’t go unnoticed that you ignored and didn’t comment on the fact the semicolon in Dan 9:25 is missing from today’s translations…wonder why???
More dodge and evade tactics of the christian who can’t explain why they believe what they believe; they just “believe.”
DesireTruthParticipantI don’t understand what you mean, please explain; because every translation I use DOESN’T have “but not for himself” in Daniel 9:26.
When examining the Hebrew the translation reads: And after the sixty-two weeks, an anointed one shall be cut off and have nothing. And the people of a prince who is to come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary. Its end shall come with a flood, and until the end there shall be war; desolations are decreed. I used AI to translate the Hebrew, because all other translators are useless, and the phrase “but not for himself” isn’t there. Then I look up the commentary of the NET bible and I find this, “The expression ‘have nothing’ is difficult. Presumably it refers to an absence of support or assistance for the anointed one at the time of his “cutting off.” The KJV rendering “but not for himself,” apparently suggesting a vicarious death, cannot be defended.” Did you catch the king Jimmy rendering CANNOT be defended!! The NET bible was translated by people who are experts in their fields of study (learn more here).
I then asked AI to explain how the king Jimmy could render this passage the way it did and the response was: The final rendering requires an interpretive step beyond the ordinary meanings of the individual Hebrew words. One can argue for that interpretation from a theological or contextual perspective, but the Hebrew phrase alone does not explicitly state that the anointed one dies for others rather than for himself. Seems king Jimmy took some liberties with how the Hebrew was to be translated and sound like more Jimmy corruption of the Hebrew.
Will anyone verify anything today?!?!?
DesireTruthParticipantYou realize the Targum is an interpretation/translation of the Hebrew into Aramaic and therefore wouldn’t be the original Hebrew. At any rate, how does this prove the Jesus is the reference in this passage in Isaiah and that he is the true Messiah. Still waiting for what the Jesus fulfilled as was spoken in the Tanakh of who the Messiah would be and what he would do when he came?
In your response concerning Amos 3:7 you failed to answer who can thwart G-d’s plans. I have no problem calling the NT a book of lies, I’ve proven it! So the problem would be your acceptance of those lies and therefore your rejection of what G-d actually said.
Blinding people’s understanding isn’t the same as not revealing a plan. The only exception to the verses you sited is the Daniel passage as G-d told him to “seal” it until the end. G-d did reveal who his Messiah will be and what he will do when he comes and the Jesus NEVER did any of it when he was here. To say he will accomplish it when he “returns” is a christian fallacy to explain away why the Jesus didn’t return “soon” when he said he would (Matthew 24, Rev 22:6,7,12,20) or accomplish what the Tanakh says the Messiah will do, and a twice coming messiah is NEVER spoken of in the Tanakh.
You then site Matt 11:25 as if that is proof G-d hid his plans, except it was revealed to the “infant”, so not really hidden was it!! Didn’t the Jesus speak in parables so those who heard wouldn’t understand and repent (sounds a little deceptive) and it was suppose to be a fulfilling of Isa 6:9,10. Except those were words said to Isaiah and meant for the southern kingdom NOT the people of the first century (would you call that a lie or truth?).
Does anyone verify anything anymore?!?!
DesireTruthParticipantExplain this, this is the original 1611 King Jimmy for Daniel 9:25 (grammar cleaned up):
Know therefore and understand, that from the going forth of the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalem, onto the Messiah the Prince, shall be seven weeks; and threescore and two weeks, the street shall be built again, and the wall, even in troublous times.
Pay very close attention to the semicolon after the seven weeks and where is this semicolon in the modern translation???? IT’S GONE!!!! (one may be lead to say the removal is corruption) That semicolon creates a pause and separates two ideas, the first being the first seven weeks and then a separate sixty two weeks. This means there will be TWO anointed ones being referenced, one in the first seven weeks and the next AFTER the sixty two weeks (sixty two weeks is the rebuilding of the Temple).
That first seven weeks begins with the destruction of the first temple by Nebuchadnezzar and ends with the decree of Cyrus to rebuild the city of Jerusalem and the Temple, your first anointed one, aka “messiah”, the beginning of the sixty two weeks. (for context read Jer29:10; Isa 44:28-45:1; Ezra 1:1-2).
It’s after the sixty two weeks the next anointed one is mentioned and this would take place in the last week of the seventy originally foretold, and it is this anointed one would be “cutoff.” It is also during this last week the Temple is destroyed. This canNOT be about the Jesus as he has been dead for almost 40 years. So the anointed one who is cutoff and left with nothing would be a religious leader, a high priest (G-d’s anointed); who would have been cutoff from performing his G-dly duties and with the destruction of the Temple left with nothing (remember they had no inheritance Duet 18:1), which is the cause of offerings and sacrifices ending…THERE IS NO TEMPLE ANYMORE TO PERFORM THEIR DUTIES TO G-D!!!!!
This is so elementary today; it isn’t I who is having difficulty understanding this, it seems it might be the brainwashed mind of the christian who fails to understand the words written or maybe it’s the gullible christian who believes everything they’re told without ever verifying it. READ AND STUDY THE TANAKH!!
What you have been told is a lie!! Put the pieces together, connect the dots; and when you do, you will see truth! Ask yourself why I can explain everything and back it up with scripture, but you can’t!!
DesireTruthParticipantDo you comprehend what you are told or read?? Nowhere did I insinuate Daniel was a liar; I said the Jesus was the liar!
The Jesus lied because what he said never happened. He told his disciples that they would see the Temple destroyed and he would return after that. It’s written in black and white, read Matthew 24; the Jesus tells the disciples they will be persecuted, hated, and even killed. He continues telling them when they see the “abomination of desolation” that Daniel speaks of (vs15) and it is then they are to run for the hills. He predicts there will be great suffering (Josephus gives a graphic account in the ‘War of the Jews’) and then tells them not to be deceived by false messiahs and prophets. The Jesus then says immediately after this suffering he would return. He tells the disciples “when you see all these things, know that he (the returning Jesus) is near.” Next he says to them, “I tell you the truth (but did he?!?!), this generation (the disciples generation) will not pass away until all these things take place.” All the things described happened in the first century and no the Jesus.
The Jesus never returned in the time table he told his disciples that he would and you’re going to tell me that isn’t a lie?!?!? Now prove the Jesus wasn’t a liar!
DesireTruthParticipantI see you couldn’t come up with a measly 20 prophecies the Jesus supposedly fulfilled…go figure! Should I have expected anything less?
The christian has to be one of the most gullible species on the planet; Isa 53 isn’t about a messiah figure, that was made up by the catholic church (the origin of ALL christian faiths). Can you prove it’s about a messiah figure, and the answer is a big fat NO!! You can’t even explain who is speaking where in this Servant Song.
Daniel 9 is a prophecy about the destruction of the Temple, even the Jesus quotes Daniel in Matthew 24 when he is talking about the Temple’s destruction; he lied to that generation about seeing his return; rendering him a false prophet as what he said didn’t come true. One also has to read the entire chapter of Daniel to understand what is happening at the end and why he was so distraught; but not the christian, they only have to focus on a few verses and make up an interpretation and forget the context of the entire passage. You’ll also have to explain why “anointed one” in Daniel 9:25,26 is translated as messiah in the king Jimmy when in every other place “anointed one” is used and isn’t translated as “messiah.” The reason for this “messiah” interpretation was to make this passage sound like the Jesus. Did you know King Cyrus was called G-d’s anointed one, weren’t all the priests referred as G-d’s anointed, and what about the Israelite kings? Since they were all called mashiach, which in English is translated to messiah, there have been MANY messiahs.
You still haven’t proved the Jesus is the true Messiah; if the Jesus was the true Messiah and supposedly died for the sins of mankind, why did G-d say that no one can take on the sins of another and the wicked are responsible for their sins. The Jesus dying for the sins of others sounds like a direct conflict to what G-d said. Please provide the passage that says G-d change HIS mind!
Why do people refuse to verify anything they are told, completely perplexed!!
DesireTruthParticipantOver 300 Prophecies were fulfilled in Jesus life and ministry!
I am still waiting for you or anyone to prove the Jesus is the true Messiah; why is this such a difficult question for the “believing” christian? You parrot the Jesus fulfilled over 300 prophecies, please provide the prophecy the Messiah was to commit suicide to be the propitiation for the sins of mankind. Can you even name 20 prophecies and give the Tanakh reference for each??
DesireTruthParticipantAlmost three weeks ago I asked you six simple questions about being included into G-d’s house; what’s the matter, you have no response?? Isaiah never explains, so what are you doing to accomplished all of them?
Have you attached/joined yourself to G-d?
Do you serve G-d alone?
Do you love the name of HIM who created all things?
Are you HIS servant?
Do you know how to keep the Sabbath so as NOT to profane it?
Do you faithfully keep G-d’s covenant?
DesireTruthParticipantIs Satan immortal?
Does it matter?? This is the type of nonsense that creates religions.You quote (copy/paste what someone told you to believe) the passage from Ezk 28:16-18 and because it says “cherub” it must automatically refer to angels because angels are called cherubs. Did you read the passage in the context it was written?!?!? Did you begin in verse 11 where it explicitly states who this passage is directed to?!?! “Then the word of the Lord came to me, saying: Son of man, raise a lamentation over the king of Tyre and say to him, So said the Lord God: You are the one who engraves images, full of wisdom and perfect in beauty.” This passage is directed to the king of Tyre and NOT an angel. Can you explain when the shift happened from the king to Satan?
Isn’t amazing how easily people are fooled into believing something; it’s what happens when one fails to verify what they are told is truth and become the gullible masses.
DesireTruthParticipantWhat is the meaning behind Isa 56:1-8? You always post a passage without explanation, as if the simple reading of it is explanatory. Why is G-d talking about the Sabbath and connecting back to the foreigner and the eunuch?
You have found an interesting passage, but the meaning goes way beyond what you seem to be suggesting it says (once again no explanation, so all I can do is guess); it would seem you believe the foreigner is also suppose to observe the Sabbath. A simple reading of the passage would suggest that because it says, “Neither let the foreigner, who has joined himself to Yahweh, speak, saying, “Yahweh will surely separate me from his people” and this continues from vs2 where keeping the Sabbath is mentioned. The passage is stating the foreigner who observes the Sabbath will not be treated as separate from G-d’s people and that’s where you stop, but you MUST keep reading.
It is conditional for a none Jew, who is an outsider, to be included in G-d’s house and it’s not simply observing the Sabbath. “As for the foreigners who attach themselves to the LORD, to minister to Him, and to love the name of the LORD, to be His servants, all who keep the sabbath and do not profane it, and who hold fast to My covenant. I will bring them to My sacred mount.” A none Jew must first attach themselves to G-d, serve HIM, love HIS name (above all other names, no gods before HIM – cough, cough, “the Jesus”), to be HIS servant, keep the Sabbath and not profane it, and be faithful to G-d’s covenant. To be included in G-d house, G-d says the none Jew must follow these six things Isaiah wrote. Can one skip any of these items and be allowed into G-d’s house?
Have you attached/joined yourself to G-d?
Do you serve G-d alone?
Do you love the name of HIM who created all things?
Are you HIS servant?
Do you know how to keep the Sabbath so as NOT to profane it?
Do you faithfully keep G-d’s covenant?
Since Isaiah never explains how this is accomplished by the none Jew; how does one find out what this means and how a none Jew can be included in G-d’s house? I suppose if one wants to know how to follow what’s written one MUST be who Zechariah is speaking of when he writes “In those days ten people from all languages and nations will take firm hold of one Jew by the hem of his robe and say, ‘Let us go with you, because we have heard that God is with you.’” That is to seek out a Jew who’s suppose to know. It doesn’t seem like we are there where the Jew is willing to teach, if they even know how at this point, or the none Jew is willing to seek out and listen to the Jew.
There is so much your religion doesn’t tell you, either because they don’t know or they don’t want you to know; this is why I keep saying to verify everything that is taught.
DesireTruthParticipantThe seventh-day Sabbath was instituted at Creation for all humanity, not for a single nation.
Did you not read my last sentence of my last post? I explicitly said to follow G-d’s example of resting and your body will thank you for it. Did comprehension fail you at that moment or did you not read all that I wrote? I’ve asked you in the past to tell me what specific day of the week G-d finished creation and you remained silent. What day did G-d finish that correlates to our calender today? Obviously no one knows; at creation HE established the seven day week and after working for six of those days, take a single day of the week and rest…HIS example.
You’ll also note in Genesis 2:3 G-d made this day holy, sanctified it, set it apart, distinguished it from the others; HE made it a day of rest, because that was the example HE set. However, nowhere in the passage does it state to stop all work and spend the day in worship of G-d. G-d later established “the Torah” for the nation of Israel as a guide to how they where to worship HIM AND how to treat those around them; READ THE LAWS GIVEN TO ISRAEL I gave you a link, did you take the time and read all those “burdensome laws”? It was within the Torah G-d established a specific day of rest for the nation and how they were to observe it.
Stop pretending your Jewish and the Saturday Sabbath applies to you as it is written in the Torah, it was given to Israel and not world; Paul confirmed that. So to continually post about the Saturday Sabbath observance because that’s what G-d told the nation of Israel to do and apply it to yourself is wrong! Unless you can provide a passage that states otherwise (won’t be holding my breath). Then to call all other “christian” faith sinful or disconnected from G-d because they don’t do as you do is also wrong and the fact you don’t see that means one thing, your brainwashed! Nowhere does the bible state the gentile is to observe the Jewish laws and that’s what your faith is demanding all others do as you hyper-focus on the 4th Command given to Israel.
Do you really not see this???
DesireTruthParticipantThe Sabbath day is once again the topic of discussion and the claim by some of not observing it sinful. YAWN!!!! Please note that this particular religious organization primarily quotes from the Jewish bible to support their doctrine, but the Tanakh was given to Israel and NOT the world!!
I find it interesting the above Sabbath observer quotes the Jesus who says he’s the “lord of the Sabbath”, but he speaking to the Jewish people and not the world. The Jesus explicitly said “I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.” So the Jesus didn’t come for all mankind. Which also confirms he isn’t the true Messiah as he didn’t fulfill Isaiah 66:23 “And new moon after new moon, And sabbath after sabbath, All flesh shall come to worship Me.”
Since all christians follow Paul, and what did he say about the Sabbath? “Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holy day, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days: Which are a shadow of things to come.”
Is the none Jew suppose to observe the Jewish Sabbath or not? According to Paul a big fat NO!!! So when a religious organization says you are less than, are sinful, or will receive a lesser place in heaven for not observing the JEWISH Sabbath, they can be ignored because they are pushing a false religious doctrine (at least according to everyone’s favorite “apostle” Paul).
Follow G-d’s example and take a day off each week and rest, your body will thank you. But stop pretending you’re Jewish and the Saturday Sabbath applies to you.
DesireTruthParticipantA another thought concerning Revelation being written before the Temple destruction, did the Jesus, as he said, come “soon”? Did those who put him to death see his return? The answer is an emphatic NO!! Since the Jesus didn’t do as he said, it would make him a false “prophet” according to Moses in Deut 18:20-22 saying a false prophet is one who’s prophecies don’t come true. In Jer 23:16 G-d says they speak of their own minds and not HIS and G-d spoke thru HIS prophets, giving credit to the source – HE said to me, the Lord says, this is the Lord’s message, says the Lord, etc – where is this in the NT?
The truth is there, but does anyone want it?
DesireTruthParticipant(IBA)
Are you really this obtuse?!?!? The “my people” isn’t a reference to Israel and Isaiah isn’t the “speaker” in this part; it’s a reference to the nations.
When are you going to identify who is speaking where?? Once you do that, your muddy water will suddenly become clear.
DesireTruthParticipantWhy do I say Revelation was written before the destruction of the Temple, the words written place it before its destruction.
Rev 1:7 (Look! He is returning with the clouds, and every eye will see him, even those who pierced him, and all the tribes on the earth will mourn because of him. This will certainly come to pass! Amen.)
Even those who pierced him (the Jesus) will see his return. Who pierced the Jesus 40 years prior and will be alive to see the Jesus return? All those involved in his death.
Rev 2:9 I know the distress you are suffering and your poverty (but you are rich). I also know the slander against you by those who call themselves Jews and really are not, but are a synagogue of Satan.
Rev 3:9 Listen! I am going to make those people from the synagogue of Satan – who say they are Jews yet are not, but are lying – Look, I will make them come and bow down at your feet and acknowledge that I have loved you.
Who did the Jesus say was the father of the religious leaders (John 8:44)? Who persecuted the early church (read Acts)? That power came from the religious leaders while the Temple stood.
Rev 10:11 Then they told me: “You must prophesy again about many peoples, nations, languages, and kings.”
If John was an old man at the end of the first century when Revelation is claimed to be written, how does he go out to prophecy to “many peoples, nations, languages, and kings”? A younger John can receive this commission to go out into the world.
Rev 11:1 Then a measuring rod like a staff was given to me, and I was told, “Get up and measure the temple of God, and the altar, and the ones who worship there.”
What temple was John measuring and it is speaking in the present of those worshiping there. Can’t worship in a temple that has been destroyed.
Rev 17:9 (This requires a mind that has wisdom.) The seven heads are seven mountains the woman sits on. They are also seven kings: 10 five have fallen; one is, and the other has not yet come, but whenever he does come, he must remain for only a brief time.
Who are the seven kings spoken of? Since John was writing this during Roman captivity, it would make sense the kings are from the Roman Empire. The first five have fallen Julius, Augustus, Tiberius, Caligula, Claudius. The “one who is” would be Nero who reigned from 54-68 is the sixth one who reigned. The one yet to come who lasts “a brief time” is Galba, who held the throne barely seven months before he was cut down. If we use the year 95 for the written date, Domitian was emperor in this period and was the twelfth and doesn’t fit what John wrote.
Rev 1:1,3 The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must happen very soon. He made it clear by sending his angel to his servant John. Blessed is the one who reads the words of this prophecy aloud, and blessed are those who hear and obey the things written in it, because the time is near!
At the beginning of the book John is told of events that “must happen very soon” because “the time is near.” This is a sound of urgency, not kick this can down the road for 2000 years. This is a time frame spoken to a man who has an understanding of time as given to him by G-d.
Rev 22:6,7,12,20
6. Then the angel said to me, “These words are reliable and true. The Lord, the God of the spirits of the prophets, has sent his angel to show his servants what must happen soon.” 7. (Look! I am coming soon! Blessed is the one who keeps the words of the prophecy expressed in this book.)
12. Look! I am coming soon
20. The one who testifies to these things says, “Yes, I am coming soon!”
Four times the word “soon” is used in chapter 22! First to say the events described will take place soon and the next three to signify the Jesus’ return. Note the sound of urgency again and the usage of exclamation points!! These opening and closing statements are encapsulating the events spoken of in this book.
Why do I include these passages to say Revelation was written before the Temple’s destruction, because that is what the Jesus said in Matthew 24 when he told the disciples the Temple was coming down and it was their generation that would see it.
Prove me wrong!
DesireTruthParticipantIt means something, and it is far more likely to relate to the fulfilment of prophecy than to be a random verse with no real significance.
In your next post concerning Ps 22; what is the prophetic correlation to the Jesus of David lamenting over being surrounded by his enemies and speaking of what they will do to him if he is caught? This isn’t a “random verse”, this is David speaking from the heart and knowing G-d would deliver him from his enemies. Do we read from the same bible??
All scripture is inspired by God.
I guess that would depend on what side you are speaking of. The first half, absolutely, G-d spoke thru his prophets all the time; the second half, highly questionable. How many lies can there be in the NT before it isn’t the “inspired word of G-d”? The book of Matthew is loaded, the book of Hebrews should be ripped out for all the lies and twistings that are in it, and where does one begin with Paul and his deception?
The underlying question that still must be answered is whether or not the Jesus is the true Messiah spoken of in the Tanakh and what did he fulfill, if anything, that is spoken of the true Messiah.
Question and verify everything!
DesireTruthParticipantYou as do others seem to think that God should have spelled everything out so clearly, that even the enemies of God could have understood it and therefore, not fulfill it.
You keep returning to this idea; now explain Amos 3:7, “Certainly the sovereign LORD does nothing without first revealing his plan to his servants the prophets.” Apparently, G-d does reveal his plan first. You keep speaking of this “enemy” that could somehow thwart the plans of G-d…REALLY!!! Who?? This rolls back to after the millennial reign of the Jesus when Satan is released to deceive many. What happened to the NT during this period as it explains what is going to happen, since Satan is bound in the abyss he can no longer be deceiving anyone so the world must be sinless, and isn’t the great king the Jesus suppose to be ruling during this time and he didn’t warn of the deception and how to protect against this deception at the end of this 1000 years?!? Something isn’t adding up!
Along the same line of G-d revealing HIS plan, HE DID reveal the kind of individual HIS Messiah will be and what he’ll do when he does come…been over that too! The only thing the Jesus fulfilled according to the Tanakh was he was Jewish. When did G-d say he was sending a miracle worker, a man who would have the authority to forgive sin, a man who would die for the forgiveness of sin (human sacrifice), be raised from the dead, ascend to heaven to sit at G-d’s side. All of this would have been prophesied by the prophets and there is NONE of this in the Tanakh.
In fact, it’s the opposite; the Jesus never speaks of gathering the Jewish people from exile and return them to Israel; never about rebuilding the Temple that was standing while he was alive; will rule at a time of world wide peace; will rule when the Jewish people will observe G-d’s commandments (all 613); rule when all people will come to acknowledge and serve one G-d, not just those who “believe” in the Jesus; this Messiah will rule with true justice that G-d instills in him. He will be a man, not some divine being as the NT teaches.
DesireTruthParticipantWhere do I begin?!?!? You aren’t connecting the dots. IF you were willing to engage in an actual conversation, it would be wonderful; then we could have a back and forth, asking and answering questions, and explaining our thoughts. What I’ve been finding out, for the christian at least, it’s one sided; it’s what is believed by them, or nothing.
Concerning the Revelation comment, I’ve explained that connection starting in Matthew 24 where the Jesus tells the disciples it would be their generation who would see the destruction of the Temple (even quotes Daniel) and after that they would see his return. In I Peter he speaks to the scattered (remember Israel was dispersed) saying “in these last times”; he is speaking to those as if it’s the latter days and the Jesus is returning. Even the liar Paul speaks in the present to those in Thessalonica about taking comfort in the Lords return when he says “we who are alive…we will be together with the Lord always.” Even the anti-G-d Paul was expecting the return of the Jesus in his life time.
In Peter’s second epistle there is the change in expectation of the Jesus’ return and we get the “thousand years is but a day”; Peter realized the Jesus wasn’t returning as he said he would. To make the connection to Ps 90:4 is great, but are we looking with understanding or just parallel words?
“Indeed, a thousand years in Your eyes are like yesterday gone by.” Time, as we know, is irrelevant to God. For Him, a thousand years are like a day in the past; they leave but a memory. “Like a watch of the night.” A period of time that goes unnoticed by those who sleep through the watch.
Of course time is different for us than for G-d; HE created it and gave it to mankind as a tool of measure, HE isn’t bound by it, isn’t subject to it, and lives outside it. So I do understand this concept and have repeated these words many times. In the case of Peter, although the time concept is there, it isn’t what he was trying to convey. Peter was reasoning away why the Jesus didn’t return when he said he would and was still expecting him to return in his lifetime.
When G-d does speak with a time table, is it for HIS benefit or ours? Does HE speak to mankind mysteriously or plainly? This then goes back to the Jesus telling the disciples of his return after the Temple destruction and saying he was coming “quickly” and “soon” in Revelation; was this for G-d’s benefit or ours? So it’s not about those in the first century or me today “failing to understanding” what time means to G-d, but NT believers not understanding that G-d communicates in the way man understands and not in some lofty way to confuse.
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