Worship God the Father only?

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  • #223446
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Keith:

    Quote
    OK Mike

    Since you and David insist that the word “proskyneō” does not mean “worship” but simply a “bowing down” out of respect for a king, and that here they are simply mocking the “bowing down” (“proskyneō”) of a king, then you should be able to give me one example of what they are mocking in the NT examples with the use of the word “proskyneō”.


    I don't think either I or David have ever claimed that “proskuneo” cannot mean “God-Worship”.  Of course it CAN mean that.  What we point out is that it doesn't ALWAYS mean that.  

    And we have both showed you that the soldiers were mocking the obeisance done to a king, not the Worship given to God.  And the fact that Matthew uses a different word for the soldiers mockingly bowing down before Jesus should go even farther to prove that the word “proskuneo” that Mark used does not always mean “God-Worship”.  Both writers were describing the same action, but Mark uses “proskuneo”, while Matthew describes the same exact event using the word “gonupeteo”.

    Keith:

    Quote
    Where is the example of this word in the NT of a bowing down out of respect by any Apostle or Believer to any other than the Father and Jesus where it was not forbidden by the recipient?


    Listen to yourself Keith. :D  First, you for some reason say we must ONLY use NT examples, as if the scholars who produced the LXX used “proskuneo” in a different way than the NT writers.  ???  And now you put even more stipulations on us? :)  No, I've got a more sensible idea.  You have claimed that there are no “obeisance” uses of “proskuneo” in the NT.  Aside from the soldiers, below are two others……….please deal with them.  It's like you originally asked us to show you that Jesus is Lord.  And when we do, you limit it to only the NT.  And when we show you that, you limit to words spoken only by Paul.  And when we do that, you limit to only words spoken by Paul TO Timothy.  And when we do that, you limit it to only words spoken to Timothy in the town of Corinth on a Monday.  And so on and so on.  It's ridiculous.  Stick with your original claim and be man enough to either defend your original statement or admit that you were mistaken.

    Revelation 3:9 NIV
    9 I will make those who are of the synagogue of Satan, who claim to be Jews though they are not, but are liars—I will make them come and fall down at your feet and acknowledge that I have loved you.

    Acts 10:25 NIV
    As Peter entered the house, Cornelius met him and fell at his feet in reverence.

    And within your explanation how both of these uses of “proskuneo” are “God-Worship”, maybe you can also explain why the 100+ trinitarian scholars that translated the NIV didn't render them as “worship”.

    To the rest of you, don't follow Keith down the rabbit hole.  He cannot refute the point in question, so he will divert that point with many out of context scriptures that are off topic.

    peace and love,
    mike

    #223447
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Keith:

    Quote

  • Why did John and Jesus choose the word if he wanted to portray the “True worship” to the Father could mean anything less?

  • They DIDN'T want it to mean anything less in this scripture Keith.  That doesn't mean that the same word cannot ALSO be used in another context to mean something less than “God-Worship” as is proven throughout the scriptures…..both LXX AND NT.

    Keith:

    Quote

  • In all the scriptures that speak of Jesus being worshipped (proskyneō) why didn’t Jesus once say do not worship me?

  • If Jesus, who clearly said we are to worship ONLY Jehovah our God, was ever being “worshipped” in scripture, he most definitely WOULD have said something.  But Jesus never was “God-Worshipped” in scripture.

    Keith:

    Quote

  • To say that it is because Jesus wasn’t being worshipped but just being honored lacks evidence because there are no other NT examples of the word proskyneō being used toward any one with honor other than the Father and Jesus. In every case the word is directed to any other it is refused or it is a worshipping falsely.

  • First, your statement is inaccurate, for there are at least three occurances in the NT.  Second, you have no reason to exclude the LXX in the first place………unless you KNOW it refutes your claim.  And since you DO know it refutes your claim, you attempt to limit us to only NT scriptures, and then put even more limitations on those NT scriptures.  Face it Keith, these are the actions of a desperate and dishonest man.

    Keith:

    Quote

  • Please can someone give us a NT example of the word being used in honor to any other than the Father and Jesus? Where is the NT example of a bowing down to someone out of great respect?

  • You have three to start with for now.  After we discuss those three, we'll discuss the OT occurances, okay? :)

    No more diversions or limitations, okay Keith?  Either defend your original claim or admit that you were mistaken.

    mike

    #223448
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 07 2010,04:56)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 06 2010,13:30)

    John 1:1 speaks of “a mighty one” who was WITH “THE Almighty One” in the beginning.  Neither John 1:1, nor any other scripture in existence speaks of TWO Gods.


    Mike

    So you not only have abandoned every known translation on Biblegateway.com and Blueletterbible.org and the NET, but also the NWT?

    None of them say “In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the Word was the [a] mighty one”.

    Mike knows better than all the translators including the NWT and even the Apostle John who stuck the word “Theos” right next to “Theos”.   :D

    WJ


    Actually Keith, John stuck the word “theos” next to the words “THE theos”. And he mentioned that one was WITH the other.

    Common sense brother.

    mike

    #223451

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 06 2010,14:30)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 07 2010,04:56)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 06 2010,13:30)

    John 1:1 speaks of “a mighty one” who was WITH “THE Almighty One” in the beginning.  Neither John 1:1, nor any other scripture in existence speaks of TWO Gods.


    Mike

    So you not only have abandoned every known translation on Biblegateway.com and Blueletterbible.org and the NET, but also the NWT?

    None of them say “In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the Word was the [a] mighty one”.

    Mike knows better than all the translators including the NWT and even the Apostle John who stuck the word “Theos” right next to “Theos”.   :D

    WJ


    Actually Keith, John stuck the word “theos” next to the words “THE theos”.  And he mentioned that one was WITH the other.

    Common sense brother.

    mike


    Yep

    That is how we are supposed to understand scripture everyone.

    COMMON SENSE

    HMMM, I thought scripture is to be understood by revelation through the Holy Spirit?

    I will stick to the Spirit revealing truth and not what mike says.

    For he has his own “Private Interpretation” and we know what Peter said about that.

    BTW Mike, when Isaiah calls Jesus the “Mighty God” does this mean he is saying 'he is the mighty mighty one“? :D

    WJ

    #223452

    Mike

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 05 2010,12:22)
    Where is the example of this word in the NT of a bowing down out of respect by any Apostle or Believer to any other than the Father and Jesus where it was not forbidden by the recipient?


    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 06 2010,14:11)
    Stick with your original claim and be man enough to either defend your original statement or admit that you were mistaken.


    Mike that is my original claim found here… 7th post down. So now how about admitting you were mistaken?

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 06 2010,14:11)
    Revelation 3:9 NIV
    9 I will make those who are of the synagogue of Satan, who claim to be Jews though they are not, but are liars—I will make them come and fall down at your feet and acknowledge that I have loved you.


    Yes Mike they will worship at their feet and acknowledge that Jesus loves them. Surely you cannot believe Jesus is saying they would worship them with the same word he used to describe “True Worship” the verb that comes from the masculine noun for the “worshippers” in John 4 do you? Did you miss that point?

    They will worship God at their feet and acknowledge that Jesus loves them. It is the same thing that Paul describes here…

    But if all prophesy, and there come in one that believeth not, or one unlearned, he is convinced of all, he is judged of all: And thus are the secrets of his heart made manifest; and “so falling down on his face he will worship (proskyneō) God, and report that God is in you of a truth”. 1 Cor 14:24, 25

    Are they just bowing down to God here or are they worshipping God. If Paul understood the word to mean a bowing down and not worship then why the term “Falling down on his face he will worship (proskyneō” God), that would be  redundant wouldn’t it?

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 06 2010,14:11)
    Acts 10:25 NIV
    As Peter entered the house, Cornelius met him and fell at his feet in reverence.


    So Mike why do you quote it out of context? If Peter did not think the man was worshipping him then why did he say…

    But Peter took him up, saying, Stand up; “I MYSELF ALSO AM A MAN. Acts 10:26

    Why did Luke the writer of the book of Acts use the word proskyneō every other time he used it as “Worship” of idols or of God if he did not understand the word to mean worship?

    Mike you didn’t answer these questions…

    Can you tell me what the definition of the word “proskyneō” is to you when you worship “proskyneō” the Father?

    How do you worship the Father?

    WJ

    #223454

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 05 2010,12:22)

  • Why did John and Jesus choose the word if he wanted to portray the “True worship” to the Father could mean anything less?

  • Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 06 2010,14:25)
    They DIDN'T want it to mean anything less in this scripture Keith.


    Then why do you assume that they didn't truly worship Jesus when the word proskyneō was applied to him since he used the word to describe “true worship”? And you have not addressed the point that the word comes from a masculine noun which means “Worshippers”.  

    WJ

    #223456

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 05 2010,12:22)

  • In all the scriptures that speak of Jesus being worshipped (proskyneō) why didn’t Jesus once say do not worship me?

  • Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 06 2010,14:25)
    If Jesus, who clearly said we are to worship ONLY Jehovah our God, was ever being “worshipped” in scripture, he most definitely WOULD have said something.  But Jesus never was “God-Worshipped” in scripture.


    mike

    So it was okay for them to bow down to Jesus and grab his feet and “proskyneō” him yet Peter found it over the top when it was done to him and claimed he was just a man? And the Angels in Revelations also felt the same way.

    Seems like you believe Jesus was less honorable than Peter and the Angels? Rev 19:10 – Rev 22:8, 9

    WJ

    #223458

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 05 2010,12:22)

  • To say that it is because Jesus wasn’t being worshipped but just being honored lacks evidence because there are no other NT examples of the word proskyneō being used toward any one with honor other than the Father and Jesus. In every case the word is directed to any other it is refused or it is a worshipping falsely.

  • Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 06 2010,14:25)
    First, your statement is inaccurate, for there are at least three occurances in the NT.  Second, you have no reason to exclude the LXX in the first place………unless you KNOW it refutes your claim.  And since you DO know it refutes your claim, you attempt to limit us to only NT scriptures, and then put even more limitations on those NT scriptures.  Face it Keith, these are the actions of a desperate and dishonest man.


    Mike is this what it comes down to, you calling me dishonest because I disagree with your interpretation and the use of the word worship in the NT? The accurrances you mention have been debunked. I am simply showing you the use of the term in the NT under the New Covenant that is all. How about the early Forefathers mike, how did they understand the word? To call me dishonest is purely a lie.

    WJ

    #223461

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 05 2010,12:22)

  • Please can someone give us a NT example of the word being used in honor to any other than the Father and Jesus? Where is the NT example of a bowing down to someone out of great respect?

  • Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 06 2010,14:25)
    You have three to start with for now.  After we discuss those three, we'll discuss the OT occurances, okay? :)


    Mike

    Already debunked! :)

    WJ

    #223466
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 07 2010,06:02)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 06 2010,14:30)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 07 2010,04:56)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 06 2010,13:30)

    John 1:1 speaks of “a mighty one” who was WITH “THE Almighty One” in the beginning.  Neither John 1:1, nor any other scripture in existence speaks of TWO Gods.


    Mike

    So you not only have abandoned every known translation on Biblegateway.com and Blueletterbible.org and the NET, but also the NWT?

    None of them say “In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the Word was the [a] mighty one”.

    Mike knows better than all the translators including the NWT and even the Apostle John who stuck the word “Theos” right next to “Theos”.   :D

    WJ


    Actually Keith, John stuck the word “theos” next to the words “THE theos”.  And he mentioned that one was WITH the other.

    Common sense brother.

    mike


    Yep

    That is how we are supposed to understand scripture everyone.

    COMMON SENSE

    HMMM, I thought scripture is to be understood by revelation through the Holy Spirit?

    I will stick to the Spirit revealing truth and not what mike says.

    For he has his own “Private Interpretation” and we know what Peter said about that.

    BTW Mike, when Isaiah calls Jesus the “Mighty God” does this mean he is saying 'he is the mighty mighty one“? :D

    WJ


    Exactly Keith.  We should use the common sense God gave us as opposed to using “COMMON NONSENSE” to say a father and a son are the same exact being. :)

    You mention revelation by Spirit?  But you forget that even Satan can masquerade as an angel of light.  Against what will we “test” those spirits Keith?  Against our “COMMON SENSE” understanding of what the scriptures actually teach.  And face it Keith, the COMMON SENSE God gave us should tell you that God Almighty cannot possibly be said to be WITH God Almighty.  For one thing, that would mean we have TWO Gods.  For another, that would completely destroy the meaning of “Almighty”, which means “the Mightiest OF the mighty”.

    Keith:

    Quote
    BTW Mike, when Isaiah calls Jesus the “Mighty God” does this mean he is saying 'he is the mighty mighty one“? :D


    That's EXACTLY what God meant by that Keith.  As opposed to Himself, who is the ONLY “MIGHTIEST, or ALMIGHTY mighty one”.

    Why don't we take this up in the John 1:1-3 thread?  You can explain why all English translators add the indefinite “a” in front of “theos” in two scritpures in Acts, but for some reason, all but the NWT refuse to add it in John 1:1.  

    mike

    #223467

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 06 2010,16:54)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 07 2010,06:02)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 06 2010,14:30)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 07 2010,04:56)

    mikeboll64,Nov. wrote:

    John 1:1 speaks of “a mighty one” who was WITH “THE Almighty One” in the beginning.  Neither John 1:1, nor any other scripture in existence speaks of TWO Gods.


    Mike

    So you not only have abandoned every known translation on Biblegateway.com and Blueletterbible.org and the NET, but also the NWT?

    None of them say “In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the Word was the [a] mighty one”.

    Mike knows better than all the translators including the NWT and even the Apostle John who stuck the word “Theos” right next to “Theos”.   :D

    WJ


    Actually Keith, John stuck the word “theos” next to the words “THE theos”.  And he mentioned that one was WITH the other.

    Common sense brother.

    mike


    Yep

    That is how we are supposed to understand scripture everyone.

    COMMON SENSE

    HMMM, I thought scripture is to be understood by revelation through the Holy Spirit?

    I will stick to the Spirit revealing truth and not what mike says.

    For he has his own “Private Interpretation” and we know what Peter said about that.

    BTW Mike, when Isaiah calls Jesus the “Mighty God” does this mean he is saying 'he is the mighty mighty one“? :D

    WJ


    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 06 2010,16:54)
    You mention revelation by Spirit?  But you forget that even Satan can masquerade as an angel of light.  Against what will we “test” those spirits Keith?  Against our “COMMON SENSE” understanding of what the scriptures actually teach.  And face it Keith, the COMMON SENSE God gave us should tell you that God Almighty cannot possibly be said to be WITH God Almighty.  For one thing, that would mean we have TWO Gods.  For another, that would completely destroy the meaning of “Almighty”, which means “the Mightiest OF the mighty”.


    Mike

    Ah because of “Common Sense” we are supposed to change the meaning of the text and develop our own translation which is totally against every major translation and every credible Greek Scholar who are the experts in Biblical Hebrew and Greek?

    No thanks mike. I would rather believe the written scriptures and those who brought them to us rather than you!

    WJ

    #223468

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 06 2010,16:54)

    Keith:

    Quote
    BTW Mike, when Isaiah calls Jesus the “Mighty God” does this mean he is saying 'he is the mighty mighty one“? :D


    That's EXACTLY what God meant by that Keith.  As opposed to Himself, who is the ONLY “MIGHTIEST, or ALMIGHTY mighty one”.

    Why don't we take this up in the John 1:1-3 thread?  You can explain why all English translators add the indefinite “a” in front of “theos” in two scritpures in Acts, but for some reason, all but the NWT refuse to add it in John 1:1.  

    mike


    Mike

    Oh so the text doesn't say “El gibbowr” but “gibbowr gibbowr”? Check it out folks, Mike rewrites the scriptures again.

    BTW Your proof text in Acts proves nothing because there are many cases where the definite article is not added when refering to the Father. But we also have scripture where the definite article is added to God when refering to Jesus.  :D

    You create another strawman.

    WJ

    #223469
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 05 2010,12:22)
    Where is the example of this word in the NT of a bowing down out of respect by any Apostle or Believer to any other than the Father and Jesus where it was not forbidden by the recipient?


    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 06 2010,14:11)
    Stick with your original claim and be man enough to either defend your original statement or admit that you were mistaken.


    Mike that is my original claim found here… 7th post down. So now how about admitting you were mistaken?


    This is the challenge you made to me, from page 98:

    Quote
    Hi Mike

    Thanks!

    We are not dealing with its use in the OT. We are dealing with Jesus use of the word in John 4 and the NT use of the word.

    Now please show us where the NT use of the word does not mean “Worship” but a bowing down with respect!

    WJ

    Quote

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 06 2010,14:11)
    Revelation 3:9 NIV
    9 I will make those who are of the synagogue of Satan, who claim to be Jews though they are not, but are liars—I will make them come and fall down at your feet and acknowledge that I have loved you.


    Yes Mike they will worship at their feet and acknowledge that Jesus loves them. Surely you cannot believe Jesus is saying they would worship them with the same word he used to describe “True Worship” the verb that comes from the masculine noun for the “worshippers” in John 4 do you? Did you miss that point?

    They will worship God at their feet and acknowledge that Jesus loves them.


    It doesn't mention God anywhere in that statement Keith.  So instead of taking it as it is clearly meant, that the “synagogue of Satan” will be made to prostrate themselves before the true believers of Jesus because they were the righteous ones, you would rather insert the word God into the scripture………..just so you can be right about “proskuneo”?  :)

    Quote
    It is the same thing that Paul describes here…

    But if all prophesy, and there come in one that believeth not, or one unlearned, he is convinced of all, he is judged of all: And thus are the secrets of his heart made manifest; and “so falling down on his face he will worship (proskyneō) God, and report that God is in you of a truth”. 1 Cor 14:24, 25

    Are they just bowing down to God here or are they worshipping God. If Paul understood the word to mean a bowing down and not worship then why the term “Falling down on his face he will worship (proskyneō” God), that would be  redundant wouldn’t it?


    I've already answer this.  2 Samuel 1:2 LXX:

    And it came to pass on the third day, that, behold, a man came from the camp, from the people of Saul, and his garments were rent, and earth [was] upon his head:
    and it came to pass when he went in to David, that he fell upon the earth, and did obeisance to him.

    Was that also “redundant”, or was the man actually “God-Worshipping” David?  Please answer this time.

    Quote

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 06 2010,14:11)
    Acts 10:25 NIV
    As Peter entered the house, Cornelius met him and fell at his feet in reverence.


    So Mike why do you quote it out of context? If Peter did not think the man was worshipping him then why did he say…

    But Peter took him up, saying, Stand up; “I MYSELF ALSO AM A MAN. Acts 10:26


    Keith, please explain to me why you think Cornelius thought that Peter was actually “God Himself”.  Why do you think that Cornelius would think a man was the God that no one has ever seen?  Cornelius was bowing to show Peter honor as being one FROM God, not God Himself.  And Peter was honoring Jesus' teaching that none of the disciples should “lord it over” the others.  Peter was saying, “Don't bow down before me, I am just a man like you.  I hold no special position in the body of Christ that you should place me above yourself, for Jesus said whoever is least will be most.”

    Quote
    Why did Luke the writer of the book of Acts use the word proskyneō every other time he used it as “Worship” of idols or of God if he did not understand the word to mean worship?


    What is wrong with you man?  Haven't we REPEATEDLY said that “proskuneo” can mean either?  Keith, what about 2 Samuel?  Was the man “God-Worshipping” David?  If not, then why keep on with this?  That one scripture proves beyond a doubt that the word “proskuneo” was used both for “God-Worship” AND for showing reverrence.  Just like the definition of it implies.  And just like the various translations of it in almost every Bible imply.

    Keith:

    Quote
    Mike you didn’t answer these questions…

    1.  Can you tell me what the definition of the word “proskyneō” is to you when you worship “proskyneō” the Father?

    2.  How do you worship the Father?


    Neither have anything to do with my bodily postition, if that's what you're after.  I worship and pray to God in whatever position I'm in at the time.  Just as Jesus prayed to Him standing, sitting, and reclining on his side.

    mike

    #223470
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 07 2010,06:23)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 05 2010,12:22)

  • Why did John and Jesus choose the word if he wanted to portray the “True worship” to the Father could mean anything less?

  • Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 06 2010,14:25)
    They DIDN'T want it to mean anything less in this scripture Keith.


    Then why do you assume that they didn't truly worship Jesus when the word proskyneō was applied to him since he used the word to describe “true worship”? And you have not addressed the point that the word comes from a masculine noun which means “Worshippers”.  

    WJ


    Really Keith?

    Because Jesus himself taught that we should ONLY worship Jehovah our God. Why don't you assume it meant “God-Worship” when it was applied to David?

    And your “masculine noun” diversion doesn't change the well known different meanings of the word “proskuneo”…….and therefore is nothing but a diversion.

    mike

    #223471
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 07 2010,06:33)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 05 2010,12:22)

  • In all the scriptures that speak of Jesus being worshipped (proskyneō) why didn’t Jesus once say do not worship me?

  • Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 06 2010,14:25)
    If Jesus, who clearly said we are to worship ONLY Jehovah our God, was ever being “worshipped” in scripture, he most definitely WOULD have said something.  But Jesus never was “God-Worshipped” in scripture.


    mike

    So it was okay for them to bow down to Jesus and grab his feet and “proskyneō” him yet Peter found it over the top when it was done to him and claimed he was just a man? And the Angels in Revelations also felt the same way.

    Seems like you believe Jesus was less honorable than Peter and the Angels? Rev 19:10 – Rev 22:8, 9

    WJ


    What?!? How do you come to the conclusion that I think Jesus was LESS honorable?

    Jesus accepted the reverrence given him as King of the Jews and Lord. Neither Peter nor the angels would accept any honor.

    Jesus was not just a man Keith. He was the only begotten Son of God. Have you not read the pre-existent thread? I battle this point daily. Jesus was much more than the angels, Peter, or us. I just don't take it as far as you to claim he actually WAS God, because that's not what scriptures teach.

    mike

    #223472
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 07 2010,06:41)
    Mike is this what it comes down to, you calling me dishonest because I disagree with your interpretation and the use of the word worship in the NT? The accurrances you mention have been debunked. I am simply showing you the use of the term in the NT under the New Covenant that is all. How about the early Forefathers mike, how did they understand the word? To call me dishonest is purely a lie.


    Keith, give me one good reason why the LXX should be excluded.  Was it not written by people who spoke Koine Greek in the same general time period in which the NT was written?

    Include the OT in your challenge, and I'll withdraw my charges of deperation and dishonesty.  Because to exclude it is nothing but……..

    PS. you haven't “debunked” any of the THREE scripture we're dealing with.  In fact I have yet to see your reply to my post about the soldiers.  But I'm going post by post, so maybe I'll come across it.

    mike

    #223473
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 07 2010,08:05)
    Mike

    Ah because of “Common Sense” we are supposed to change the meaning of the text and develop our own translation which is totally against every major translation and every credible Greek Scholar who are the experts in Biblical Hebrew and Greek?

    No thanks mike. I would rather believe the written scriptures and those who brought them to us rather than you!

    WJ


    What are you talking about “changing the meaning of the text”?

    Do you or do you not agree that “proskuneo” can either mean “God-Worship” OR a bowing down to show reverrence?
    mike

    #223474
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 07 2010,08:15)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 06 2010,16:54)

    Keith:

    Quote
    BTW Mike, when Isaiah calls Jesus the “Mighty God” does this mean he is saying 'he is the mighty mighty one“? :D


    That's EXACTLY what God meant by that Keith.  As opposed to Himself, who is the ONLY “MIGHTIEST, or ALMIGHTY mighty one”.

    Why don't we take this up in the John 1:1-3 thread?  You can explain why all English translators add the indefinite “a” in front of “theos” in two scritpures in Acts, but for some reason, all but the NWT refuse to add it in John 1:1.  

    mike


    Mike

    Oh so the text doesn't say “El gibbowr” but “gibbowr gibbowr”? Check it out folks, Mike rewrites the scriptures again.

    BTW Your proof text in Acts proves nothing because there are many cases where the definite article is not added when refering to the Father. But we also have scripture where the definite article is added to God when refering to Jesus.  :D

    You create another strawman.

    WJ


    So I'll see ya in that thread? :)

    Come on big guy, let's get down to it. Unless you'd rather take on Micah 5:4 first. :)

    mike

    #223475
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Well, I'm caught up with your posts Keith. And I didn't see anything that answers this one:

    And we have both showed you that the soldiers were mocking the obeisance done to a king, not the Worship given to God. And the fact that Matthew uses a different word for the soldiers mockingly bowing down before Jesus should go even farther to prove that the word “proskuneo” that Mark used does not always mean “God-Worship”. Both writers were describing the same action, but Mark uses “proskuneo”, while Matthew describes the same exact event using the word “gonupeteo”.

    Please address this.

    mike

    #223507
    SimplyForgiven
    Participant

    did ya both forget that John worshipped in angel, isnt it typical of man to worship anything in their stupidity that shows wonders.

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