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- March 30, 2014 at 9:54 pm#375543NickHassanParticipant
Hi KW.
The gift of prophecy was manifested in God's servants, the prophets.Our hope is to sit and dine with them in the kingdom
1.Matthew 8:11
And I say unto you, That many shall come from the east and west, and shall sit down with Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob, in the kingdom of heaven.March 30, 2014 at 10:55 pm#375555kerwinParticipantQuote (Nick Hassan @ Mar. 31 2014,03:54) Hi KW.
The gift of prophecy was manifested in God's servants, the prophets.Our hope is to sit and dine with them in the kingdom
1.Matthew 8:11
And I say unto you, That many shall come from the east and west, and shall sit down with Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob, in the kingdom of heaven.
Nick,Yes, but that does not contradict the passage that stated that serve as their proxies.
March 30, 2014 at 11:44 pm#375559NickHassanParticipantHi KW,
Proxies?March 31, 2014 at 12:29 am#375563kerwinParticipantNick,
Hebrews 11:40
Authorized (King James) Version (AKJV)40 God having provided some better thing for us, that they without us should not be made perfect.
They won't be made perfect without us.
That sounds like we stand in the new covenant to show what they would have done if they too had been under the new covenant.
March 31, 2014 at 12:35 am#375566NickHassanParticipantHi KW
Heb 11
39 And these all, having obtained a good report through faith, received not the promise:40 God having provided some better thing for us, that they without us should not be made perfect.
Sound more like they will be made perfect when they too are given the grace and peace that came through Jesus Christ
March 31, 2014 at 2:37 am#375585kerwinParticipantQuote (Nick Hassan @ Mar. 31 2014,06:35) Hi KW
Heb 11
39 And these all, having obtained a good report through faith, received not the promise:40 God having provided some better thing for us, that they without us should not be made perfect.
Sound more like they will be made perfect when they too are given the grace and peace that came through Jesus Christ
Nick,It states “they without us would not be made perfect” makes me think that our choices to be made perfect. That was why I said we served as proxies for them.
March 31, 2014 at 2:54 am#375591NickHassanParticipantHi KW,
1.John 1:17
For the Law was given through Moses; grace and truth were realized through Jesus Christ.March 31, 2014 at 3:37 am#375602kerwinParticipantNick,
What I hear from Hebrews 11:39-40 does not disagree with that.
March 31, 2014 at 3:45 am#375607NickHassanParticipantHi KW,
The law could only JUSTIFY
Gal 5.4
Christ is become of no effect unto you, whosoever of you are justified by the law; ye are fallen from grace.March 31, 2014 at 4:05 am#375615kerwinParticipantNick,
I am not seeing the connection to what I wrote you are trying to draw.
March 31, 2014 at 4:08 am#375616NickHassanParticipantHi KW,
Only grace can make us sons of God in and alike to Jesus.March 31, 2014 at 4:38 am#375623GeneBalthropParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 31 2014,08:53) Quote (Nick Hassan @ Mar. 30 2014,15:44) Hi MB,
For us there is one God.But you wish to speak of the other so called gods such as men and angels and lumps of wood and stone?
Why should we focus on your distractions.
You are the one trying to distract, Nick.They are simple questions that anyone with a Bible can answer. So why can't you answer them?
Here they are again:
1. Who is the “god” in Isaiah 9:6?
2. Who is the “god” in Hebrews 1:8?
(Hint: This person is also called “son” in both of those verses. Does that help?)
Mike, Nick is right in what he is saying, we (true believers) have only ONE TRUE GOD, all others who claim to be Gods are “FALSE” God's to us ,true believers, that is.Peace and love to you and yours……………………….gene
March 31, 2014 at 5:21 am#375631NickHassanParticipantHi MB,
Should we comb the bible looking for gods when we have one God?March 31, 2014 at 5:35 am#375634WakeupParticipantWe have known Jesus only because of the jews.
We are made perfect through Jesus;
but not the jews. Not yet.
Then the jews will be made perfect through christ in the 1000yr kingdom and we gentiles will teach the jews.And in return the jews will teach the gentiles out side.
then all will be one. No jews nor gentiles anymore.wakeup.
March 31, 2014 at 9:50 am#375643journey42ParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 31 2014,03:03) Quote (journey42 @ Mar. 30 2014,04:05) You keep half quoting me.
I quote the parts of your post that I am responding to, journey. There is no reason to keep re-quoting the entire post each time. In fact, t8 and I have worked to keep others here from doing that. There is no reason to have a post that has 27 different quote boxes within it, displaying an entireQuote To get a translation of, “and the Word was God”, the translator must ADD the definite article “THE” to John's original words. But this is something John himself could have done when he originally wrote 1:1…………. IF he wanted the last part to say, “and the word was THE god”.
Hi MikeJohn knew exactly what he was writing. He wrote and the Word was God, because their is only ONE God, not two or three or four.
Quote There is a REASON John wrote “THE logos” two times, and “THE god” only one time, journey. Aren't you curious about WHY John DIDN'T write, “and the word was THE god” – when he certainly COULD HAVE?
In THE beginning was THE Word,
and THE Word was with God,
and THE Word was God.Your explanation is very confusing.
It's a way of trying to tell us that MAN can explain it better.
Well by “Man” putting an “A” in there, changes the whole meaning of the verse.
It suggests that there are two gods, and God is just only ONE OF THEM.
Which supports the JW doctrine, and goes against scripture,
and like a virus starts poisoning modern versions,
because of their AGENDA, to destroy anything that holds truth.Isaiah 44:24 Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself;
I also found this on the internet;
Quote“In beginning was the word . . . ”
(en arche en ho logos)
A very simple statement that the Word was in the beginning.
“and the word was with the God . . . “
(kai ho logos en pros ton theon)
This same Word was with God.
“and God was the word.”–Properly translated as “and the Word was God.”
(kai theos en ho logos)
This same Word was God.
Regarding statement 3 above, the correct English translation is ” . . . and the Word was God” and not “and God was the word.” This is because if there is only one definite article (“ho”=”the”) in a clause where two nouns are in the nominative (“subject”) form (“theos” and “logos”), then the noun with the definite article (“ho”=”the”) is the subject. In this case “ho logos” means that “the word” is the subject of the clause. Therefore, ” . . . the Word was God” is the correct translation and not “God was the Word.”1 But this does not negate the idea that John is speaking of only one God, not two, ….
end quoteYou might like that better than my own words, because my own words are not like the words of a scholar, but the words of someone that can trust God when he said he preserved his Word, and had it purified 7 times – Of something which I will go into later, and of the 95% of ancient copies found, they agree with the so called “flawed english translation” and the other bibles that were printed before the KJV agree also with the Wording of the KJV, but not with your preferred version.
Quote I trust in the Holy Bible that was written in Hebrew and Greek. Don't confuse the often-flawed English TRANSLATIONS of those Hebrew and Greek words with “the Holy Bible” itself. They are often two completely different things.
That “flawed english” translation in the eyes of the Freemasons, was ORDAINED by God, and sent out to the gentiles, and it's doctrine remains the same throughout the bible.Why are you letting men dictate to you that God's hand was not on his own Word when the translating process took place into English?
All they have done is to disprove the bible wrong with their rules and laws in grammar, and try to baffle us with their own self proclaimed wisdom, selling God short in the process, and Jesus, and harmonising it with their beliefs that there are many gods. John 1:1 is only one verse out of the many they changed, therefore changing the whole doctrine which is a big no no.March 31, 2014 at 12:20 pm#375644jamminParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 30 2014,06:17) Quote (jammin @ Mar. 28 2014,07:49) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 28 2014,10:23) Quote (jammin @ Mar. 26 2014,06:20) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 26 2014,13:39)
I only need to accept the words YOU said, jammin.If he has limitations, then he is not God.
Jesus has limitations. That should clear it up once and for all, right?
that is the HUMAN nature of JESUS.do you understand?
So Jesus exists right now with both human and God natures?If that was the case, then I would be right in saying Jesus has limitations, right? And you told me that if one has limitations, that one is not “God”.
But let me ask you this, jammin: Which of Jesus' two natures will destroy his enemies – the last of which will be death?
1. as i have said, if you are talking about the human nature then my answer is YES. as HUMAN, we have limitations. as GOD, no limitations.2. for your second question, create a thread for that one
1. So then we both agree that Jesus was NOT God on earth. Good.2. You don't have to answer, jammin. But we both know that it is Jesus in his EXALTED SPIRIT NATURE that will subdue Satan, Satan's angels, and death itself.
And since Jesus – even in his EXALTED SPIRIT NATURE – still needs his own God Jehovah to place those enemies at his feet before he can destroy them, we know that Jesus STILL has limitations. And according to your own words, a person who has limitations is NOT God.
Case closed.
i did not say that jesus was not God on earth. i was talking about the HUMAN nature of Christ. do you understand?because jesus has human nature, he has limitations. but it does not mean that he is not God by nature. as i said, i was referring to the HUMAN nature of Christ.
paul said he is God phil 2.6
thomas said he is God jn 20.28
john said he is God john 1.1
March 31, 2014 at 12:24 pm#375645jamminParticipantQuote (kerwin @ Mar. 29 2014,03:00) Quote (jammin @ Mar. 28 2014,19:52) Quote (kerwin @ Mar. 28 2014,08:15) Quote (jammin @ Mar. 27 2014,18:21) Quote (kerwin @ Mar. 27 2014,04:42) Quote (jammin @ Mar. 26 2014,18:20) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 26 2014,13:39) Quote (jammin @ Mar. 24 2014,07:41) unless you dont want to accept that verse then you have to make your own heb 1.10 hahahah
Actually,I only need to accept the words YOU said, jammin.
If he has limitations, then he is not God.
Jesus has limitations. That should clear it up once and for all, right?
that is the HUMAN nature of JESUS.do you understand?
Jammin,It is not understandable because it is another broken trinitarian tenet. It can only be accepted on blind faith. You have made the choice to do so.
oh really? you call it blind faith if the belief is WRITTEN in the bible. but if it is NOT WRITTEN, you call it true faith?i am not surprised because your doctrine came from men.
this topic is now more than 1000 pages but i did not see any proof from you that the Word in john 1.1 is not Christ.you are one of those people who do not want to listen to the true meaning of the word of God.
2 Timothy 4:3-4
New American Standard Bible (NASB)3 For the time will come when they will not endure sound doctrine; but wanting to have their ears tickled, they will accumulate for themselves teachers in accordance to their own desires, 4 and will turn away their ears from the truth and will turn aside to myths.
Jammin,I call it blind faith because it cannot be tested against Scripture. It is broken and Scripture cannot be broken. You can claim what you want but that does not change what is.
it is not broken. i gave you verse, you gave me imaginations.stop sniffing mosquito coil kerwin, it is not good for your brain.
Jammin,It is broken because it is full of contradictions. No matter how trinitarians try to explain it the cannot justify God being tempted like us under any circumstances.
Their attempt to justify it by claiming Jesus is 100% man at the same time he is 100% God is a malicious joke. That claim is broken because anyone knows a creature cannot be 100% human and 100% canine at the same time. In other words it must be excepted on blind faith sin “human” wisdom declares it a broken doctrine.
The claim that “human” wisdom could not comprehend the Sadducee doctrine there is no resurrection of the dead when Jesus use implications of a Scriptural passage to prove otherwise. David Koresh could have used it to answer those that declared his doctrine that he could have sex with the wives of other men was not Scriptural. It is a fallback position of a flawed teaching.
there was no contradictions to the doctrine that i have posted here. you only create confusions.Christ is the Word of God john 1.1
rev 19.13
do you see contradictions there? i dont think so. but because you have the doctrine of men, you will think that they do have contradictions.
you do not know how to understand the context of the bible.
this topic should be closed. it is more than 1000 pages and it is very clear that Christ is the Word of God in john 1.1
it is a title of Christ. he is the Word of God and he has the same nature just like his father. he is God.
March 31, 2014 at 3:05 pm#375646WakeupParticipantQuote (journey42 @ Mar. 31 2014,20:50) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 31 2014,03:03) Quote (journey42 @ Mar. 30 2014,04:05) You keep half quoting me.
I quote the parts of your post that I am responding to, journey. There is no reason to keep re-quoting the entire post each time. In fact, t8 and I have worked to keep others here from doing that. There is no reason to have a post that has 27 different quote boxes within it, displaying an entireQuote To get a translation of, “and the Word was God”, the translator must ADD the definite article “THE” to John's original words. But this is something John himself could have done when he originally wrote 1:1…………. IF he wanted the last part to say, “and the word was THE god”.
Hi MikeJohn knew exactly what he was writing. He wrote and the Word was God, because their is only ONE God, not two or three or four.
Quote There is a REASON John wrote “THE logos” two times, and “THE god” only one time, journey. Aren't you curious about WHY John DIDN'T write, “and the word was THE god” – when he certainly COULD HAVE?
In THE beginning was THE Word,
and THE Word was with God,
and THE Word was God.Your explanation is very confusing.
It's a way of trying to tell us that MAN can explain it better.
Well by “Man” putting an “A” in there, changes the whole meaning of the verse.
It suggests that there are two gods, and God is just only ONE OF THEM.
Which supports the JW doctrine, and goes against scripture,
and like a virus starts poisoning modern versions,
because of their AGENDA, to destroy anything that holds truth.Isaiah 44:24 Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself;
I also found this on the internet;
Quote“In beginning was the word . . . ”
(en arche en ho logos)
A very simple statement that the Word was in the beginning.
“and the word was with the God . . . “
(kai ho logos en pros ton theon)
This same Word was with God.
“and God was the word.”–Properly translated as “and the Word was God.”
(kai theos en ho logos)
This same Word was God.
Regarding statement 3 above, the correct English translation is ” . . . and the Word was God” and not “and God was the word.” This is because if there is only one definite article (“ho”=”the”) in a clause where two nouns are in the nominative (“subject”) form (“theos” and “logos”), then the noun with the definite article (“ho”=”the”) is the subject. In this case “ho logos” means that “the word” is the subject of the clause. Therefore, ” . . . the Word was God” is the correct translation and not “God was the Word.”1 But this does not negate the idea that John is speaking of only one God, not two, ….
end quoteYou might like that better than my own words, because my own words are not like the words of a scholar, but the words of someone that can trust God when he said he preserved his Word, and had it purified 7 times – Of something which I will go into later, and of the 95% of ancient copies found, they agree with the so called “flawed english translation” and the other bibles that were printed before the KJV agree also with the Wording of the KJV, but not with your preferred version.
Quote I trust in the Holy Bible that was written in Hebrew and Greek. Don't confuse the often-flawed English TRANSLATIONS of those Hebrew and Greek words with “the Holy Bible” itself. They are often two completely different things.
That “flawed english” translation in the eyes of the Freemasons, was ORDAINED by God, and sent out to the gentiles, and it's doctrine remains the same throughout the bible.Why are you letting men dictate to you that God's hand was not on his own Word when the translating process took place into English?
All they have done is to disprove the bible wrong with their rules and laws in grammar, and try to baffle us with their own self proclaimed wisdom, selling God short in the process, and Jesus, and harmonising it with their beliefs that there are many gods. John 1:1 is only one verse out of the many they changed, therefore changing the whole doctrine which is a big no no.
Yes; satan has copied God's plan and teachings since Nineveh. He sets up the idols. He sets up the cities.
He copied the Word of God and caused confusion.But God has protected his true Word, and satan can not touch. Satan can not outsmart God.Only the true seekers will be lead to the true word of God. The world prefered the false copies. Copied by satans apostles,and the world sees them as true men of God,for they are of the world,and the world love its own.
wakeup.
March 31, 2014 at 3:06 pm#375647GeneBalthropParticipantQuote (journey42 @ Mar. 31 2014,20:50) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 31 2014,03:03) Quote (journey42 @ Mar. 30 2014,04:05) You keep half quoting me.
I quote the parts of your post that I am responding to, journey. There is no reason to keep re-quoting the entire post each time. In fact, t8 and I have worked to keep others here from doing that. There is no reason to have a post that has 27 different quote boxes within it, displaying an entireQuote To get a translation of, “and the Word was God”, the translator must ADD the definite article “THE” to John's original words. But this is something John himself could have done when he originally wrote 1:1…………. IF he wanted the last part to say, “and the word was THE god”.
Hi MikeJohn knew exactly what he was writing. He wrote and the Word was God, because their is only ONE God, not two or three or four.
Quote There is a REASON John wrote “THE logos” two times, and “THE god” only one time, journey. Aren't you curious about WHY John DIDN'T write, “and the word was THE god” – when he certainly COULD HAVE?
In THE beginning was THE Word,
and THE Word was with God,
and THE Word was God.Your explanation is very confusing.
It's a way of trying to tell us that MAN can explain it better.
Well by “Man” putting an “A” in there, changes the whole meaning of the verse.
It suggests that there are two gods, and God is just only ONE OF THEM.
Which supports the JW doctrine, and goes against scripture,
and like a virus starts poisoning modern versions,
because of their AGENDA, to destroy anything that holds truth.Isaiah 44:24 Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself;
I also found this on the internet;
Quote“In beginning was the word . . . ”
(en arche en ho logos)
A very simple statement that the Word was in the beginning.
“and the word was with the God . . . “
(kai ho logos en pros ton theon)
This same Word was with God.
“and God was the word.”–Properly translated as “and the Word was God.”
(kai theos en ho logos)
This same Word was God.
Regarding statement 3 above, the correct English translation is ” . . . and the Word was God” and not “and God was the word.” This is because if there is only one definite article (“ho”=”the”) in a clause where two nouns are in the nominative (“subject”) form (“theos” and “logos”), then the noun with the definite article (“ho”=”the”) is the subject. In this case “ho logos” means that “the word” is the subject of the clause. Therefore, ” . . . the Word was God” is the correct translation and not “God was the Word.”1 But this does not negate the idea that John is speaking of only one God, not two, ….
end quoteYou might like that better than my own words, because my own words are not like the words of a scholar, but the words of someone that can trust God when he said he preserved his Word, and had it purified 7 times – Of something which I will go into later, and of the 95% of ancient copies found, they agree with the so called “flawed english translation” and the other bibles that were printed before the KJV agree also with the Wording of the KJV, but not with your preferred version.
Quote I trust in the Holy Bible that was written in Hebrew and Greek. Don't confuse the often-flawed English TRANSLATIONS of those Hebrew and Greek words with “the Holy Bible” itself. They are often two completely different things.
That “flawed english” translation in the eyes of the Freemasons, was ORDAINED by God, and sent out to the gentiles, and it's doctrine remains the same throughout the bible.Why are you letting men dictate to you that God's hand was not on his own Word when the translating process took place into English?
All they have done is to disprove the bible wrong with their rules and laws in grammar, and try to baffle us with their own self proclaimed wisdom, selling God short in the process, and Jesus, and harmonising it with their beliefs that there are many gods. John 1:1 is only one verse out of the many they changed, therefore changing the whole doctrine which is a big no no.
Journey42,,,,,,,,,You have posted it right brother, We have only ONE God and there is not other for us (true believer). God's words come from Him , Just as our words come from us also, God and his word are one and the same. God's word is refined or purified seven times, because they come from His mind which contains SEVEN SPIRITS, Each Spirit is a distinct intellect which summarize the complete thoughts of the mind of OUR, ONE GOD. The Seven Spirits produce his words. Just as our Spirit produce our words.Satan's biggest trick is to Move Jesus away from his Human roots and by doing so drive a wedge between Jesus and His fellow human beings, his brothers and sisters. This Doctrine of SEPARATION comes from Satan himself. And is preached by all Trinitarians and Preexistence's and has misled nearly all Christianity.
I am glad there are some though who can see through the LIE 2Ths2. , thanks be to God.
peace and love to you and yours…………………………gene
March 31, 2014 at 5:15 pm#375650carmelParticipantWakeup,Mar. wrote:[/quote]
Quote TRAVAILED=TRIBULATION. AFTER THE TRIBULATION SHE
WILL GIVE BIRTH TO ALL HER CHILDREN.ZION WILL GIVE BIRTH TO HER CHILDREN AT ONCE.
THIS IS AT THE RESURRECTION.
THIS IS BORN *ONCE MORE*.BORN AGAIN.ZION, SHE IS SPIRIT AND HER CHILDREN WILL BE BORN SPIRIT.
Wakeup,
I ASKED YOU:
WHERE IN SCRIPTURE WE CAN READ THEY ARE BORN OF GOD'S WOMAN, SHE IS SPIRIT!
HEREUNDER IS ISAIAH 66:7:14
CAN YOU PIN POINT YOUR STATEMENT?
Isaiah 66:7 Before she was in labour, she brought forth; before her time came to be delivered, she brought forth a man child.
8Who hath ever heard such a thing? and who hath seen the like to this? shall the earth bring forth in one day? or shall a nation be brought forth at once, because Sion hath been in labour, and hath brought forth her children?
9Shall not I that make others to bring forth children, myself bring forth, saith the Lord? shall I, that give generation to others, be barren, saith the Lord thy God?
10Rejoice with Jerusalem, and be glad with her, all you that love her: rejoice for joy with her, all you that mourn for her.
11That you may suck, and be filled with the breasts of her consolations: that you may milk out, and flow with delights, from the abundance of her glory.
12For thus saith the Lord: Behold I will bring upon her as it were a river of peace, and as an overflowing torrent the glory of the Gentiles, which you shall suck; you shall be carried at the breasts, end upon the knees they shall caress you.
13As one whom the mother caresseth, so will I comfort you, and you shall be comforted in Jerusalem.
14You shall see and your heart shall rejoice, and your bones shall flourish like an herb, and the hand of the Lord shall be known to his servants, and he shall be angry with his enemies.
NOW THE WORDS, WOMAN, GOD'S WOMAN, AND SPIRIT ARE NOT THERE!
SO AS I SAID IT IS ALL YOUR INVENTIONS!
OK?
SO DO YOU KNOW WHAT THE ABOVE VERSES ARE REFERRING TO!
WHO IS SHE?
WHO IS THE MAN CHILD?
WHO IS SION?
WHO IS JERUSALEM?
WHAT IS HER GLORY!
WHAT IS THE GLORY OF THE GENTILES?
WHAT ” YOUR BONES SHALL FLOURISH” SIGNIFIES
Peace and love in Jesus
Charles
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