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- August 12, 2013 at 11:49 pm#354941terrariccaParticipant
Quote (kerwin @ Aug. 13 2013,05:42) Quote (terraricca @ Aug. 13 2013,04:38) Quote (kerwin @ Aug. 13 2013,03:13) T, John 6:45
Authorized (King James) Version (AKJV)45 It is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God. Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto me.
Jesus, like he brother born under the new covenant was taught by God, though his parents also brought him up as part of their service to God.
John 14:26
Authorized (King James) Version (AKJV)26 But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you.
The Spirit of God that was in him was the teacher, and so he was taught of God.
Kyes but those scriptures are related to Christ teachings right
so how could it be refer to Christ
T,Jesus leads and the believers follow but the path is the same. The God through his Spirit taught Jesus first. It is us to follow him on the path he pioneered.
kYES BUT CHRIST SAYS THAT HE HEARD THE WORDS FROM THE MOUTH OF THE FATHER ,HOW COULD THAT BE UNLESS YOU ARE THEIR TO LISTEN TO IT ,HE SAYS HE CAME FROM THE SIDE OF THE FATHER ,NO ?
August 13, 2013 at 12:23 am#354950terrariccaParticipantQuote (kerwin @ Aug. 13 2013,05:47) Quote (terraricca @ Aug. 13 2013,04:57) Quote (kerwin @ Aug. 13 2013,01:13) T, You are assuming that Jesus' choice to use “your” means the Law was not also his. That assumption seems to be flawed as Jesus also chose to your when passing a message to his disciples when he stated “I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God”. As you can see the use of “your” neither confirms or denies the Law was also Jesus'.
Galatians 4:4
Authorized (King James) Version (AKJV)4 but when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,
So Jesus was made of Mary and made under the Law.
In another was of speaking Jesus was not under the Law because he was under grace.
KQuote T,
You are assuming that Jesus' choice to use “your” means the Law was not also his. That assumption seems to be flawed
how is it flawed ,in your next scriptures Jesus says :MY FATHER AND YOUR FATHER ,so he joint them together ,as one
but not in my example so your answer his not valid ,
T,So you believe because Jesus did not say and my Law that the Law of the Jews was not Jesus' Law despite him practicing Passover as an observant Jew does, but a Gentile is forbidden to do.
KMt 17:25 “Yes, he does,” he replied.
When Peter came into the house, Jesus was the first to speak. “What do you think, Simon?” he asked. “From whom do the kings of the earth collect duty and taxes—from their own sons or from others?”
Mt 17:26 “From others,” Peter answered.
“Then the sons are exempt,” Jesus said to him.
Mt 17:27 “But so that we may not offend them, go to the lake and throw out your line. Take the first fish you catch; open its mouth and you will find a four-drachma coin. Take it and give it to them for my tax and yours.”why did Christ should have said :our law or MY law
does he not stand in the house of God and his sinless
August 13, 2013 at 2:16 am#354973mikeboll64BlockedQuote (kerwin @ Aug. 11 2013,22:52) Our masters can only destroy the body, not the soul or the spirit.
Our heavenly masters CAN destroy all of those things.You said our heavenly lords are only masters of our spirits, while earthly lords are masters of our physical bodies.
I was pointing out that our heavenly lords are not only masters of our spirits, but ALSO of our physical bodies.
August 13, 2013 at 2:18 am#354974mikeboll64BlockedQuote (kerwin @ Aug. 11 2013,22:30) Mike, The only error the Pharisees made was an incomplete answer as Paul answers Jesus words by stating Jesus is made from the seed of David, according to the flesh.
Their answer: The son of David.Jesus rebuttal: How CAN he be David's son if David himself calls him “My Lord”?
And you see an “agreement” there between the Pharisees and Jesus?
Kerwin, how about YOU answer Jesus' question as posted above?
August 13, 2013 at 2:59 am#354976kerwinParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 13 2013,08:18) Quote (kerwin @ Aug. 11 2013,22:30) Mike, The only error the Pharisees made was an incomplete answer as Paul answers Jesus words by stating Jesus is made from the seed of David, according to the flesh.
Their answer: The son of David.Jesus rebuttal: How CAN he be David's son if David himself calls him “My Lord”?
And you see an “agreement” there between the Pharisees and Jesus?
Kerwin, how about YOU answer Jesus' question as posted above?
Mike,In what manner CAN he be David's son if David himself calls him “My Lord”?
August 13, 2013 at 7:11 am#354991kerwinParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 13 2013,08:16) Quote (kerwin @ Aug. 11 2013,22:52) Our masters can only destroy the body, not the soul or the spirit.
Our heavenly masters CAN destroy all of those things.You said our heavenly lords are only masters of our spirits, while earthly lords are masters of our physical bodies.
I was pointing out that our heavenly lords are not only masters of our spirits, but ALSO of our physical bodies.
Mike,Which is more important?
Galatians 5:19-23
Authorized (King James) Version (AKJV)19 Now the works of the flesh are manifest, which are these; Adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lasciviousness, 20 idolatry, witchcraft, hatred, variance, emulations, wrath, strife, seditions, heresies, 21 envyings, murders, drunkenness, revellings, and such like: of the which I tell you before, as I have also told you in time past, that they which do such things shall not inherit the kingdom of God. 22 But the fruit of the Spirit is love, joy, peace, longsuffering, gentleness, goodness, faith, 23 meekness, temperance: against such there is no law.
Is is better to have a spirit that is mastered by God or by man?
If your Spirit is subject to God and your body is subject to a man will you bear the fruit of the flesh?
August 13, 2013 at 7:14 am#354993kerwinParticipantQuote (terraricca @ Aug. 13 2013,06:23) Quote (kerwin @ Aug. 13 2013,05:47) Quote (terraricca @ Aug. 13 2013,04:57) Quote (kerwin @ Aug. 13 2013,01:13) T, You are assuming that Jesus' choice to use “your” means the Law was not also his. That assumption seems to be flawed as Jesus also chose to your when passing a message to his disciples when he stated “I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God”. As you can see the use of “your” neither confirms or denies the Law was also Jesus'.
Galatians 4:4
Authorized (King James) Version (AKJV)4 but when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,
So Jesus was made of Mary and made under the Law.
In another was of speaking Jesus was not under the Law because he was under grace.
KQuote T,
You are assuming that Jesus' choice to use “your” means the Law was not also his. That assumption seems to be flawed
how is it flawed ,in your next scriptures Jesus says :MY FATHER AND YOUR FATHER ,so he joint them together ,as one
but not in my example so your answer his not valid ,
T,So you believe because Jesus did not say and my Law that the Law of the Jews was not Jesus' Law despite him practicing Passover as an observant Jew does, but a Gentile is forbidden to do.
KMt 17:25 “Yes, he does,” he replied.
When Peter came into the house, Jesus was the first to speak. “What do you think, Simon?” he asked. “From whom do the kings of the earth collect duty and taxes—from their own sons or from others?”
Mt 17:26 “From others,” Peter answered.
“Then the sons are exempt,” Jesus said to him.
Mt 17:27 “But so that we may not offend them, go to the lake and throw out your line. Take the first fish you catch; open its mouth and you will find a four-drachma coin. Take it and give it to them for my tax and yours.”why did Christ should have said :our law or MY law
does he not stand in the house of God and his sinless
T,The sons are under the law of their Father though they do not pay taxes.
August 13, 2013 at 7:16 am#354994kerwinParticipantQuote (terraricca @ Aug. 13 2013,05:49) Quote (kerwin @ Aug. 13 2013,05:42) Quote (terraricca @ Aug. 13 2013,04:38) Quote (kerwin @ Aug. 13 2013,03:13) T, John 6:45
Authorized (King James) Version (AKJV)45 It is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God. Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto me.
Jesus, like he brother born under the new covenant was taught by God, though his parents also brought him up as part of their service to God.
John 14:26
Authorized (King James) Version (AKJV)26 But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you.
The Spirit of God that was in him was the teacher, and so he was taught of God.
Kyes but those scriptures are related to Christ teachings right
so how could it be refer to Christ
T,Jesus leads and the believers follow but the path is the same. The God through his Spirit taught Jesus first. It is us to follow him on the path he pioneered.
kYES BUT CHRIST SAYS THAT HE HEARD THE WORDS FROM THE MOUTH OF THE FATHER ,HOW COULD THAT BE UNLESS YOU ARE THEIR TO LISTEN TO IT ,HE SAYS HE CAME FROM THE SIDE OF THE FATHER ,NO ?
T,God lives in those that believe through his Spirit. Where the Spirit is God is and teaches by it.
August 13, 2013 at 7:19 am#354995kerwinParticipantT,
I did not find any passage that states Jesus came from the side of his Father. If you could please post it I would appreciate it.
August 13, 2013 at 12:00 pm#355011jamminParticipantkerwin
not yet done?
cant you accept that the word in john 1.1 is the son>?pls make your own bible. why are you making this hard for you>
August 13, 2013 at 12:02 pm#355012jamminParticipantQuote (Ed J @ Aug. 09 2013,09:44) Quote (jammin @ Aug. 08 2013,20:39) (1) why you are not accepting God's word? (2) cant you see that the HE in verse 17 is the son and not the father???
(3) why is it hard for you to accept the truth?
Hi Jammin,1) I do accept Gods word, not but the what systems of religion and traditions teach concerning them.
2) Col.1:16-17 refers to “The Father”, which is the subject starting in verse 12.
3) It is hard for YOU to accept the truth because religious indoctrination is hard to overcome. (see Col.2:21-22)
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
you are wrong boy.
no translation will agree and no scholars or commentaries will agree to you boy.make your own bible.
the he in verse 17 is Christ and not the father.make your own bible
August 13, 2013 at 2:14 pm#355021terrariccaParticipantQuote (kerwin @ Aug. 13 2013,13:14) Quote (terraricca @ Aug. 13 2013,06:23) Quote (kerwin @ Aug. 13 2013,05:47) Quote (terraricca @ Aug. 13 2013,04:57) Quote (kerwin @ Aug. 13 2013,01:13) T, You are assuming that Jesus' choice to use “your” means the Law was not also his. That assumption seems to be flawed as Jesus also chose to your when passing a message to his disciples when he stated “I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God”. As you can see the use of “your” neither confirms or denies the Law was also Jesus'.
Galatians 4:4
Authorized (King James) Version (AKJV)4 but when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,
So Jesus was made of Mary and made under the Law.
In another was of speaking Jesus was not under the Law because he was under grace.
KQuote T,
You are assuming that Jesus' choice to use “your” means the Law was not also his. That assumption seems to be flawed
how is it flawed ,in your next scriptures Jesus says :MY FATHER AND YOUR FATHER ,so he joint them together ,as one
but not in my example so your answer his not valid ,
T,So you believe because Jesus did not say and my Law that the Law of the Jews was not Jesus' Law despite him practicing Passover as an observant Jew does, but a Gentile is forbidden to do.
KMt 17:25 “Yes, he does,” he replied.
When Peter came into the house, Jesus was the first to speak. “What do you think, Simon?” he asked. “From whom do the kings of the earth collect duty and taxes—from their own sons or from others?”
Mt 17:26 “From others,” Peter answered.
“Then the sons are exempt,” Jesus said to him.
Mt 17:27 “But so that we may not offend them, go to the lake and throw out your line. Take the first fish you catch; open its mouth and you will find a four-drachma coin. Take it and give it to them for my tax and yours.”why did Christ should have said :our law or MY law
does he not stand in the house of God and his sinless
T,The sons are under the law of their Father though they do not pay taxes.
Kthis is not an answer to my questions ,
you answered to another discussion
August 13, 2013 at 2:22 pm#355022terrariccaParticipantQuote (kerwin @ Aug. 13 2013,13:16) Quote (terraricca @ Aug. 13 2013,05:49) Quote (kerwin @ Aug. 13 2013,05:42) Quote (terraricca @ Aug. 13 2013,04:38) Quote (kerwin @ Aug. 13 2013,03:13) T, John 6:45
Authorized (King James) Version (AKJV)45 It is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God. Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto me.
Jesus, like he brother born under the new covenant was taught by God, though his parents also brought him up as part of their service to God.
John 14:26
Authorized (King James) Version (AKJV)26 But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you.
The Spirit of God that was in him was the teacher, and so he was taught of God.
Kyes but those scriptures are related to Christ teachings right
so how could it be refer to Christ
T,Jesus leads and the believers follow but the path is the same. The God through his Spirit taught Jesus first. It is us to follow him on the path he pioneered.
kYES BUT CHRIST SAYS THAT HE HEARD THE WORDS FROM THE MOUTH OF THE FATHER ,HOW COULD THAT BE UNLESS YOU ARE THEIR TO LISTEN TO IT ,HE SAYS HE CAME FROM THE SIDE OF THE FATHER ,NO ?
T,God lives in those that believe through his Spirit. Where the Spirit is God is and teaches by it.
kQuote T, God lives in those that believe through his Spirit. Where the Spirit is God is and teaches by it.
it seems that you can not see what I say or understand what you saying ;
someone that believe most be a doer of God's will ,not just a believer ,so how can this then apply to Jesus at the age of 12,
it seems you are hiding behind the word “SPIRIT ” WHAT NEEDS TO INTERPRET FOR ITS RIGHT MEANING
August 13, 2013 at 2:50 pm#355025terrariccaParticipantQuote (kerwin @ Aug. 13 2013,13:19) T, I did not find any passage that states Jesus came from the side of his Father. If you could please post it I would appreciate it.
KJN 1:14 And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we saw His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth.
YOU STILL DO NOT BELIEVE THE SCRIPTURES WITHOUT YOUR PERSONAL INTERPRETATION ,BUT ANY WAY ; HE IS THE ONLY BEGOTTEN FROM THE FATHER “HOW IS THAT ” THEIR ARE MILLIONS OF OTHER SONS OF GOD IN HEAVEN
JN 15:26 “When the Helper comes, whom I will send to you from the Father, that is the Spirit of truth who proceeds from the Father, He will testify about Me,
HERE AGAIN JESUS SAYS “I WILL SEND TO YOU “FROM THE FATHER ” NOW, WERE HIS CHRIST WEN HE SEND THE “SPIRIT OF TRUTH “
JN 16:27 for the Father Himself loves you, because you have loved Me and have believed that I came forth from the Father.
WHAT DID THE APOSTLES BELIEVED ? ” THAT JESUS CAME FORTH FROM GOD ” NOT FROM A MEN SEED OR A WOMEN BUT FROM GOD ,WHY WOULD JESUS SAY THIS IF HE WAS A REGULAR SON OF GOD JUST LIKE HIS DISCIPLES DID HIS DISCIPLES HAD NOT THE SPIRIT OF GOD IN THEM THEY WERE WAITING FOR THE MESSIAH DID THEY NOT YES ,SO WHAT DOES IT MEAN THEN ” I CAME FORTH FROM THE FATHER ”
JN 16:28 “ I came forth from the Father and have come into the world; I am leaving the world ;again and going to the Father.”
LOOK HERE; CHRIST SAYS ;”I came forth from the Father and have come into the world ” IS THIS NOT WHAT JOHN SAYS ; Jn 1:14 The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.
Jn 1:15 John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.’ ”NOW SINS HE CAME INTO THIS WORLD OF US HE SAYS ;” I am leaving the world ” TO GO WERE ;and going to the Father ” SO IN THIS VERSE 28 OF JOHN 16;CHRIST SAYS HE CAME AND GO BACK TO HIS FATHER ,RIGHT YES ,DO YOU BELIEVE THIS JUST AS THE APOSTLES DID
August 13, 2013 at 5:57 pm#355039kerwinParticipantQuote (jammin @ Aug. 13 2013,18:00) kerwin not yet done?
cant you accept that the word in john 1.1 is the son>?pls make your own bible. why are you making this hard for you>
Jammin,Can't you believe the Word is the Logos of God?
August 13, 2013 at 6:12 pm#355040kerwinParticipantQuote (terraricca @ Aug. 13 2013,20:14) Quote (kerwin @ Aug. 13 2013,13:14) Quote (terraricca @ Aug. 13 2013,06:23) Quote (kerwin @ Aug. 13 2013,05:47) Quote (terraricca @ Aug. 13 2013,04:57) Quote (kerwin @ Aug. 13 2013,01:13) T, You are assuming that Jesus' choice to use “your” means the Law was not also his. That assumption seems to be flawed as Jesus also chose to your when passing a message to his disciples when he stated “I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God”. As you can see the use of “your” neither confirms or denies the Law was also Jesus'.
Galatians 4:4
Authorized (King James) Version (AKJV)4 but when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,
So Jesus was made of Mary and made under the Law.
In another was of speaking Jesus was not under the Law because he was under grace.
KQuote T,
You are assuming that Jesus' choice to use “your” means the Law was not also his. That assumption seems to be flawed
how is it flawed ,in your next scriptures Jesus says :MY FATHER AND YOUR FATHER ,so he joint them together ,as one
but not in my example so your answer his not valid ,
T,So you believe because Jesus did not say and my Law that the Law of the Jews was not Jesus' Law despite him practicing Passover as an observant Jew does, but a Gentile is forbidden to do.
KMt 17:25 “Yes, he does,” he replied.
When Peter came into the house, Jesus was the first to speak. “What do you think, Simon?” he asked. “From whom do the kings of the earth collect duty and taxes—from their own sons or from others?”
Mt 17:26 “From others,” Peter answered.
“Then the sons are exempt,” Jesus said to him.
Mt 17:27 “But so that we may not offend them, go to the lake and throw out your line. Take the first fish you catch; open its mouth and you will find a four-drachma coin. Take it and give it to them for my tax and yours.”why did Christ should have said :our law or MY law
does he not stand in the house of God and his sinless
T,The sons are under the law of their Father though they do not pay taxes.
Kthis is not an answer to my questions ,
you answered to another discussion
T,I was under the impression that you quoted Matthew 17:25-27 to support your stand and so I pointed out why it does not.
As for your question, I already pointed out that the use of your law is neither evidence that it was not Jesus' Law or that it was Jesus' Law. The passage is silent on that point.
Jesus was made under the Law, raised by his parents in accordance to the Law, and celebrated Passover in accordance to the Law.
Acts 10:14
Authorized (King James) Version (AKJV)14 But Peter said, Not so, Lord; for I have never eaten any thing that is common or unclean.
So while he was with Jesus, Peter observed the Law of the eating of clean and not eating the unclean.
August 13, 2013 at 6:22 pm#355041kerwinParticipantQuote (terraricca @ Aug. 13 2013,20:22) Quote (kerwin @ Aug. 13 2013,13:16) Quote (terraricca @ Aug. 13 2013,05:49) Quote (kerwin @ Aug. 13 2013,05:42) Quote (terraricca @ Aug. 13 2013,04:38) Quote (kerwin @ Aug. 13 2013,03:13) T, John 6:45
Authorized (King James) Version (AKJV)45 It is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God. Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto me.
Jesus, like he brother born under the new covenant was taught by God, though his parents also brought him up as part of their service to God.
John 14:26
Authorized (King James) Version (AKJV)26 But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you.
The Spirit of God that was in him was the teacher, and so he was taught of God.
Kyes but those scriptures are related to Christ teachings right
so how could it be refer to Christ
T,Jesus leads and the believers follow but the path is the same. The God through his Spirit taught Jesus first. It is us to follow him on the path he pioneered.
kYES BUT CHRIST SAYS THAT HE HEARD THE WORDS FROM THE MOUTH OF THE FATHER ,HOW COULD THAT BE UNLESS YOU ARE THEIR TO LISTEN TO IT ,HE SAYS HE CAME FROM THE SIDE OF THE FATHER ,NO ?
T,God lives in those that believe through his Spirit. Where the Spirit is God is and teaches by it.
kQuote T, God lives in those that believe through his Spirit. Where the Spirit is God is and teaches by it.
it seems that you can not see what I say or understand what you saying ;
someone that believe most be a doer of God's will ,not just a believer ,so how can this then apply to Jesus at the age of 12,
it seems you are hiding behind the word “SPIRIT ” WHAT NEEDS TO INTERPRET FOR ITS RIGHT MEANING
T,Not all those that receive the Spirit and so are taught by God choose to learn. Jesus chose too learn and in doing so did not sin. Even at the age of 12 Jesus had not sinned though tempted as is common to a child. His fruits were the fruits of the Spirit and not those of the flesh.
August 13, 2013 at 6:28 pm#355042kerwinParticipantQuote (terraricca @ Aug. 13 2013,20:50) Quote (kerwin @ Aug. 13 2013,13:19) T, I did not find any passage that states Jesus came from the side of his Father. If you could please post it I would appreciate it.
KJN 1:14 And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we saw His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth.
YOU STILL DO NOT BELIEVE THE SCRIPTURES WITHOUT YOUR PERSONAL INTERPRETATION ,BUT ANY WAY ; HE IS THE ONLY BEGOTTEN FROM THE FATHER “HOW IS THAT ” THEIR ARE MILLIONS OF OTHER SONS OF GOD IN HEAVEN
JN 15:26 “When the Helper comes, whom I will send to you from the Father, that is the Spirit of truth who proceeds from the Father, He will testify about Me,
HERE AGAIN JESUS SAYS “I WILL SEND TO YOU “FROM THE FATHER ” NOW, WERE HIS CHRIST WEN HE SEND THE “SPIRIT OF TRUTH “
JN 16:27 for the Father Himself loves you, because you have loved Me and have believed that I came forth from the Father.
WHAT DID THE APOSTLES BELIEVED ? ” THAT JESUS CAME FORTH FROM GOD ” NOT FROM A MEN SEED OR A WOMEN BUT FROM GOD ,WHY WOULD JESUS SAY THIS IF HE WAS A REGULAR SON OF GOD JUST LIKE HIS DISCIPLES DID HIS DISCIPLES HAD NOT THE SPIRIT OF GOD IN THEM THEY WERE WAITING FOR THE MESSIAH DID THEY NOT YES ,SO WHAT DOES IT MEAN THEN ” I CAME FORTH FROM THE FATHER ”
JN 16:28 “ I came forth from the Father and have come into the world; I am leaving the world ;again and going to the Father.”
LOOK HERE; CHRIST SAYS ;”I came forth from the Father and have come into the world ” IS THIS NOT WHAT JOHN SAYS ; Jn 1:14 The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.
Jn 1:15 John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.’ ”NOW SINS HE CAME INTO THIS WORLD OF US HE SAYS ;” I am leaving the world ” TO GO WERE ;and going to the Father ” SO IN THIS VERSE 28 OF JOHN 16;CHRIST SAYS HE CAME AND GO BACK TO HIS FATHER ,RIGHT YES ,DO YOU BELIEVE THIS JUST AS THE APOSTLES DID
T,None of those say that Jesus was at God's side, nor do they mention the word side. Nevertheless I believe I know what one you speak of and I find your conclusion in applying directly to Jesus to lack both reason and knowledge of the people of the time.
August 13, 2013 at 9:21 pm#355053kerwinParticipantT,
Quote
JN 16:27 for the Father Himself loves you, because you have loved Me and have believed that I came forth from the Father.We already know Jesus was made of a woman and that woman is the seed of David. His flesh was made from the seed of David.
His flesh therefore came from Mary and did not come forth from the Father.
So it is his spirit and/or his soul that came forth from God and is come in the flesh that was made of a woman.
August 14, 2013 at 12:40 am#355062mikeboll64BlockedQuote (kerwin @ Aug. 12 2013,20:59) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 13 2013,08:18) Quote (kerwin @ Aug. 11 2013,22:30) Mike, The only error the Pharisees made was an incomplete answer as Paul answers Jesus words by stating Jesus is made from the seed of David, according to the flesh.
Their answer: The son of David.Jesus rebuttal: How CAN he be David's son if David himself calls him “My Lord”?
And you see an “agreement” there between the Pharisees and Jesus?
Kerwin, how about YOU answer Jesus' question as posted above?
Mike,In what manner CAN he be David's son if David himself calls him “My Lord”?
Answer Jesus' question, Kerwin. - AuthorPosts
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