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Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 15 2012,12:43) Hi Mike, Did you not read my last post?
Ed,According to the AKJV, which you swear by, is Jesus a god? YES or NO?
Quote (kerwin @ Sep. 15 2012,15:57) As Jehovah/Yawheh is the first and last of his kind; the only kind that deserves worship; the only kind that is the source of all good and perfect things, then those elohim, whether on earth or in heaven, who are worshiped as his kind are false Jehovah's/Yahweh's; which is to say false Gods.
So then your Lord, Jesus Christ is a “false god”, Kerwin…….. because he is definitely worshiped by some as God.Do you claim that Jesus Christ is a “false god”, Kerwin?
Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Sep. 15 2012,16:10) So, you believe that you and your servants of YOUR “God” are also each “a god”?
Frank,Do you DENY the scriptures in which many of Jehovah's servants are called gods?
Do you think I made those scriptures up, Frank?
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 16 2012,09:22) Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 15 2012,12:43) Hi Mike, Did you not read my last post?
Ed,According to the AKJV, which you swear by, is Jesus a god? YES or NO?
Hi Mike,No
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (Ed J @ Sep. 15 2012,16:43) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 16 2012,09:22)
Ed,According to the AKJV, which you swear by, is Jesus a god? YES or NO?
Hi Mike,No
Wow Ed.Isaiah 9:6 KJV
6 For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.To All who aren't aware of this, one can only go so far in a discussion with Ed, because once things start going against him, he isn't afraid to straight out lie to be “right”. He also isn't afraid to pretend that he can't understand simple language skills or concepts if that's what it takes to keep him being “right” in his own mind.
How sad, Ed.
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 16 2012,09:58) Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 15 2012,16:43) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 16 2012,09:22)
Ed,According to the AKJV, which you swear by, is Jesus a god? YES or NO?
Hi Mike,No
Wow Ed.Isaiah 9:6 KJV
6 For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.To All who aren't aware of this, one can only go so far in a discussion with Ed, because once things start going against him, he isn't afraid to straight out lie to be “right”. He also isn't afraid to pretend that he can't understand simple language skills or concepts if that's what it takes to keep him being “right” in his own mind.
How sad, Ed.
Hi Mike,It says “his name shall be called” – do you believe Jesus is “The Everlasting Father”? <– please answer
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgAnd do you think his name shall be called “mighty god” because he ISN'T one?
Come on, Ed. And YES, Jesus is an everlasting father in the same sense that the word “father” has in Gen 45:8, Isaiah 22:21, and Job 29:16. Just like George Washington is one of the “founding fathers” of America.
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 16 2012,10:28) And do you think his name shall be called “mighty god” because he ISN'T one? Come on, Ed. And YES, Jesus is an everlasting father in the same sense that the word “father” has in Gen 45:8, Isaiah 22:21, and Job 29:16. Just like George Washington is one of the “founding fathers” of America.
Hi Mike,His name is called “a mighty mighty one” or have you forgotten already?
Question: does “EL” define only as 'a mighty one' or does “EL” define as “God” too?
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgEd,
My question said, “ACCORDING TO YOUR BELOVED KJV” – or words to that effect.
So, answer my question ACCORDING TO YOUR BELOVED KJV.
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 16 2012,09:27) Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Sep. 15 2012,16:10) So, you believe that you and your servants of YOUR “God” are also each “a god”?
Frank,Do you DENY the scriptures in which many of Jehovah's servants are called gods?
Do you think I made those scriptures up, Frank?
mikebull s'64,What it is that I deny is your perversion of Scripture!
Continuing on:
Quote John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made. (Emphasis in bold text and underlining mine.)So there is nothing that was made that didn't involve Jesus/The Word being there. This verse alone answers your question because the universe, angels and men were made and Jesus was present when they were created.
I myself believe that this verse is in reference to Father Yahweh and His LITERAL word that was with Him in the beginning and not to His son Yahshua as an actual being that was with Him in the beginning. But there are those who believe that it is giving reference to Yahshua His son and also do not believe he pre-existed his birth as an actual being that was with his and our Father Yahweh in the beginning as I do. There are a number of other verses from the so-called “New Testament” that translate to Greek word 'dia into our English language as 'by' and 'through' which I do not believe to be correct in accordance with the context of Scripture as a whole, since Scripture clearly teaches that Father Yahweh “ALONE”, “BY HIMSELF” with “NO OTHER BESIDE HIM” created the heavens and the earth and all things in them. Scripture also clearly teaches that there is ONLY ONE true source of power or Mighty One [“God”], and that is Father Yahweh. Father Yahweh's son Yahshua was never given reference to in Scripture as “a mighty one” [“a god”], but he was acting on behalf of Father Yahweh the one and only true Mighty One just as Moshe acted on His behalf with Pharaoh (Exodus 7:1). Both of these MEN (They were not LITERALLY “God” or “a god”.) received power (authority), might and strength from on high from the one and only true source of power Who is theirs and our Heavenly Father and Creator Yahweh. As to the other verses where the Greek word 'dia have been translated into our English language as 'by' and 'through', note the following excerpt and please do take into consideration the source from where it has been taken:
“BY Yeshua were all things created,” is what “Three Creation Scriptures”
(Colossians 1:16, Ephesians 3:9, Hebrews 1:2) seem to be saying.
BY is translated from the Greek dia (#1223) which according to Strong’s Dictionary
is a primitive preposition denoting the channel of an act. Dia may be translated as “after, always,
among, at to avoid, BECAUSE OF, briefly, BY, FOR, from, in, by reason of, that,
though, through.”
One way to decide which word to use for dia is to examine the context of the scripture
in which it is used. Why was BY chosen by the translators of some versions instead of FOR?
Trinitarian translators would have their reasons; others would have their reasons. Context
must decide which is correct.
Page 27 That Little Word “Dia”
[PDF] SOURCEAlso take into consideration the following links that contain various studies on this subject:
WHO IS THE WORD?
John Chapter OneELOHIM: ONE, OR MORE THAN ONE?
Exodus 32
By Voy Wilks
3/9/98The Pre-existence
Philippians 2:5-11
By Voy Wilks
1/29/92Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?
From the thread “Preexistence (Part 2)”:
https://heavennet.net/cgi-bin….y366893…
Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Sep. 15 2012,17:41) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 16 2012,09:27) Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Sep. 15 2012,16:10) So, you believe that you and your servants of YOUR “God” are also each “a god”?
Frank,Do you DENY the scriptures in which many of Jehovah's servants are called gods?
Do you think I made those scriptures up, Frank?
mikebull s'64,What it is that I deny is your perversion of Scripture!
Good. Then you accept this actual scripture:Exodus 21:6 NET ©
then his master must bring him to the judges, and he will bring him to the door or the doorposts, and his master will pierce his ear with an awl, and he shall serve him foreverThe word translated as “the judges” is really “the gods”, Frank. These gods were servants of Jehovah, and judges of His people on His behalf.
Will you call them “false gods” – even though they acted as representatives of the Almighty God?
See Frank, it is not that I “pervert” the scriptures. It's more a matter of you just not knowing them all that well.
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 16 2012,10:50) Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Sep. 15 2012,17:41) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 16 2012,09:27) Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Sep. 15 2012,16:10) So, you believe that you and your servants of YOUR “God” are also each “a god”?
Frank,Do you DENY the scriptures in which many of Jehovah's servants are called gods?
Do you think I made those scriptures up, Frank?
mikebull s'64,What it is that I deny is your perversion of Scripture!
Good. Then you accept this actual scripture:Exodus 21:6 NET ©
then his master must bring him to the judges, and he will bring him to the door or the doorposts, and his master will pierce his ear with an awl, and he shall serve him foreverThe word translated as “the judges” is really “the gods”, Frank. These gods were servants of Jehovah, and judges of His people on His behalf.
Will you call them “false gods” – even though they acted as representatives of the Almighty God?
See Frank, it is not that I “pervert” the scriptures. It's more a matter of you just not knowing them all that well.
mikebull s'64,Again, I deny your perversion of Scripture!
Be aware that the word “God” is of pagan origin!
From the Encyclopedia Americana, 1945 Edition:
“GOD (god, gawd): Common Teutonic word for personal object of religious worship, formerly applicable to super-human beings of heathen myth; on conversion of Teutonic races to Christianity, term was applied to Supreme Being, and to Persons of Trinity 6-38a; 13-58a; Bible 3-174a; Jesus Christ 8-206b; mythology 10-362b; Spinoza's philosophy 12-165a.”
Also see:
BAAL God
LORD God (The)WHO IS THE WORD?
John Chapter OneELOHIM: ONE, OR MORE THAN ONE?
Exodus 32
By Voy Wilks
3/9/98The Pre-existence
Philippians 2:5-11
By Voy Wilks
1/29/92Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?
…
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 16 2012,10:41) Ed, My question said, “ACCORDING TO YOUR BELOVED KJV” – or words to that effect.
So, answer my question ACCORDING TO YOUR BELOVED KJV.
Hi Mike“His name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God,
The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.” (Isaiah 9:6)
It says his name shall be called the mighty God.
Now please answer my question.Does “EL” define only as 'a mighty one' or does “EL” define as “God” too?
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (Ed J @ Sep. 16 2012,11:25) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 16 2012,10:41) Ed, My question said, “ACCORDING TO YOUR BELOVED KJV” – or words to that effect.
So, answer my question ACCORDING TO YOUR BELOVED KJV.
Hi Mike“His name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God,
The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.” (Isaiah 9:6)
It says his name shall be called the mighty God.
Now please answer my question.Does “EL” define only as 'a mighty one' or does “EL” define as “God” too?
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
Since mikebull s'64 likes the LXX so much:Isaiah 9:6 LXX
For a child is born to us, and a son is given to us, whose government is upon his shoulder: and his name is called the Messenger of great counsel: for I will bring peace upon the princes, and health to him.Also see:
Does Isayah 9:6 Proclaim Yahshua To Be Yahweh?
Does Isaiah 9:6 Claim That “Jesus is God”?WHO IS THE WORD?
John Chapter OneELOHIM: ONE, OR MORE THAN ONE?
Exodus 32
By Voy Wilks
3/9/98The Pre-existence
Philippians 2:5-11
By Voy Wilks
1/29/92Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?
…
Hi Frank,
Yes, the Septuagint bible is a pretty good translation!
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org“Jesus IS God!” or “A god” and That He Pre-existed His Birth As an Actual Being is of Pagan Origin!
“Paul labored in Athens to move his Greek audience away from belief in God as a “What” to belief in the God of Abraham and Isaac and Jacob who is a “Who” — a Person! Note the subtle approach of Paul: “What you worship but do not know, I am now proclaiming to you: The God who made the world and everything in it” (Acts 17:23, 24). It is a considerable irony that leading proponents of “orthodoxy” today betray the very same tendency which Paul strove to correct when they inform the Bible-searching public that “God is one What in two or three Who's.” Such a definition of God is not from Scripture at all, but from the world of Middle Platonism. It is Greek philosophy which promotes God as a “What,” and it is contemporary fundamentalism which (often heavy-handedly) requires church members to acknowledge the “one What” presented as what they call the “Biune or Triune God.” That God was not known to Jesus or Paul. …
This magazine hope to encourage a growing concern that Christianity's central dogma about God is not in fact the product of good Bible study but rather a curious novelty developed from the early second century under the baneful influence of Greek philosophical thinking centered in Alexandria, Egypt. In that learned city the Jews had already compromised their Hebrew-based faith by mixing it with Hellenism. The post-biblical church fell for the same trap and combined Greek cosmological thinking with the theology of the Bible, producing a hybrid notion of God. Later this was imposed on all believers. Dissidents and nonconformists were banned and banished, and sometimes murdered for their protests.
Professor J.H. Ellens of the University of Michigan provides the information needed for understanding that unfortunate historical development in his booklet The Ancient Library of Alexandria and Early Christian Theological Development (The Institute for Antiquity and Christianity, at the Claremont Graduate School, Occasional Papers, No. 27). Ellens summarizes his findings: “It seems patently true that the agenda of the ecumenical councils of the Christian Church, which permanently shaped the dogmatic tradition of the Christian faith [in terms of the doctrine of the Trinity]…was not a biblical agenda. It was rather a special type of Hellenistic and Neo-Platonist agenda…It is time, therefore, for the Christian Church to acknowledge that it has a very special type of material which constitutes its creedal tradition. It is not a creedal tradition of Biblical Theology. It is not a unique, inspired, and authoritative word from God. It is, rather, a special kind of Greek religiophilosophical mythology…It should be candidly admitted by the Church, then, that its roots are not in Jesus of Nazareth…Its roots are in Philonic, Hellenistic Judaism and in the Christianized Neo-Platonism of the second to the fifth century” (pp. 38, 39).”
Page 86 Keys Which Unlock the Bible
[PDF] SOURCEWHO IS THE WORD?
John Chapter OneELOHIM: ONE, OR MORE THAN ONE?
Exodus 32
By Voy Wilks
3/9/98The Pre-existence
Philippians 2:5-11
By Voy Wilks
1/29/92Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?
…
Quote (limjunus @ Sep. 16 2012,02:41) Quote (jammin @ Sep. 16 2012,01:35) Quote (limjunus @ Sep. 15 2012,18:47) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 15 2012,10:58) Quote (limjunus @ Sep. 14 2012,04:09) In what essence Jesus Christ is equal with God, as we have aware, it could not be as another true God, because for being the Supreme Being He is alone and could not be duplicated
limjunis,Who is “the only true Lord”?
And who is “the only true mighty one”?
Mike,There is so many true Lords can be read in the Bible. That's why apostle Paul reminded us, that among the many men called lords,.. for us alone, there is only one Lord, Jesus Christ. …also,
we can read in the Bible that there are so many mighty, but the the Almighty God is only one and He is true. ref: Gen. 6:4 NKJV.
There is no other true God, can be read in the Bible, except the Father and God of Jesus Christ. John 17:1-3 / 1 Cor. 8:6 / Mal. 2:10 NKJV.
if im going to follow your argument, the father is not LORD to you boy??
paul said there is ONE LORD, Christ.so is the father not LORD to you? yes or no?
Jammin,That's my original question to you, why you are now using it for me?
I have already lay down my explanation about it (1 Cor. 8:6) and you are again failing to answer my questions.
Did Apostle Paul said that the Father, for being specifically and categorically introduce the one and only true God, should not be called Lord, because of the next context that there is only one Lord Jesus Christ?
or
You just want the passages be in harmony with your understanding that the meaning of the words “only one” is not saying alone but two?
Oh come on Jammin.
To the true believers/ the chosen people of God. “There is only one true God, the Father. Is does to you Jammin, the real meaning of the word “Father” is the “Son”
Go and make your own Bible and your own dictionary.
answer my question boyyou said there is ONLY one GOD, the father and you quote 1 cor 8.6
paul also said there is only ONE LORD, Christ.
therefore, if i am going to follow your argument, the father is not LORD to you.
is the father not LORD to you?? yes or no?
Quote (limjunus @ Sep. 16 2012,02:01) Quote (jammin @ Sep. 16 2012,01:34) Quote (limjunus @ Sep. 15 2012,16:11) Quote (jammin @ Sep. 15 2012,02:58) Quote (limjunus @ Sep. 14 2012,21:09) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 14 2012,04:38) Quote (limjunus @ Sep. 12 2012,22:58) …the essence of the word equal is two and could not be completed without the other one to be equaled.
Exactly. One cannot be “equal to” himself. In order for one to be “equal to” another, there has to be that OTHER for him to be “equal to”. “Equal to” definitely implies TWO – one of whom is “equal to” the OTHER.So even with jammin's doctored translations that say Jesus is “equal to God”, it still backfires on him.
(FYI, there is no actual scripture that says Jesus is “equal to God” anyway. There are, however, many scriptures that say he is the “servant of”, and “lessor to” his God and Creator.)
In what essence Jesus Christ is equal with God, as we have aware, it could not be as another true God, because for being the Supreme Being He is alone and could not be duplicatedTherefore, God could and would be equaled by Jesus Christ in the essence of God's attributes.
The true God in the essence of qualities, is holy,… Jesus Christ is also holy (sinless). (God and Jesus Christ is equal in holiness)
A sinless or a holy man could not be condemned to death. The rules of the law is, “For the wages of sin is death….” ref. Romans 6:23 NKJV.
Therefore, Jesus Christ even though he is a human is immortal (in the form/ nature/ attribute of God) for being holy/sinless and the power of death has nothing to do with him. But he did not consider it robbery to be equal with God,…” (Jesus Christ's nature/attributes is holy and immortal. Entitling him as equaled with God, and it is not robbery or to be hold) Ref: Philippians 2:6
Here is the mystery of the kingdom of God…. for the salvation of all mankind.
All mankind have sinned, except Jesus Christ. The nature/attributes of man is weak, violators or sinners, under the power of death and already condemned for the eternal punishment by God.
The salvation has been made through Jesus Christ. God made him a redeemer and Lord to those people who will beleive with his good news (Christ's gospel).
The good news is; Jesus Christ, have agreed with the will of God, that he must set aside his immortality and holiness by acting as a servant, acting has no reputation and willing to experiences a life of human full of sins, accepting the wages of death for the sinners; he must die for the sake of his believers/ followers even in the death of the cross. ref: Philippians 2:7-8
In the first place, Jesus Christ could enjoy the benefits for being holy/sinless. He can live forever and ever and no need for him to suffer as a sinner and no need for to experience the hardship in this world. But, instead he remove all of his attributes (immortality and holiness) with God, he took the normal form (sinners and mortal nature) of a human being, live among men, experiences the hardship in this world and died for us. The reward of his noble task and sacrifices,… God, exalted him, given him a name above every name and made him Lord and Savior for the Glory of his God and Father. ref: Philippians 29-11.
That's it…the mystery of the kingdom of God, for the salvation of the followers of Christ Jesus.
read in phil 2.6 that it refers only to holiness.ill wait.
give me a single translation limjunus.i do not need opinion. i want you to read your illusion in phil 2.6
that is not the right meaning of the verse.
you are not saying the whole truth. you are like your father satan
Jammin,Now, you are requesting for a single translation? You did not see it? There were references every end of the context.
It is not my opinion, it is the new covenant or gospel of Christ Jesus. That he must set aside his nature/attributes for being a holy man of God. A holy man could not overcome by death or the power of death has nothing to do with a sinless man.
In other words, the penalty of sin is death and eternal condemnation in the lake of fire (hell). ref: Romans 6:23 / Rev. 20:14 NKJV
Jammin, answer me honestly. How the holy man or a sinless man could be put into death by God, where is the righteousness that only a guilty man must be punished by death?
Do not insist your incorrect understanding with the Philippians 2:6 and just throw away the verses 7 to 11.
Do not contradict the truth of the Bible by twisting it because of your own understanding.
Think it and learn it rightfully. You must throw away your belief that the true God died for us.
Here is the truth of the kingdom of God. The one and only true God, is immortal and would never died.
In fact you are in the stage of a very dangerous illusion.
Jesus Christ, sacrifices his nature/attributes. For being sinless or a holy man, the power of the death has nothing to do with him (Romans 6:23 and Rev.20:14)
The status of Jesus Christ was a sinless man entitling him for immortality. The same/equal quality of God, never died.
But he did not hold into it, instead he set aside it (stripped the equality of God) and agreed to be the appointed redeemer, willing to change his status of being holy man/immortal and took the normal form a human being, acting like sinners, experiencing the pain of being a sinners and ready to die even on the cross.
Because of completion of the noble and holy task given to him by God, he has been rewarded, exalted, receiving precious name above all name and made him Lord and Savior of the chosen people of God.
You are in a perfect illusion of Satan, Jammin. Imagining your belief,…The true God rewarding another true God,… true God died on the cross because he is obeying the commandments of his another true God?
The Holy Scriptures is full of mystery and it is not like an open or ordinary book. You can not get the rightful understanding on it except with the guidance the true preachers of God.
Peace.
therefore you cant read in
phil 2.6-7 that it ONLY refers to holiness.make your own bible boy LOL
the meaning of the verse is that HE IS GOD! it refers to possessing the fullness of the attributes which make God God
Philippians 2:6-7
Amplified Bible (AMP)
6 Who, although being essentially one with God and in the form of God [[a]possessing the fullness of the attributes which make God God], did not think this equality with God was a thing to be eagerly grasped [c]or retained,
7 But stripped Himself [of all privileges and [d]rightful dignity], so as to assume the guise of a servant (slave), in that He became like men and was born a human being.
it talks about the ESSENCE!
Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Bible Commentary
His already existing STATE OF EQUALITY with God, both the Father and the Son having the same ESSENCE.
Jammin,You mean there are two true Gods in existing with the same essence? Now, you are introducing two Gods,.. a clear contradiction to the official pronouncement of the Son of God. “stating: ” That they may know you (Father) the only true God. Father is the only true God, and very vividly is not the Son.
If the Bible said Father, meaning is not the Son. YEs or NO Jammin?
so until now you cant give me any single version that says in phil 2.6 that it refers only to the holiness of Christ. LOLwhy dont you make your own bible to support your imagination boy LOL
the bible said the father and the son have the same nature, nature GOD!
that's what the bible says. the bible did not say TWO GODS bec the christians know that God is the form of Christ! that God is nature of Christ! phil 2.6
they know that the father and the son have that same nature!they are both God by nature!
ill repeat my example.
you and your father have the same nature, HUMAN
you are both HUMAN!
Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 16 2012,03:03) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 16 2012,02:07) Quote (jammin @ Sep. 15 2012,08:35) Quote (limjunus @ Sep. 14 2012,04:09) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 15 2012,10:58) limjunis, Who is “the only true Lord”?
And who is “the only true mighty one”?
Mike,There is so many true Lords can be read in the Bible. That's why apostle Paul reminded us, that among the many men called lords,.. for us alone, there is only one Lord, Jesus Christ. …also,
we can read in the Bible that there are so many mighty, but the the Almighty God is only one and He is true. ref: Gen. 6:4 NKJV.
There is no other true God, can be read in the Bible, except the Father and God of Jesus Christ. John 17:1-3 / 1 Cor. 8:6 / Mal. 2:10 NKJV.
if im going to follow your argument, the father is not LORD to you boy??
paul said there is ONE LORD, Christ.so is the father not LORD to you? yes or no?
jammin has a good point here, limjunis.We must learn to understand “emphatical statements”. If we take “only Lord, Jesus Christ” LITERALLY, then it means Jehovah is NOT our Lord.
If we take “only true God” LITERALLY, then it means that Jesus, and the other servants of Jehovah who have been called “god” in the scriptures, are “false gods”.
Read my last post about President Obama, limjunis. Does calling Obama “the only true President” make the President of Mexico a “false President”? Or is it a way of placing Obama ABOVE the other Presidents in the world? Which one?
Hi Mike,Where is Jesus ever been called “Theos” in Scripture?
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
Mike,We are not discussing the position of the President. As we have aware, there are many true Presidents in this world.
Supreme Being or the Almighty God is different compare to any true President in this world.
The true Almighty God is the creator of everything that's includes, all the Presidents here on earth.
There is no two true “Almighty God”. The Creator of everything must be only one.
The essence of the word “ALMIGHTY GOD” is appropriate and just for only one and the word equal is not applicable or else the word “ALMIGHTY GOD” should not be used.
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 16 2012,03:28) Quote (limjunus @ Sep. 15 2012,09:57) The other gods meaning there are not true God.
So the faithful servants of Jehovah are “false gods”, limjunis? YES or NO?Jehovah has had many faithful servants who have been called “gods” – Jesus is one of them. Is Jesus then a “false god” because he is not “the only true god”?
How about “Lord”? Jesus is called “the ONLY Lord”. Does that mean Jehovah is NOT your Lord, limjunis?
Jehovah is called the only Savior. Does that mean Jesus is a “false savior”? YES or NO?
I agree that we must adhere to the words of the scriptures – but we must do so in the context of the scriptures as a whole.
In 1 Cor 8:6, Paul is laying out the hierarchy of those who rule over us. He is listing the Father as the Head, and under Him the one He set up as our Lord. But it is not meant to be taken LITERALLY, as if Jehovah is the only “mighty one” in existence, or that Jesus is the only “master” in existence.
Here is an example:
1 Corinthians 15:27
For he “has put everything under his feet.” Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ.Now imagine Paul didn't add the bolded disclaimer. Would you take “everything” as a LITERAL statement, meaning that EVEN GOD was put under the feet of Jesus? Or would your common sense kick in and cause you to understand that “everything” was not meant to be taken LITERALLY?
In 15:27, we have Paul to state the disclaimer for us so that we know “everything” is NOT meant to be taken LITERALLY. In many other scriptures, there is no disclaimer stated, and we must use our common sense to know that certain things cannot possibly be taken LITERALLY.
- Is Jehovah LITERALLY the ONLY savior? NO.
- Is Jehovah LITERALLY the ONLY god (mighty one) in existence? NO.
- Is Jesus LITERALLY the ONLY lord in existence? NO.
We must use our common sense, and understand scripture AS A WHOLE, not just from one scripture here, and another scripture there.
Agreed?
We must also learn how to understand EMPHATICAL statements in the Bible. If I say that Usain Bolt is “the only true runner” on the planet, it is NOT a LITERAL statement – but an EMPHATICAL statement intended to mean that Usain Bolt is the BEST runner on the planet. Surely you can understand this, right?
Mike, nice try.The word “everything” and the word “only one” in the Bible, in some instances we should not taken it literally.
But concerning the word “Only true God” we must take it literally because in the Holy Scriptures (Bible) God, himself officially declared it. “I Know not any God except me. I am alone God and at the end of His plans, He shall be above all.
In the Bible, we can read the word “gods” and the word “lords” but it was already clarified by Jesus and his apostles, including the Prophets.
' …THAT THEY MAY KNOW YOU (FATHER) THE ONLY TRUE GOD..”
The genuine preachers of God, shall not make any opposing or any contradicting announcement against the truth about God.
The great teacher of God, officially declared that we must know only one true God, the Father of Jesus Christ and his believers. And the great Apostle Paul, officially supporting it by declaring that “FOR US THERE IS ONLY GOD, THE FATHER”
Jesus Christ and his disciples official declarations concerning the Oneness of God, was originally came from the Old Testaments. It is not a new dogma or doctrines. The singularity of the one and only God, could not be included to the words of “exception to the rule'.
Peace.
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