JOHN 1:1 who is the WORD?

[NickHassan]

Hi MB,
Does the toe worship or serve the head?

[NickHassan]

Hi MB,
It is just that you speak of the Lord as a lesser god rather than one we should be one with.

[mikeboll64]

Why would those two things be mutually exclusive, Nick?

[NickHassan]

Hi MB,
If you become one with the Lord will you be a lesser god too?

[mikeboll64]

If we become one with God Almighty, will we be God Almighty? Perhaps you are understanding “become one with” wrong.

[NickHassan]

hi MB,
Exactly.
No so why would you be confused?
Christ Jesus is the servant Son and we can be in him.

[mikeboll64]

I'm not sure how your post addresses my last one, but:

John 17
20 “My prayer is not for them alone. I pray also for those who will believe in me through their message, 21 that all of them may be one, Father, just as you are in me and I am in you. May they also be in us so that the world may believe that you have sent me.

Nick, do you think “becoming one with” Jesus and his God means you will BE Jesus and his God?

[NickHassan]

Hi MB,
Are you not yet one and in Spiritual communion with with the Father and the Son?
For us there is one God and one Lord.

You will never be the head of the Body or his God but Spiritual union is the plan.

[mikeboll64]

BINGO!  So now you've answered YOUR OWN question about whether being one with Jesus means we will be lesser gods like he is.

So it seems I wasn't “confused” at all, was I? It seems that we understand “becoming one with” the same way after all.

Which makes me wonder why you post the things you do.

[NickHassan]

Hi MB,
Where did I say that?
You may imagine you are a lesser god but it is not of scripture.

[mikeboll64]

Nick,

You asked me if we could be one with Jesus, OR if he was a lesser god. I asked you why those two things would be mutually exclusive.

Then you asked if being one with Jesus meant we would be lesser gods too.

Then I asked you if being one with God meant we would be God. I added that you might be understanding “one with” wrong.

Then you posted the truth of the matter, explaining that being “one with” Jesus and his God refers to being “in spiritual communion with” Jesus and his God.

This has been the truth during the course of this whole, tiring discussion, and has nothing at all to do with us becoming God, or even lesser gods.

So I want to know why you asked this question in the first place:

Hi MB,
If you become one with the Lord will you be a lesser god too?

Read our discussion back about 10 posts, Nick. Are you able to see how you just play games and push buttons? You are very frustrating sometimes.

[Wakeup]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 24 2012,08:33)

BINGO!  So now you've answered YOUR OWN question about whether being one with Jesus means we will be lesser gods like he is. So it seems I wasn't “confused” at all, was I?  It seems that we understand “becoming one with” the same way after all. Which makes me wonder why you post the things you do.

Hi MikeB.

If a person reads porno everyday,he will become one with what contains in that magazine.
His concept of thinking will be one of the same spirit,which is corrupt.And corrupt works will follow.

To be one with Christ is to feed on his words,which is the Holy bible. Therefore your concept of thinking will be changed into righteous thinking,and works.
This is the renewal of the mind.The old mind is dead.

wakeup.

[mikeboll64]

Hi Wakeup,

Have I indicated something different?

[Wakeup]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 24 2012,09:00)

Hi Wakeup, Have I indicated something different?

Mike B.

No,you are on the right path it is only trying to make things a bit more clearer,dont get me wrong.

wakeup.

[jammin]

Quote (Nick Hassan @ June 22 2012,21:19)

Hi Jammin, Children are covered by the parent's faith and from the time he was old enough to be about his Father's business he never sinned. His Father's written word guided him and he was perfected. He proved the Law was effective.

answer my question boy. do not explain

before at the jordan, Christ is not sinless?
yes or no?

[kerwin]

Nick;

John testifies that John the Baptist saw the Word in Jesus prior to his immersing the later.

[kerwin]

Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ June 24 2012,01:20)

Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ June 23 2012,13:27) Quote (kerwin @ June 22 2012,13:12) Frank; It is written: Luke 1:31 King James Version (KJV) 31 And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name Jesus. If the angel had spoken English then Miriam? would have heard  “And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name TheLordIsSalvation”.   I am not even sure Mary is a Hebrew name; while it is written that Joseph took her and Jesus down to Egypt; where the city of Alexandria was the home of many Hellenized Jews; who had forgotten their native tongue.  She may also have had a Roman name as a citizen of said empire.   I believe the name means “wished for child” as the inheritance to David's throne comes through her.  Mary  on the other hand is said to be a Latin name; though it may appear in other languages as well. kerwin, That is so hilarious, since the English language was not even in existence then! In fact, “TheLordIsSalvation” is not even a name! kerwin, To correct you, the English name would be Yahshua (commonly rendered 'Joshua') which has the meaning 'Yahweh is Redeemer'.

Frank4YAHWEH,

I do not speak Hebrew; but you claim Mary did. Perhaps though she lived in a time when there were four official languages used in the area; as shown by there use on Jesus' cross.

Jesus' name is not the only one this is done with; as I pointed out with Mary; whose name may well have been Miriam instead. Peter is Greek while Cephas is Hebrew version of the same name.

A name is meant to embody who the person is.

[terraricca]

Quote (kerwin @ June 24 2012,19:59)

Nick; John testifies that John the Baptist saw the Word in Jesus prior to his immersing the later.

K

how can a man SEE the words ,in a other man???

this beats me ,I am out

[NickHassan]

Hi KW,
You claim

“John testifies that John the Baptist saw the Word in Jesus prior to his immersing the later. “

Check what the PROPHET actually said.

[mikeboll64]

John 1:14
The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the only begotten, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

The only one who ever made his dwelling among mankind, and had the glory of the only begotten from the Father, is Jesus.  Therefore, according to this scripture, it was Jesus who “became flesh”, and Jesus who is referred to by John as “The Word”.

I would be able to understand the confusion if the same author didn't also refer to Jesus as “The Word” in Rev 19:13 and 1 John 1:1.  But seeing how everyone here (except for Ed) agrees that Jesus is called “the Word” in Rev 19:13, this shouldn't be so hard, IMO. After all, who else is ever called “the Word” AND dwelled on earth with the glory of God's only begotten?

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