JOHN 1:1 who is the WORD?

Viewing 20 posts - 7,061 through 7,080 (of 25,958 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • #297214
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (kerwin @ May 10 2012,09:19)

    Quote (Ed J @ May 09 2012,14:34)
    Hi Jammin,

    The N.I.V. is corrupt as well.

    God bless
    Ed J


    Ed. J,

    The NIV has a note about John 1:14 because early manuscripts disagree.  Jammin does not include the note.


    Hi Kerwin,

    The manuscripts disagree because both the 'Codex Sinaiticvs' and the 'Codex Vaticanvs' are corrupt Greek texts.
    The 'Nestle Test', which is a blending of the two, is what the N.I.V. was translated from.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #297215
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (jammin @ May 10 2012,11:26)

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ May 10 2012,06:06)
    Hi Jammin,
    Quoting scriptures in greek is no guarantee corruption is excluded.
    But modern versions like the NIV do not even attempt to remain true to the manuscripts.


    oh… LOL

    then make your own bible! no version that says that the WORD in john 1.1 is the HS

    make your own bible boy! LOL :D  :D  :D  :D


    Hi Jammin,

    If you agree altered texts mean nothing, then
    why do you bolster these corrupted versions?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #297216
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (jammin @ May 10 2012,11:29)
    edj,

    read the context and do not jump to the other verses like a grasshopper LOL

    the greek also says that the word in john 1.1 is the begotten son! the son of GOD!

    study hard boy LOL


    Hi Jammin,

    No, it doesn't.
    It instead says…
    The Word was GOD.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #297218
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ May 10 2012,14:19)
    Hi EDE,
    God looks after His word
    The KJV gets no mention


    Hi Nick,

    Where is his word that he is “looking after” it?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #297219
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi ED,
    Not wrapped in a KJV cover.
    The Spirit will help you

    #297221
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi Ed,
    If you claim the KJV is the one and only anointed version you say more than God does.

    #297222
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ May 10 2012,14:38)
    Hi ED,
    Not wrapped in a KJV cover.
    The Spirit will help you


    Hi Nick,

    If not there, then where?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #297223
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi ED,
    Do you really think God has one magic version?
    If that was the case you would not need His Spirit.

    #297224
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ May 10 2012,14:53)

    Quote (Ed J @ May 10 2012,14:44)

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ May 10 2012,14:38)

    Quote (Ed J @ May 10 2012,14:34)

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ May 10 2012,14:19)
    Hi EDE,
    God looks after His word
    The KJV gets no mention


    Hi Nick,

    Where is his word that he is “looking after” it?

    God bless
    Ed J


    Hi ED,
    Not wrapped in a KJV cover.
    The Spirit will help you


    Hi Nick,

    If not there, then where?

    God bless
    Ed J


    Hi ED,
    Do you really think God has one magic version?
    If that was the case you would not need His Spirit.


    Hi Nick,

    Just in case you didn't know, this opinion does not address my question.
    Which is: if not there, then where? will you please answer my question?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #297225
    kerwin
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ May 10 2012,09:23)

    Quote (kerwin @ May 10 2012,09:19)

    Quote (Ed J @ May 09 2012,14:34)
    Hi Jammin,

    The N.I.V. is corrupt as well.

    God bless
    Ed J


    Ed. J,

    The NIV has a note about John 1:14 because early manuscripts disagree.  Jammin does not include the note.


    Hi Kerwin,

    The manuscripts disagree because both the 'Codex Sinaiticvs' and the 'Codex Vaticanvs' are corrupt Greek texts.
    The 'Nestle Test', which is a blending of the two, is what the N.I.V. was translated from.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    Ed,

    I was mistaken as the NIV does not have a note.

    Why should I engage in vain arguments.

    #297228
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi ED,
    It is not that easy-one perfect version-problem solved.

    #297230
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (kerwin @ May 10 2012,17:02)

    Quote (Ed J @ May 10 2012,09:23)

    Quote (kerwin @ May 10 2012,09:19)

    Quote (Ed J @ May 09 2012,14:34)
    Hi Jammin,

    The N.I.V. is corrupt as well.

    God bless
    Ed J


    Ed. J,

    The NIV has a note about John 1:14 because early manuscripts disagree.  Jammin does not include the note.


    Hi Kerwin,

    The manuscripts disagree because both the 'Codex Sinaiticvs' and the 'Codex Vaticanvs' are corrupt
    Greek texts. The 'Nestle Test', which is a blending of the two, is what the N.I.V. was translated from.

    God bless
    Ed J


    Ed,

    I was mistaken as the NIV does not have a note.

    Why should  I engage in vain arguments.


    Hi Kerwin,

    I'm just merely bringing these facts to your attention.
    I have no intention to argue with you, whether
    you choose to believe these facts or not.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #297231
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ May 10 2012,18:17)
    Hi ED,
    It is not that easy-one perfect version-problem solved.


    What?

    #297234
    jammin
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ May 10 2012,14:31)

    Quote (jammin @ May 10 2012,11:29)
    edj,

    read the context and do not jump to the other verses like a grasshopper LOL

    the greek also says that the word in john 1.1 is the begotten son! the son of GOD!

    study hard boy LOL


    Hi Jammin,

    No, it doesn't.
    It instead says…
    The Word was GOD.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    LOL

    read a greek bible and you will know!

    stop fooling people edj.
    ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 1:14-18

    14 και ο λογος σαρξ εγενετο και εσκηνωσεν εν ημιν και εθεασαμεθα την δοξαν αυτου δοξαν ως μονογενους παρα πατρος πληρης χαριτος και αληθειας

    15 ιωαννης μαρτυρει περι αυτου και κεκραγεν λεγων ουτος ην ον ειπον ο οπισω μου ερχομενος εμπροσθεν μου γεγονεν οτι πρωτος μου ην

    16 και εκ του πληρωματος αυτου ημεις παντες ελαβομεν και χαριν αντι χαριτος

    17 οτι ο νομος δια μωσεως εδοθη η χαρις και η αληθεια δια ιησου χριστου εγενετο

    18 θεον ουδεις εωρακεν πωποτε ο μονογενης υιος ο ων εις τον κολπον του πατρος εκεινος εξηγησατο

    you need to study greek boy! LOL

    no greek scholar would accept your belief. every one who knows how to read greek will accept that the word in john 1.1 is the son of GOD.

    study hard boy LOL :D

    #297235
    jammin
    Participant

    nick,

    im not a self appointed as you think. im just saying what the bible says.

    believe it or not

    #297243
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (jammin @ May 10 2012,21:34)
    nick,

    im not a self appointed as you think. im just saying what the bible says.

    believe it or not


    No, you're saying what YOU BELIEVE the bible is saying,
    which is actually different from what is actually being said.

    #297244
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (jammin @ May 10 2012,21:33)

    Quote (Ed J @ May 10 2012,14:31)

    Quote (jammin @ May 10 2012,11:29)
    edj,

    read the context and do not jump to the other verses like a grasshopper LOL

    the greek also says that the word in john 1.1 is the begotten son! the son of GOD!

    study hard boy LOL


    Hi Jammin,

    No, it doesn't.
    It instead says…
    The Word was GOD.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    LOL

    read a greek bible and you will know!

    stop fooling people edj.
    ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 1:14-18

    14 και ο λογος σαρξ εγενετο και εσκηνωσεν εν ημιν και εθεασαμεθα την δοξαν αυτου δοξαν ως μονογενους παρα πατρος πληρης χαριτος και αληθειας

    15 ιωαννης μαρτυρει περι αυτου και κεκραγεν λεγων ουτος ην ον ειπον ο οπισω μου ερχομενος εμπροσθεν μου γεγονεν οτι πρωτος μου ην

    16 και εκ του πληρωματος αυτου ημεις παντες ελαβομεν και χαριν αντι χαριτος

    17 οτι ο νομος δια μωσεως εδοθη η χαρις και η αληθεια δια ιησου χριστου εγενετο

    18 θεον ουδεις εωρακεν πωποτε ο μονογενης υιος ο ων εις τον κολπον του πατρος εκεινος εξηγησατο

    you need to study greek boy! LOL

    no greek scholar would accept your belief. every one who knows how to read greek will accept that the word in john 1.1 is the son of GOD.

    study hard boy LOL  :D


    Hi Jammin,

    John 1:14 is about Jesus becoming “The Christ”,
    when he is baptized with God's HolySpirit.
    (see Acts 10:38 and 2 Cor 5:19)

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #297250
    jammin
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ May 10 2012,22:54)

    Quote (jammin @ May 10 2012,21:33)

    Quote (Ed J @ May 10 2012,14:31)

    Quote (jammin @ May 10 2012,11:29)
    edj,

    read the context and do not jump to the other verses like a grasshopper LOL

    the greek also says that the word in john 1.1 is the begotten son! the son of GOD!

    study hard boy LOL


    Hi Jammin,

    No, it doesn't.
    It instead says…
    The Word was GOD.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    LOL

    read a greek bible and you will know!

    stop fooling people edj.
    ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 1:14-18

    14 και ο λογος σαρξ εγενετο και εσκηνωσεν εν ημιν και εθεασαμεθα την δοξαν αυτου δοξαν ως μονογενους παρα πατρος πληρης χαριτος και αληθειας

    15 ιωαννης μαρτυρει περι αυτου και κεκραγεν λεγων ουτος ην ον ειπον ο οπισω μου ερχομενος εμπροσθεν μου γεγονεν οτι πρωτος μου ην

    16 και εκ του πληρωματος αυτου ημεις παντες ελαβομεν και χαριν αντι χαριτος

    17 οτι ο νομος δια μωσεως εδοθη η χαρις και η αληθεια δια ιησου χριστου εγενετο

    18 θεον ουδεις εωρακεν πωποτε ο μονογενης υιος ο ων εις τον κολπον του πατρος εκεινος εξηγησατο

    you need to study greek boy! LOL

    no greek scholar would accept your belief. every one who knows how to read greek will accept that the word in john 1.1 is the son of GOD.

    study hard boy LOL  :D


    Hi Jammin,

    John 1:14 is about Jesus becoming “The Christ”,
    when he is baptized with God's HolySpirit.
    (see Acts 10:38 and 2 Cor 5:19)

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    oh really??
    LOL

    no bible scholar will accept your opinion!
    study greek boy! LOL

    btw, when you read the bible make sure you follow the context and stop jumping to the other verses like a grasshopper.
    LOL :D

    #297255
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi Jammin,
    Bible scholars do not necessarily know God or His son.
    Why would you follow them?

    #297259
    kerwin
    Participant

    Ed J.

    It is written:

    Deuteronomy 30:14
    New International Version (NIV)

    14 No, the word is very near you; it is in your mouth and in your heart so you may obey it.

    Deuteronomy 30:14
    King James Version (KJV)

    14 But the word is very nigh unto thee, in thy mouth, and in thy heart, that thou mayest do it.

    It is faith in the Word that we confess with our mouth and believe in our heart;  Whatever the NIV, KJV, or any  other version speaks that is from God believe;  Whatever it speaks that is not from God do not believe.  God is a living God that draws those that believe unto him; but not those who make Scripture their God.

Viewing 20 posts - 7,061 through 7,080 (of 25,958 total)
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