JOHN 1:1 who is the WORD?

[mikeboll64]

I haven't yet decided, Nick. I am aware of your interpretation, thanks.

[mikeboll64]

Quote (kerwin @ Feb. 27 2012,17:38)

While I understand the word “Word” in John 1:1 literally you chose to believe it symbolizes a being that would be named Jesus.  I challenge the grounds to your belief.

Well, this particular Word became flesh, Kerwin.  And not only did HE (the Greek word used) become flesh, but when HE did, HE had the glory of God's only begotten Son, the sandals of whom John was unfit to untie.

Later in the chapter, John lists the person whose sandals he was unfit to untie as “JESUS”.

[NickHassan]

Hi MB,
Yes the Word was Jesus CHRIST, the anointed Jesus.

[mikeboll64]

I thought the Word was GOD, Nick.  Which is it?

[kerwin]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Feb. 28 2012,05:50)

Quote (kerwin @ Feb. 27 2012,17:38) While I understand the word “Word” in John 1:1 literally you chose to believe it symbolizes a being that would be named Jesus.  I challenge the grounds to your belief. Well, this particular Word became flesh, Kerwin.  And not only did HE (the Greek word used) become flesh, but when HE did, HE had the glory of God's only begotten Son, the sandals of whom John was unfit to untie. Later in the chapter, John lists the person whose sandals he was unfit to untie as “JESUS”.

Mike,

Logos is a masculine noun and the correct pronoun to represent it is also masculine.

Quote

There are three genders in Greek: masculine, feminine, and neuter. All nouns have a specific gender, but contrary to English, even things (including concrete objects and abstract ideas) can be masculine, feminine, or neuter, and there is no way to predict the gender from the semantics of the noun a point that causes a lot of frustration to learners of Greek. For example, the wall is masculine, the door feminine, and the floor neuter. Native speakers of English typically make a strong association between the concepts masculine ↔ man and between feminine ↔ woman. Native speakers of Greek learn to associate the gender as something inherent to each specific noun, adjective, article, etc., and do not make such a strong association. So, we say that English has “natural gender”, whereas Greek has “formal gender”. (Many other Indo-European languages, such as French, German, Italian, Portuguese, Russian, Spanish, etc., also have formal gender.) Gender names in Greek: αρσενικό (masculine), θηλυκό (feminine), ουδέτερο (neuter).

Here is my source.

[NickHassan]

Hi Mb,
The Word was God.
The Spirit of Christ is of the Spirit of God

[terraricca]

Quote (Nick Hassan @ Feb. 28 2012,17:45)

Hi , So John came IN THE SPIRIT AND POWER OF ELIJAH. So Jesus did not mean he WAS Elijah in the way we would understand that to mean. The Spirit has diversity.

N

you should read all scriptures may be you would understand it better

[NickHassan]

Hi T,
When did you stop learning?

[terraricca]

Quote (Nick Hassan @ Feb. 28 2012,19:38)

Hi T, When did you stop learning?

N

it seems you have difficulty with simple truths

like to figure out Elijah and John the Baptist

it is clearly say in scriptures but someone as to read it

[NickHassan]

Hi T,
So do you agree with MB that Elijah did not speak by the Holy Ghost?
What about John?

[mikeboll64]

Quote (kerwin @ Feb. 27 2012,18:27)

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Feb. 28 2012,05:50) Quote (kerwin @ Feb. 27 2012,17:38) While I understand the word “Word” in John 1:1 literally you chose to believe it symbolizes a being that would be named Jesus.  I challenge the grounds to your belief. Well, this particular Word became flesh, Kerwin.  And not only did HE (the Greek word used) become flesh, but when HE did, HE had the glory of God's only begotten Son, the sandals of whom John was unfit to untie. Later in the chapter, John lists the person whose sandals he was unfit to untie as “JESUS”. Mike, Logos is a masculine noun and the correct pronoun to represent it is also masculine.

That's right, Kerwin. And it is often used to refer to a MALE PERSON, right?

[mikeboll64]

Quote (Nick Hassan @ Feb. 27 2012,18:35)

Hi Mb, The Word was God. The Spirit of Christ is of the Spirit of God

So “GOD” became “NOT GOD”?

[mikeboll64]

Quote (Nick Hassan @ Feb. 27 2012,19:52)

Hi T, So do you agree with MB that Elijah did not speak by the Holy Ghost? What about John?

Retract that and apologize, Nick. Either that, or show me where I said such a thing.

[NickHassan]

Hi MB,
Perhaps I went too far. Sorry

Anyway in reply to this question you said.
Quote (Nick Hassan @ Feb. 28 2012,18:54)
Hi MB,
Is the Spirit of Elijah in John of the Spirit of God?

“N

NO, “

SO WHAT DID YOU MEAN?

[terraricca]

Quote (Nick Hassan @ Feb. 28 2012,19:52)

Hi T, So do you agree with MB that Elijah did not speak by the Holy Ghost? What about John?

N

so you are a deciever,

Quote

Hi , So John came IN THE SPIRIT AND POWER OF ELIJAH. So Jesus did not mean he WAS Elijah in the way we would understand that to mean. The Spirit has diversity.

relate your questioning to the above ??

Quote

Hi T, So do you agree with MB that Elijah did not speak by the Holy Ghost? What about John?

we are not discussing if Elijah speaks or not ,or John the Baptist speaks or not ,

OR ARE YOU ????

[NickHassan]

Hi T,
Your judgement is noted.
Tell me of the Spirit in Elijah and John or were they speaking of their own spirit?

[terraricca]

Quote (Nick Hassan @ Feb. 28 2012,20:25)

Hi T, Your judgement is noted. Tell me of the Spirit in Elijah and John or were they speaking of their own spirit?

N

that question as no sense ,we all know that Elijah was Gods prophet and we also know that John the Baptist was Gods prophet but they are two different prophets ,

and yes they both spoke the words of their God

[jammin]

Quote (Ed J @ Feb. 28 2012,08:13)

Quote (jammin @ Feb. 28 2012,01:41) Quote (david @ Feb. 27 2012,17:56) Quote (jammin @ Feb. 27 2012,15:15) no nick. another meaning of christ is the son of GOD mat 16.16 the son of GOD became human and was given a name jesus Jamming, you have to stop saying this.  It's simply not true. It's like saying that father means “god” because the father is God. True, Jesus was both the Christ and the son of god. He was also a prophet and shepherd and teacher… Christ means son of GOD mat 16.16 Christ is the WORD in john 1.1 he was called the WORD or WORD of GOD. in verse 14 he became human. that is what the bible says. Hi Jammin, Was not Matt.16:16 spoken AFTER Jordan? God bless Ed J (Joshua 22:34) http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

Luke 2:11

American Standard Version (ASV)

11 for there is born to you this day in the city of David a Saviour, who is Christ the Lord.

there is no jordan river here.
what are you talking about?? he is really the CHRIST the LORD!

when he became human, he was given a name JESUS.

31 And behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS.

[jammin]

Quote (Nick Hassan @ Feb. 28 2012,04:02)

Hi Jammin, No it does not MEAN that. Though the Christ was also reborn as the Son of God The firstborn from the DEAD-we are the dead-till we too are given life of water and the Spirit.

where can i read your opinion nick??

you said he was reborn as the son of GOD???

what???
that is just your opinion

give me the verse

[jammin]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Feb. 28 2012,09:22)

Quote (jammin @ Feb. 27 2012,08:39) Quote (Ed J @ Feb. 27 2012,17:24) Quote (david @ Feb. 27 2012,11:32) Jammin, doesn't “Christ” or “messiah” literally mean “anointed one.” Didn't he in fact become the anointed one (Christ) when he was anointed with holy spirit? Yes David, Jesus was born the “Son of God” and became “the Christ” at Jordan. you cant read that you cant read that he became christ at jordan. that's not what the bible says. GOD did not say you became christ now here at the jordan river. it is just your illusion my friend. jammin is spot on with this point. Luke 2:11 says Jesus was BORN the Christ.  Luke 2:25-32 tells about a man named Simeon.  God promised this man he would not die before seeing God's Christ.  After seeing the 8 day old Jesus, Simeon thanked God for keeping His promise, and said he could now be dismissed (die) in peace. How could God have already KEPT His promise to Simeon about letting him see the Christ before he died if Jesus wasn't the Christ at the moment Simeon got to see him? And as jammin points out, you cannot read from scripture that Christ BECAME the Christ at the Jordan.  You cannot read that God said, “NOW you're the Christ” at the Jordan. This is one of those popular thoughts that many people just take for granted.  But I'm unaware of any scripture that says Jesus became “Christ” at the Jordan.  And considering that I just listed two scriptures that say he was Christ long before the Jordan, I'd say it's one of those popular thoughts that these same many people ought to let die.  There is no scriptural proof FOR it, and there is scriptural proof AGAINST it. jammin, there is also no scriptural evidence that Jesus wasn't already named Jesus in heaven before he was made into the likeness of a human being.

31 And behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS.

that's what the bible says.

[Author]

Posts