Did Jesus pre-exist before his birth on Earth?

Where did Jesus come from?

John 6:38-40
For I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will, but the will of him who sent me; and this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise it up at the last day. For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who sees the Son and believes in him should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.

The first verse suggests that Jesus came down from Heaven. This seems to contradict that belief which suggests he first existed as a man when he was born into this world. For if Jesus came into existence for the first time when he was conceived through Mary, how could he come down from Heaven? We (Man) came into existence when we are born into this world, but would it be correct to say that we came down from Heaven too? If a verse said that we came down from Heaven, would you think that we pre-existed in Heaven? If so, then why not Jesus?

John 3:17 is another verse that provides support that Jesus came down from Heaven or was sent rather than created.

For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.

The word ‘send’ is the Greek word ‘apostello’.

apostello {ap-os-tel’-lo}
1) to order (one) to go to a place appointed
2) to send away, dismiss
2a) to allow one to depart, that he may be in a state of liberty
2b) to order one to depart, send off
2c) to drive away

To be sent surely implies existence otherwise you would just say born or created. In fact this word (sent) is similar in meaning and sound to the word Apostle (apostolos), which means “one sent forth with orders”. To be sent forth with order, you must exist.

John 6:62
What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?

Jesus is clearly stating here that he came from above since he eventually ascended into Heaven to be at the right-hand of God.

How old is Jesus?

John 1:15
15 John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.‘ “

John the Baptist was six months older than Jesus Christ. So it is physically impossible for Christ to be before him in age. If this verse is referencing age, then it shows preexistence. Jesus existed before  John the Baptist in the least.

John 8:58
“I tell you the truth,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!

Jesus claimed to exist before Abraham, the father of the Jews. The words ‘I am’ mean ‘I exist’. So Jesus claimed existence before Abraham. We can see that Jesus is getting older as we explore the scriptures. But how old?

Jude 1:25
to the only God our Savior be glory, majesty, power and authority, through Jesus Christ our Lord, before all ages, now and forevermore! Amen.

Here we can see that majesty, power, and authority through Jesus Christ is before all ages (all worlds) and forever more into the future. This strongly implies that Jesus existed even before all things. But can we substantiate this?

Did Jesus exist before all creation?

Colossians 1:17
He is before all things, and in him all things hold together.

Colossians answers the question outright. It states that “He is before all things“.  But are there other verses that support this idea?

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus being there. This verse alone answers the question because the universe, angels, and men were made and Jesus was present when they were created according to these verses. In case that is not enough to convince you, I also add another clear verse that says the same thing.

Hebrews 1:1-2
1 In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways,
2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe.

Is Jesus the Word of God?

But some say that this is talking about the Word and not all believe that Jesus is the Word of God. They argue that Jesus came from the Word, but is not the Word itself that was with God in John 1:1. If you believe this, then please explain the next two verses within their wider context:

Revelation 19:13
He is dressed in a robe dipped in blood, and his name is the Word of God.

Colossians 1:15-18
The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him. He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. And he is the head of the body, the church; he is the beginning and the firstborn from among the dead, so that in everything he might have the supremacy.

Okay, if you are honest, this is a closed case. God created all things through the Word. Jesus is called the Word of God and also the son of God. We are also told that God created all things through the son of God. Even if you do not believe that Jesus is the Word, then you still have to believe that Jesus pre-existed on account of him being the son of God. But what we know from scripture is that Jesus existed as the Word of God before he came as a man called Jesus. We know that the Word became flesh.

More proof verses

If Jesus pre-existed, then you might expect that even though the above verses are clear, there would be more verses that teach or at least imply that he pre-existed. So let’s see if this is the case.

Revelation 22:16
“I, Jesus, have sent my angel to give you this testimony for the churches. I am the Root and the Offspring of David, and the bright Morning Star.”

Here we see that Jesus is the offspring of David, yet he is also the root of David, which at appears to show existence before King David. He also claims to be the bright Morning Star and we read in Job how the Morning Stars were present when God created the Earth.

Job 38:6-7
“On what were its bases sunk? Or who laid its cornerstone, When the morning stars sang together And all the sons of God shouted for joy? 

Luke 10:18
He replied, “I saw Satan fall like lightning from heaven.

Comparing Luke 10:18 with Revelation 12:1-10, some say that Satan and his angels fell to the earth before the birth of Christ as a man. If this was the case, then Jesus saw an event that took place before he was born as a man. However, others argue that Satan hasn’t fallen to the Earth yet, or that he has, but Jesus saw this in a vision. Regardless, it certainly doesn’t contradict that Jesus pre-existed.

Micah 5:2
“But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, though you are small among the clans of Judah, out of you will come for me one who will be ruler over Israel, whose origins are from of old, from ancient times.”

The above verse talks about someone who will rule Israel and whose origin is from ancient times. Who but Jesus could fit that description?

John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God/Divine.

John 1:14
The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only,[ 1:14 Or the Only Begotten] who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Clearly, Jesus was with God in the beginning as the Word of God. This places his existence as before all things and thus comes as no surprise that he was there when God created all things.

The Angel of YHWH

We know from certain scriptures that Jesus is Lord of the Sabbath and many assume that Jesus gave the Law of God. We are told in Acts:7:30-39 for instance that an Angel of the Lord appeared to Moses through whom God spoke and this is the same Angel who spoke to Moses on Mount Sinai and passed on the living words (The Law) to Moses.

30 “After forty years had passed, an angel appeared to Moses in the flames of a burning bush in the desert near Mount Sinai.
31 When he saw this, he was amazed at the sight. As he went over to look more closely, he heard the Lord’s voice:
32 ‘I am the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.’Moses trembled with fear and did not dare to look.
33 “Then the Lord said to him, ‘Take off your sandals; the place where you are standing is holy ground.
34 I have indeed seen the oppression of my people in Egypt. I have heard their groaning and have come down to set them free. Now come, I will send you back to Egypt.’
35 “This is the same Moses whom they had rejected with the words, ‘Who made you ruler and judge?’ He was sent to be their ruler and deliverer by God himself, through the angel who appeared to him in the bush.
36 He led them out of Egypt and did wonders and miraculous signs in Egypt, at the Red Sea and for forty years in the desert.
37 “This is that Moses who told the Israelites, ‘God will send you a prophet like me from your own people.’
38 He was in the assembly in the desert, with the angel who spoke to him on Mount Sinai, and with our fathers; and he received living words to pass on to us.
39 “But our fathers refused to obey him. Instead, they rejected him and in their hearts turned back to Egypt.

So is this Angel of the Lord, Jesus? Well it seems possible. Perhaps the correct model to look at is the one mentioned in Revelation 1:1

The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,

Here we can see that the order of the Revelation started with the Originator which is God. He then passed the message to Jesus Christ who in turn sent it to his Angel and then to John. So perhaps it is possible that the angel in Revelation is the same angel mentioned in Acts:7:30-39.

But the Angel of YHWH or Angel of the LORD is described as one like the son of gods.

Daniel 3:24-25
Then Nebuchadnezzar the king was astounded and stood up in haste; he said to his high officials, “Was it not three men we cast bound into the midst of the fire?” They replied to the king, “Certainly, O king.” He said, “Look! I see four men loosed and walking about in the midst of the fire without harm, and the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods!”

The idea that a preincarnate Jesus was this Angel of the LORD is a popular one. We know that this Angel of the LORD is never mentioned while Jesus is walking the earth which supports this idea. But it could also be a coincidence. One connection that can be made with Jesus being this messenger is found in Judges 13:18.

Manoah said to the angel of the LORD, “What is your name, so that when your words come to pass, we may honor you?” But the angel of the LORD said to him, “Why do you ask my name, seeing it is wonderful?”

Now read what Isaiah prophesied in Isaiah 9:6 .

For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

Clearly, Isaiah was speaking of Jesus Christ and note that he was called Wonderful Counselor. Is there a connection here? Perhaps. What we do know is the word ‘angel’ is the same word messenger in the Old Testament, and while it is held that Jesus is not an angel in kind, we know he certainly was a messenger of YHWH and would be fair to say even ‘The Messenger of YHWH’.

So the idea that he may be this angel is not that far fetched. Some vehemently oppose this idea, but they are not aware that both Jesus and John are called angels in the messenger sense.

More to come here……

More proof that Jesus pre-existed

Rev 3:14
And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God.

Moving on we read the following in Philippians 2:5-11
5 Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus:
6 Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,
7 but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.
8 And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to death even death on a cross!
9 Therefore God exalted him to the highest place and gave him the name that is above every name,
10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

Surely the above verses assumes preexistence.  Look at verse 7: ‘but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness’. This verse points out that Jesus humbled himself to become a (or like a) human and also a servant. So this suggests to us that he preexisted in a higher state because to humble oneself is to become lower. If he started life in this humbled state, then it would be incorrect to say that he humbled himself. Further, he “found himself in appearance as a man” is a weird statement to make if he first existed as a human baby.

This verse is often used in support of the trinity doctrine because of the word ‘equal’. But if you are equal to something it means that you are not that thing, rather you are like that thing. This scripture is also very clear about the following: The Father is God and Jesus is Lord and that God exalted Jesus to the highest place.

A closer look at verse 9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: Now I am not sure if Jesus was exalted higher than he was before he came to this world or whether he was exalted to the exact position that he had before. But if we look at John 17:5 again we can see that Jesus asked to return to his former glory.

John 17:5
And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began.

The above verse is clear about Christ’s pre-existence in glory before the world began. Just to prove this is not an isolated scripture here is a similar verse:

John 16:28
I came from the Father and entered the world; now I am leaving the world and going back to the Father.”

The next verse also confirms that Jesus pre-existed in Heaven.

John 3:12-15
12 I have spoken to you of earthly things and you do not believe; how then will you believe if I speak of heavenly things?
13 No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven, the Son of Man.
14 Just as Moses lifted up the snake in the desert, so the Son of Man must be lifted up,
15 that everyone who believes in him may have eternal life.

Ezekiel 8:1-3
1 In the sixth year, in the sixth month on the fifth day, while I was sitting in my house and the elders of Judah were sitting before me, the hand of the Sovereign LORD came upon me there.
2 I looked, and I saw a figure like that of a man. From what appeared to be his waist down he was like fire, and from there up his appearance was as bright as glowing metal.
3 He stretched out what looked like a hand and took me by the hair of my head. The Spirit lifted me up between earth and heaven and in visions of God he took me to Jerusalem, to the entrance to the north gate of the inner court, where the idol that provokes to jealousy stood.

This verse is interesting in the sense that the description is very similar to the description of Jesus Christ in Revelation 1:12-18,

12 I turned around to see the voice that was speaking to me. And when I turned I saw seven golden lampstands,
13 and among the lampstands was someone “like a son of man,” dressed in a robe reaching down to his feet and with a golden sash around his chest.
14 His head and hair were white like wool, as white as snow, and his eyes were like blazing fire.
15 His feet were like bronze glowing in a furnace, and his voice was like the sound of rushing waters.
16 In his right hand he held seven stars, and out of his mouth came a sharp double-edged sword. His face was like the sun shining in all its brilliance.
17 When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. Then he placed his right hand on me and said: “Do not be afraid. I am the First and the Last.
18 I am the Living One; I was dead, and behold I am alive for ever and ever! And I hold the keys of death and Hades.

Have a look at the next verse. 1 Corinthians 11:3 (English-NIV)
Now I want you to realize that the head of every man is Christ, and the head of the woman is man, and the head of Christ is God.

Now the word head in the Greek is ‘kephale’ which can mean head, source or master. Now if we notice the order in a time sense, we have to admit that God is the first as he is the only one who has existed for all eternity with no beginning. We also know from scripture that the man came first and the woman came from the man. So that part is correct if we use a timeline. That just leaves Christ. Did he come between God and Man. I think so, as I believe that all things came from him and this opinion does fit perfectly into this model in a time sense at least. Anyway the word Christ here is ‘Christos’ which means “anointed”. So the anointed is the head of Man.
God > Christ > Man > Woman

If God created all things for his Son and his Son was the channel for that creation to come into being, then we can only assume that Christ existed at this point. As Genesis says: Let us make Man in our image. God was talking to Christ at this point and we know that Christ is the image of God and we are the image of Christ. Therefore the image of the image of God (man) is still the image of God. But Christ is the original and first image and we can only assume again that that image existed before the image of the image. A bit like a mirror that reflects a mirror, the original mirror has to exist in order to reflect the second mirror.

So we know that Christ preexisted before creation and now we will look at some more scriptures that show that he was born before creation itself?

Colossians 1:15-16
15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.
16 For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him.

The above verse is quite clear that ALL things were created by or through Jesus.

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So again, there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus/The Word being there. Only the Father and Son were not made. God has always existed and the Son was born from God before the creation of the universe, before anything was made. The next verse describes clearly who/what was the first of God’s works.

Proverbs 8:22-30
22 “The LORD brought me forth as the first of his works, {[22] Or ; or } {[22] Or ; or } before his deeds of old;
23 I was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
24 When there were no oceans, I was given birth, when there were no springs abounding with water;
25 before the mountains were settled in place, before the hills, I was given birth,
26 before he made the earth or its fields or any of the dust of the world.
27 I was there when he set the heavens in place, when he marked out the horizon on the face of the deep,
28 when he established the clouds above and fixed securely the fountains of the deep,
29 when he gave the sea its boundary so the waters would not overstep his command, and when he marked out the foundations of the earth.
30 Then I was the craftsman at his side. I was filled with delight day after day, rejoicing always in his presence,

This verse is talking about Wisdom, whom many believe is Christ. This scriptures compliments other scriptures that that teach that Jesus was given birth by God and then created all THINGS though him.

So from this verse we can see the following points.

Wisdom was brought forth as the first of Gods works.
Wisdom was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
Wisdom was given birth before creation.
Wisdom was the craftsman at his side and rejoiced in his presence before creation.
Some say that Wisdom isn’t Christ, rather this is just wisdom in a conceptual sense and it is true that wisdom is being spoken of in that way. But from verse 22 onward it changes tempo. With terms like I was given birth, I was the craftsman at his side and I was filled with delight, we have to admit that it seems to be talking about a person. Now have a look at the following verses:

1 Corinthians 1:24 (English-NIV)
but to those whom God has called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God.

1 Corinthians 1:30 (English-NIV)
It is because of him that you are in Christ Jesus, who has become for us wisdom from God–that is, our righteousness, holiness and redemption.

Let’s look at some other concepts that Jesus personifies:

Jesus is the Truth. Yet truth is also a concept.
Jesus is the Way. Yet the way is also a concept.
Jesus is the Life. Yet life can also be a concept.
Now look at the following mystery:

1 Corinthians 2:6-9
6 We do, however, speak a message of wisdom among the mature, but not the wisdom of this age or of the rulers of this age, who are coming to nothing.
7 No, we speak of God’s secret wisdom, a wisdom that has been hidden and that God destined for our glory before time began.
8 None of the rulers of this age understood it, for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.
9 However, as it is written:
“No eye has seen,
no ear has heard,
no mind has conceived
what God has prepared for those who love him”

Ephesians 3:8-10
8 Although I am less than the least of all God’s people, this grace was given me: to preach to the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ,
9 and to make plain to everyone the administration of this mystery, which for ages past was kept hidden in God, who created all things.
10 His intent was that now, through the church, the manifold wisdom of God should be made known to the rulers and authorities in the heavenly realms,

Perhaps another scripture alluding to Jesus being the Wisdom of God.

Finally I leave you with the following OT scripture that suggests that God had a Son before the birth Of Jesus Christ on earth.

Proverbs 30:4
Who has gone up to heaven and come down? Who has gathered up the wind in the hollow of his hands? Who has wrapped up the waters in his cloak? Who has established all the ends of the earth? What is his name, and the name of his son? Tell me if you know!


Discussion

Viewing 20 posts - 14,821 through 14,840 (of 19,165 total)
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  • #298868
    Frank4YAHWEH
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ May 19 2012,14:24)
    Hmmmmmmmm………….  

    Frank, you claim that the word “dia” in Heb 1:2 means “FOR, BECAUSE OF, or ON ACCOUNT OF”, correct?

    Well, the same word “dia” is used in John 1:3.  So does John 1:3 teach that all things were made “FOR, BECAUSE OF, or ON ACCOUNT OF” the Word?


    Mike,

    How the word di' or dia is translated into our English language strictly depends on the content. It can be properly translated as 'by' or 'through' depending on to context.

    #298870
    Frank4YAHWEH
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ May 20 2012,01:48)
    He who creates is one, and he through whom the thing is created is another.  –  Tertullian

    Gene, do you see how God creating THROUGH Jesus doesn't change the fact that God alone did the creating?  To believe the scriptures that God created all things THROUGH Jesus is not to discredit the scriptures that say God created all things by Himself.

    For example, God alone and by Himself created YOU.  But He did that THROUGH Jesus, Adam, Eve, Noah, Abraham, your grandparents, and your parents.

    The fact that He created you THROUGH all those others does not change the fact that God alone is the One who created you.


    Mike,

    The problem with your reasoning is that you believe that Father Yahweh created “through” his son Yahshua as a pre-existent being that was literally Father Yahweh word in the beginning. Scripture does not teach such nonsense!

    Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?

    “Jesus IS God!”?

    #298874
    Frank4YAHWEH
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ May 20 2012,01:48)
    He who creates is one, and he through whom the thing is created is another.  –  Tertullian

    Gene, do you see how God creating THROUGH Jesus doesn't change the fact that God alone did the creating?  To believe the scriptures that God created all things THROUGH Jesus is not to discredit the scriptures that say God created all things by Himself.

    For example, God alone and by Himself created YOU.  But He did that THROUGH Jesus, Adam, Eve, Noah, Abraham, your grandparents, and your parents.

    The fact that He created you THROUGH all those others does not change the fact that God alone is the One who created you.

    “The name of God the Father had been published to no one.” – Tertullian

    Is this guy serious? What set of Scriptures was he reading when he wrote this? Because clearly in the Torah, Moshe not only recorded the Name being used, he also stated he would further publish (Hebrew qara) the Most High's Name (Deut 32:3)!!!

    THe Name Yahweh

    (QUINTUS SEPTIMIUS FLORENS TERTULLIANUS). Ecclesiastical writer in the second and third centuries, b. probably about 160 at Carthage, being the son of a centurion in the proconsular service. He was evidently by profession an advocate in the law-courts, and he shows a close acquaintance with the procedure and terms of Roman law, though it is doubtful whether he is to be identified with a jurist Tertullian who is cited in the Pandects. He knew Greek as well as Latin, and wrote works in Greek which have not come down to us. A pagan until middle life, he had shared the pagan prejudices against Christianity, and had indulged like others in shameful pleasures. His conversion was not later than the year 197, and may have been earlier. He embraced the Faith with all the ardour of his impetuous nature. He became a priest, no doubt of the Church of Carthage. Monceaux, followed by d'Ales, considers that his earlier writings were composed while he was yet a layman, and if this be so, then his ordination was about 200. His extant writings range in date from the apologetics of 197 to the attack on a bishop who is probably Pope Callistus (after 218). It was after the year 206 that he joined the Montanist sect, and he seems to have definitively separated from the Church about 211 (Harnack) or 213 (Monceaux). After writing more virulently against the Church than even against heathen and persecutors, he separated from the Montanists and founded a sect of his own. The remnant of the Tertullianists was reconciled to the Church by St. Augustine. A number of the works of Tertullian are on special points of belief or discipline. According to St. Jerome he lived to extreme old age. – New Advent Catholic Encyclopedia.
    http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/14520c.htm

    Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?

    “Jesus IS God!”?

    #298886
    Frank4YAHWEH
    Participant

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ May 22 2012,07:22)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ May 19 2012,14:24)
    Hmmmmmmmm………….  

    Frank, you claim that the word “dia” in Heb 1:2 means “FOR, BECAUSE OF, or ON ACCOUNT OF”, correct?

    Well, the same word “dia” is used in John 1:3.  So does John 1:3 teach that all things were made “FOR, BECAUSE OF, or ON ACCOUNT OF” the Word?


    Mike,

    How the word di' or dia is translated into our English language strictly depends on the content. It can be properly translated as 'by' or 'through' depending on to context.


    Let me edit that!  :D

    How the word di' or dia is translated into our English language strictly depends on the context. Di' or dia can be properly translated as 'by' or 'through' depending on the context.

    The following is an excerpt from the article “HEBREWS 1:2 – DI' Interlinear Greek/English N.T. Translated by George Ricker Berry” on my Xanga blog:

    By or through are both correct translations of the word Di' if the sentence allow this. In translating, however, the translation of the word must agree with the message of the sentence. In this case, the word BY does not agree with the message in Heb. 1:2. Further explanation is given in the [study], “YAHSHUA: DID HE PRE-EXIST?” … Let me point out that every sentence in the Scriptures should be properly translated. If Yahshua did or did not pre-exist, then this will become evident.

    This word di' (dia') is often translated “for,” “because of,” or “on account of.” Any one of these is much better in Hebrews 1:2 than by or through. Why? Because neither by nor through agrees with the message in the sentence. On the other hand, because of and on account of do agree.  In every English version of the Scriptures di' and dia' are often translated for, because of, or on account of. This is true of translations into English from the Septuagint (Greek) Version also.”

    Yahchanan [John] 1:3 is properly translated:

    Through IT all things were made; without IT nothing was made that has been made.

    Please see the following PDF files (Part 1 And 2) for more of an in depth study on this truth:

    [PDF] The Word, Someone Or Something? Part I

    [PDF] The Word, Someone Or Something? Part II

    Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?

    “Jesus IS God!”?

    #298888
    Frank4YAHWEH
    Participant

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ May 22 2012,09:34)

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ May 22 2012,07:22)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ May 19 2012,14:24)
    Hmmmmmmmm………….  

    Frank, you claim that the word “dia” in Heb 1:2 means “FOR, BECAUSE OF, or ON ACCOUNT OF”, correct?

    Well, the same word “dia” is used in John 1:3.  So does John 1:3 teach that all things were made “FOR, BECAUSE OF, or ON ACCOUNT OF” the Word?


    Mike,

    How the word di' or dia is translated into our English language strictly depends on the content. It can be properly translated as 'by' or 'through' depending on to context.


    Let me edit that!  :D

    How the word di' or dia is translated into our English language strictly depends on the context. Di' or dia can be properly translated as 'by' or 'through' depending on the context.

    The following is an excerpt from the article “HEBREWS 1:2 – DI' Interlinear Greek/English N.T. Translated by George Ricker Berry” on my Xanga blog:

    By or through are both correct translations of the word Di' if the sentence allow this. In translating, however, the translation of the word must agree with the message of the sentence. In this case, the word BY does not agree with the message in Heb. 1:2. Further explanation is given in the [study], “YAHSHUA: DID HE PRE-EXIST?” … Let me point out that every sentence in the Scriptures should be properly translated. If Yahshua did or did not pre-exist, then this will become evident.

    This word di' (dia') is often translated “for,” “because of,” or “on account of.” Any one of these is much better in Hebrews 1:2 than by or through. Why? Because neither by nor through agrees with the message in the sentence. On the other hand, because of and on account of do agree.  In every English version of the Scriptures di' and dia' are often translated for, because of, or on account of. This is true of translations into English from the Septuagint (Greek) Version also.”

    Yahchanan [John] 1:3 is properly translated:

    Through IT all things were made; without IT nothing was made that has been made.

    Please see the following PDF files (Part 1 And 2) for more of an in depth study on this truth:

    [PDF] The Word, Someone Or Something? Part I

    [PDF] The Word, Someone Or Something? Part II

    Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?

    “Jesus IS God!”?


    PDF URL Correction:

    http://www.amarthenazarene.com/uploads….rtI.pdf

    http://www.amarthenazarene.com/uploads….tII.pdf

    #298889
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ May 20 2012,19:59)
    Hi MB,
    Can you not yet understand?


    I can't understand why it seems so hard for you to answer direct questions.

    #298890
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ May 21 2012,14:22)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ May 19 2012,14:24)
    Hmmmmmmmm………….  

    Frank, you claim that the word “dia” in Heb 1:2 means “FOR, BECAUSE OF, or ON ACCOUNT OF”, correct?

    Well, the same word “dia” is used in John 1:3.  So does John 1:3 teach that all things were made “FOR, BECAUSE OF, or ON ACCOUNT OF” the Word?


    Mike,

    How the word di' or dia is translated into our English language strictly depends on the content. It can be properly translated as 'by' or 'through' depending on to context.


    Okay. So in Hebrews 1:2, what is the context that tells you “dia” should be translated as “ON ACCOUNT OF” instead of “THROUGH”?

    And what context in John 1:3 tells you that “dia” should be translated as “THROUGH” instead of “ON ACCOUNT OF”?

    Please explain to me the SCRIPTURAL reason(s) you came to the conclusions you did about the word “dia” in these two verses.

    #298891
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi MB,
    You have got to grasp the spiritual if you want dialogue

    #298893
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ May 21 2012,16:34)
    This word di' (dia') is often translated “for,” “because of,” or “on account of.” Any one of these is much better in Hebrews 1:2 than by or through. Why? Because neither by nor through agrees with the message in the sentence. On the other hand, because of and on account of do agree.


    Great! :)

    Now tell my WHY. WHY doesn't “by” or “through” agree with the message?

    And WHY does “because of” agree with it?

    #298894
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ May 19 2012,17:24)
    Hmmmmmmmm………….  

    Frank, you claim that the word “dia” in Heb 1:2 means “FOR, BECAUSE OF, or ON ACCOUNT OF”, correct?

    Well, the same word “dia” is used in John 1:3.  So does John 1:3 teach that all things were made “FOR, BECAUSE OF, or ON ACCOUNT OF” the Word?


    Good question Mike.

    I look forward to seeing how he dodges this one.

    :)

    #298896
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ May 22 2012,10:22)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ May 19 2012,14:24)
    Hmmmmmmmm………….  

    Frank, you claim that the word “dia” in Heb 1:2 means “FOR, BECAUSE OF, or ON ACCOUNT OF”, correct?

    Well, the same word “dia” is used in John 1:3.  So does John 1:3 teach that all things were made “FOR, BECAUSE OF, or ON ACCOUNT OF” the Word?


    Mike,

    How the word di' or dia is translated into our English language strictly depends on the content. It can be properly translated as 'by' or 'through' depending on to context.


    So when it is the Logos it is through and when it is Jesus it is because of.

    There are 2 possibilities here Frank.

    1) This is correct.
    2) This shows your bias and how you can make the same word fit your predetermined doctrine.

    You are free to believe whatever you want of course, however, the Book of John is a book about Jesus Christ and we are told that in the beginning was the Word and that this Word became flesh. We are also told that it is the antichrist spirit that believes and teaches that Jesus did not come in the flesh.

    You obviously are in the “Jesus did not come in the flesh” camp because you believe that Jesus is the flesh, whereas we should believe that he existed in the form of God, emptied himself, and came in the flesh. You deny this plain and simple.

    #298897
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ May 21 2012,16:56)
    Hi MB,
    You have got to grasp the spiritual if you want dialogue


    There was a time I wanted dialogue with you, Nick.  That was before I watched you run from serious problems in your doctrine – pretending that those problems didn't exist, although they were being placed right before your eyes by me, t8, and Pierre.

    Since then you strike me as a man who already believes what he wants to believe, and will not be budged to the left or to the right – despite what the scriptures say, or how his doctrine directly contradicts many of them.

    There is no sense in me wasting my time on a dialogue with this kind of person.  So I will keep asking questions on occasion, the truthful answers of which either contradict your doctrine, or show it to be the nonsense that it is…………..and you can keep ignoring those questions.  It will be just like old times, eh?  :)

    #298898
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (t8 @ May 21 2012,16:59)
    I look forward to seeing how he dodges this one.

    :)


    Hi t8,

    I see he has tried to dodge it with one of his famous cut and paste jobs.  Let's see if he can answer my follow up question of “WHY?”

    (Btw, great post at the top of this page.)

    #298909
    Frank4YAHWEH
    Participant

    Quote (t8 @ May 22 2012,10:05)

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ May 22 2012,10:22)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ May 19 2012,14:24)
    Hmmmmmmmm………….  

    Frank, you claim that the word “dia” in Heb 1:2 means “FOR, BECAUSE OF, or ON ACCOUNT OF”, correct?

    Well, the same word “dia” is used in John 1:3.  So does John 1:3 teach that all things were made “FOR, BECAUSE OF, or ON ACCOUNT OF” the Word?


    Mike,

    How the word di' or dia is translated into our English language strictly depends on the content. It can be properly translated as 'by' or 'through' depending on to context.


    So when it is the Logos it is through and when it is Jesus it is because of.

    There are 2 possibilities here Frank.

    1) This is correct.
    2) This shows your bias and how you can make the same word fit your predetermined doctrine.

    You are free to believe whatever you want of course, however, the Book of John is a book about Jesus Christ and we are told that in the beginning was the Word and that this Word became flesh. We are also told that it is the antichrist spirit that believes and teaches that Jesus did not come in the flesh.

    You obviously are in the “Jesus did not come in the flesh” camp because you believe that Jesus is the flesh, whereas we should believe that he existed in the form of God, emptied himself, and came in the flesh. You deny this plain and simple.


    t8,

    So you believe that the so called “Book of John” has nothing whatsoever to do with Father Yahweh's inspired prophetic word? ???

    FYI, this book has nothing whatsoever to do with the pre-existence of Yahshua as Father Yahweh's word as an actual being that was with Him in the beginning, but it does state the purpose within itself as follows:

    But these are written that you may believe that Yahshua is the Messiah, the son of Yahweh, and that by believing you may have life in his name (Yahchanan [John] 20:31 cf. 1 Yahchanan [John] 5:13).

    There is nothing whatsoever in this book that asks that we might believe that Yahshua pre-existed his birth as “a god” and that believing such foolishness that we may have life. In fact, what we are to confess and believe concerning Father Yahweh's son Yahshua in accordance with the so-called “New Testament” as a whole is clearly stated as follows:

    That if you confess with your mouth, “Yahshua is Master,” and believe in your heart that Yahweh raised him from the dead, you will be redeemed (Romans 10:9).

    Nowhere in Scripture as a whole are we ever asked to believe and confess with our mouth that Yahshua pre-existed his birth as an actual being as Father Yahweh's word and as “a god” to be redeemed.

    We are also to confess that Yahshua came in the flesh of which I also believe and confess:

    By this you know the spirit of Yahweh: Every spirit that confesses that Yahshua Messiah is come in the flesh is of Yahweh: And every spirit that confesses not that Yahshua Messiah is come in the flesh is not of Yahweh: and this is that spirit of anti-messiah, of which you have heard that it should come; and even now already is it in the world (1 Yahchanan [John] 4:2-3).

    No, nothing whatsoever in the whole of Scripture about confessing and believing that Yahshua pre-existed his birth as “a god” or believing that he was literally Father Yahweh's word that was with Him in the beginning!

    Did Yahshua create Or Pre-exist His Birth?

    “Jesus IS God!”?

    #298953
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ May 21 2012,18:00)
    Nowhere in Scripture as a whole are we ever asked to believe and confess with our mouth that Yahshua pre-existed his birth as an actual being as Father Yahweh's word and as “a god” to be redeemed.


    Frank,

    That is quite a silly argument, considering that nowhere in scripture are we asked to confess with our mouths that Jehovah created the heavens and the earth.  Nor are we ever requested to believe that Saul was the first king of Israel.

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ May 21 2012,18:00)
    FYI, this book has nothing whatsoever to do with the pre-existence of Yahshua as Father Yahweh's word as an actual being that was with Him in the beginning, but it does state the purpose within itself as follows:

    But these are written that you may believe that Yahshua is the Messiah, the son of Yahweh, and that by believing you may have life in his name.


    That's right, the gospel of John was written so we could learn more about JESUS, right?  In fact, John wrote:  “There are many other things that Jesus did. If every one of them were written down, I suppose the whole world would not have room for the books that would be written.”

    So if the whole book is to teach us more about Jesus, then who do you suppose John is teaching us about when he teaches of the Word of God who BECAME FLESH and had the glory of GOD'S ONLY BEGOTTEN?  ???

    #298960
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi MB,
    No John was more interested in showing us what he had learned
    about the Word that was with God and was God.
    but men still worship the flesh

    We no longer speak of Christ according to the flesh.
    Now the Lord is the Spirit

    #298961
    Frank4YAHWEH
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ May 22 2012,12:47)

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ May 21 2012,18:00)
    Nowhere in Scripture as a whole are we ever asked to believe and confess with our mouth that Yahshua pre-existed his birth as an actual being as Father Yahweh's word and as “a god” to be redeemed.


    Frank,

    That is quite a silly argument, considering that nowhere in scripture are we asked to confess with our mouths that Jehovah created the heavens and the earth.  Nor are we ever requested to believe that Saul was the first king of Israel.

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ May 21 2012,18:00)
    FYI, this book has nothing whatsoever to do with the pre-existence of Yahshua as Father Yahweh's word as an actual being that was with Him in the beginning, but it does state the purpose within itself as follows:

    But these are written that you may believe that Yahshua is the Messiah, the son of Yahweh, and that by believing you may have life in his name.


    That's right, the gospel of John was written so we could learn more about JESUS, right?  In fact, John wrote:  “There are many other things that Jesus did. If every one of them were written down, I suppose the whole world would not have room for the books that would be written.”

    So if the whole book is to teach us more about Jesus, then who do you suppose John is teaching us about when he teaches of the Word of God who BECAME FLESH and had the glory of GOD'S ONLY BEGOTTEN?  ???


    Mike,

    You are quite silly since, I myself confess and believe all of the doctrines that Scripture truly teaches and nowhere in Scripture does it ever teach that Yahshua pre-existed his birth as an actual being that was literally Father Yahweh's word or “a god” that was with Him in the beginning.

    Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?

    “Jesus IS God!”?

    #298963
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Frank,

    The last line of my post was a question. And my prior post to you had a couple of “WHY?” questions for you. Are you “owning me” again? :)

    #298983
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ May 22 2012,14:00)
    t8,

    So you believe that the so called “Book of John” has nothing whatsoever to do with Father Yahweh's inspired prophetic word?


    Frank, the book is about Jesus Christ.

    John 20:31
    But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.

    If you read that book from beginning to end, you will see it is about Jesus.

    The first verse is about him, the last verse, and the stuff in between.

    John 1:1-3
    In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
    The same was in the beginning with God.
    All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

    John: 25
    And there are also many other things which Jesus did, the which, if they should be written every one, I suppose that even the world itself could not contain the books that should be written. Amen.

    #298995
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    T8……………..Frank is right, but you your preconceive conviction have prevented you from seeing and understand this simple truth. Jesus did not preexist his berth on the earth as a sentinel being of any kind. God was not dealing with Morphed Angels or demigods, He was dealing with Mankind by a Human being Born of Flesh and Blood Just as we are in “EVERY WAY”  a man who recieved into himself at the Jordan river the Holy spirit of God and was from that time sent out into the world to preach the Gospel of the Kingdom of GOD. Since it was by man sin entered the world it was by a man it is removed.  

    Jesus' sacrifice would not have fulfilled the law of God if he was Not a complete human being in every way without any exceptions. God proved through  Jesus he could perfect human kind and Jesus was the First to reach the perfection from the human race. He did not preexist his berth on the earth, that is a great false teaching and itself is Anti-Christ, because it diminishes His sacrifice and give him advantages other them a simple human being, which he did not have.

    You and Mike an others have taken the Christos of GOD and turned it into a Man instead of it being (in) A MAN YOUR HAVE MADE THE MAN THE CHRISTOS and denied the Spirit of the Anointing that was (in) him. Giving the Glory of God to a MAN . But scripture say God give his glory to NO MAN> Not even JESUS.  

    Not matter what you teach T8 or Mike if it does not match up to the Original Testament it is a false teachings. IMO

    peace and love to you and yours………………………………………………………gene

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