Did Jesus pre-exist before his birth on Earth?

Where did Jesus come from?

John 6:38-40
For I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will, but the will of him who sent me; and this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise it up at the last day. For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who sees the Son and believes in him should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.

The first verse suggests that Jesus came down from Heaven. This seems to contradict that belief which suggests he first existed as a man when he was born into this world. For if Jesus came into existence for the first time when he was conceived through Mary, how could he come down from Heaven? We (Man) came into existence when we are born into this world, but would it be correct to say that we came down from Heaven too? If a verse said that we came down from Heaven, would you think that we pre-existed in Heaven? If so, then why not Jesus?

John 3:17 is another verse that provides support that Jesus came down from Heaven or was sent rather than created.

For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.

The word ‘send’ is the Greek word ‘apostello’.

apostello {ap-os-tel’-lo}
1) to order (one) to go to a place appointed
2) to send away, dismiss
2a) to allow one to depart, that he may be in a state of liberty
2b) to order one to depart, send off
2c) to drive away

To be sent surely implies existence otherwise you would just say born or created. In fact this word (sent) is similar in meaning and sound to the word Apostle (apostolos), which means “one sent forth with orders”. To be sent forth with order, you must exist.

John 6:62
What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?

Jesus is clearly stating here that he came from above since he eventually ascended into Heaven to be at the right-hand of God.

How old is Jesus?

John 1:15
15 John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.‘ “

John the Baptist was six months older than Jesus Christ. So it is physically impossible for Christ to be before him in age. If this verse is referencing age, then it shows preexistence. Jesus existed before  John the Baptist in the least.

John 8:58
“I tell you the truth,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!

Jesus claimed to exist before Abraham, the father of the Jews. The words ‘I am’ mean ‘I exist’. So Jesus claimed existence before Abraham. We can see that Jesus is getting older as we explore the scriptures. But how old?

Jude 1:25
to the only God our Savior be glory, majesty, power and authority, through Jesus Christ our Lord, before all ages, now and forevermore! Amen.

Here we can see that majesty, power, and authority through Jesus Christ is before all ages (all worlds) and forever more into the future. This strongly implies that Jesus existed even before all things. But can we substantiate this?

Did Jesus exist before all creation?

Colossians 1:17
He is before all things, and in him all things hold together.

Colossians answers the question outright. It states that “He is before all things“.  But are there other verses that support this idea?

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus being there. This verse alone answers the question because the universe, angels, and men were made and Jesus was present when they were created according to these verses. In case that is not enough to convince you, I also add another clear verse that says the same thing.

Hebrews 1:1-2
1 In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways,
2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe.

Is Jesus the Word of God?

But some say that this is talking about the Word and not all believe that Jesus is the Word of God. They argue that Jesus came from the Word, but is not the Word itself that was with God in John 1:1. If you believe this, then please explain the next two verses within their wider context:

Revelation 19:13
He is dressed in a robe dipped in blood, and his name is the Word of God.

Colossians 1:15-18
The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him. He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. And he is the head of the body, the church; he is the beginning and the firstborn from among the dead, so that in everything he might have the supremacy.

Okay, if you are honest, this is a closed case. God created all things through the Word. Jesus is called the Word of God and also the son of God. We are also told that God created all things through the son of God. Even if you do not believe that Jesus is the Word, then you still have to believe that Jesus pre-existed on account of him being the son of God. But what we know from scripture is that Jesus existed as the Word of God before he came as a man called Jesus. We know that the Word became flesh.

More proof verses

If Jesus pre-existed, then you might expect that even though the above verses are clear, there would be more verses that teach or at least imply that he pre-existed. So let’s see if this is the case.

Revelation 22:16
“I, Jesus, have sent my angel to give you this testimony for the churches. I am the Root and the Offspring of David, and the bright Morning Star.”

Here we see that Jesus is the offspring of David, yet he is also the root of David, which at appears to show existence before King David. He also claims to be the bright Morning Star and we read in Job how the Morning Stars were present when God created the Earth.

Job 38:6-7
“On what were its bases sunk? Or who laid its cornerstone, When the morning stars sang together And all the sons of God shouted for joy? 

Luke 10:18
He replied, “I saw Satan fall like lightning from heaven.

Comparing Luke 10:18 with Revelation 12:1-10, some say that Satan and his angels fell to the earth before the birth of Christ as a man. If this was the case, then Jesus saw an event that took place before he was born as a man. However, others argue that Satan hasn’t fallen to the Earth yet, or that he has, but Jesus saw this in a vision. Regardless, it certainly doesn’t contradict that Jesus pre-existed.

Micah 5:2
“But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, though you are small among the clans of Judah, out of you will come for me one who will be ruler over Israel, whose origins are from of old, from ancient times.”

The above verse talks about someone who will rule Israel and whose origin is from ancient times. Who but Jesus could fit that description?

John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God/Divine.

John 1:14
The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only,[ 1:14 Or the Only Begotten] who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Clearly, Jesus was with God in the beginning as the Word of God. This places his existence as before all things and thus comes as no surprise that he was there when God created all things.

The Angel of YHWH

We know from certain scriptures that Jesus is Lord of the Sabbath and many assume that Jesus gave the Law of God. We are told in Acts:7:30-39 for instance that an Angel of the Lord appeared to Moses through whom God spoke and this is the same Angel who spoke to Moses on Mount Sinai and passed on the living words (The Law) to Moses.

30 “After forty years had passed, an angel appeared to Moses in the flames of a burning bush in the desert near Mount Sinai.
31 When he saw this, he was amazed at the sight. As he went over to look more closely, he heard the Lord’s voice:
32 ‘I am the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.’Moses trembled with fear and did not dare to look.
33 “Then the Lord said to him, ‘Take off your sandals; the place where you are standing is holy ground.
34 I have indeed seen the oppression of my people in Egypt. I have heard their groaning and have come down to set them free. Now come, I will send you back to Egypt.’
35 “This is the same Moses whom they had rejected with the words, ‘Who made you ruler and judge?’ He was sent to be their ruler and deliverer by God himself, through the angel who appeared to him in the bush.
36 He led them out of Egypt and did wonders and miraculous signs in Egypt, at the Red Sea and for forty years in the desert.
37 “This is that Moses who told the Israelites, ‘God will send you a prophet like me from your own people.’
38 He was in the assembly in the desert, with the angel who spoke to him on Mount Sinai, and with our fathers; and he received living words to pass on to us.
39 “But our fathers refused to obey him. Instead, they rejected him and in their hearts turned back to Egypt.

So is this Angel of the Lord, Jesus? Well it seems possible. Perhaps the correct model to look at is the one mentioned in Revelation 1:1

The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,

Here we can see that the order of the Revelation started with the Originator which is God. He then passed the message to Jesus Christ who in turn sent it to his Angel and then to John. So perhaps it is possible that the angel in Revelation is the same angel mentioned in Acts:7:30-39.

But the Angel of YHWH or Angel of the LORD is described as one like the son of gods.

Daniel 3:24-25
Then Nebuchadnezzar the king was astounded and stood up in haste; he said to his high officials, “Was it not three men we cast bound into the midst of the fire?” They replied to the king, “Certainly, O king.” He said, “Look! I see four men loosed and walking about in the midst of the fire without harm, and the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods!”

The idea that a preincarnate Jesus was this Angel of the LORD is a popular one. We know that this Angel of the LORD is never mentioned while Jesus is walking the earth which supports this idea. But it could also be a coincidence. One connection that can be made with Jesus being this messenger is found in Judges 13:18.

Manoah said to the angel of the LORD, “What is your name, so that when your words come to pass, we may honor you?” But the angel of the LORD said to him, “Why do you ask my name, seeing it is wonderful?”

Now read what Isaiah prophesied in Isaiah 9:6 .

For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

Clearly, Isaiah was speaking of Jesus Christ and note that he was called Wonderful Counselor. Is there a connection here? Perhaps. What we do know is the word ‘angel’ is the same word messenger in the Old Testament, and while it is held that Jesus is not an angel in kind, we know he certainly was a messenger of YHWH and would be fair to say even ‘The Messenger of YHWH’.

So the idea that he may be this angel is not that far fetched. Some vehemently oppose this idea, but they are not aware that both Jesus and John are called angels in the messenger sense.

More to come here……

More proof that Jesus pre-existed

Rev 3:14
And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God.

Moving on we read the following in Philippians 2:5-11
5 Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus:
6 Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,
7 but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.
8 And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to death even death on a cross!
9 Therefore God exalted him to the highest place and gave him the name that is above every name,
10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

Surely the above verses assumes preexistence.  Look at verse 7: ‘but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness’. This verse points out that Jesus humbled himself to become a (or like a) human and also a servant. So this suggests to us that he preexisted in a higher state because to humble oneself is to become lower. If he started life in this humbled state, then it would be incorrect to say that he humbled himself. Further, he “found himself in appearance as a man” is a weird statement to make if he first existed as a human baby.

This verse is often used in support of the trinity doctrine because of the word ‘equal’. But if you are equal to something it means that you are not that thing, rather you are like that thing. This scripture is also very clear about the following: The Father is God and Jesus is Lord and that God exalted Jesus to the highest place.

A closer look at verse 9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: Now I am not sure if Jesus was exalted higher than he was before he came to this world or whether he was exalted to the exact position that he had before. But if we look at John 17:5 again we can see that Jesus asked to return to his former glory.

John 17:5
And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began.

The above verse is clear about Christ’s pre-existence in glory before the world began. Just to prove this is not an isolated scripture here is a similar verse:

John 16:28
I came from the Father and entered the world; now I am leaving the world and going back to the Father.”

The next verse also confirms that Jesus pre-existed in Heaven.

John 3:12-15
12 I have spoken to you of earthly things and you do not believe; how then will you believe if I speak of heavenly things?
13 No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven, the Son of Man.
14 Just as Moses lifted up the snake in the desert, so the Son of Man must be lifted up,
15 that everyone who believes in him may have eternal life.

Ezekiel 8:1-3
1 In the sixth year, in the sixth month on the fifth day, while I was sitting in my house and the elders of Judah were sitting before me, the hand of the Sovereign LORD came upon me there.
2 I looked, and I saw a figure like that of a man. From what appeared to be his waist down he was like fire, and from there up his appearance was as bright as glowing metal.
3 He stretched out what looked like a hand and took me by the hair of my head. The Spirit lifted me up between earth and heaven and in visions of God he took me to Jerusalem, to the entrance to the north gate of the inner court, where the idol that provokes to jealousy stood.

This verse is interesting in the sense that the description is very similar to the description of Jesus Christ in Revelation 1:12-18,

12 I turned around to see the voice that was speaking to me. And when I turned I saw seven golden lampstands,
13 and among the lampstands was someone “like a son of man,” dressed in a robe reaching down to his feet and with a golden sash around his chest.
14 His head and hair were white like wool, as white as snow, and his eyes were like blazing fire.
15 His feet were like bronze glowing in a furnace, and his voice was like the sound of rushing waters.
16 In his right hand he held seven stars, and out of his mouth came a sharp double-edged sword. His face was like the sun shining in all its brilliance.
17 When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. Then he placed his right hand on me and said: “Do not be afraid. I am the First and the Last.
18 I am the Living One; I was dead, and behold I am alive for ever and ever! And I hold the keys of death and Hades.

Have a look at the next verse. 1 Corinthians 11:3 (English-NIV)
Now I want you to realize that the head of every man is Christ, and the head of the woman is man, and the head of Christ is God.

Now the word head in the Greek is ‘kephale’ which can mean head, source or master. Now if we notice the order in a time sense, we have to admit that God is the first as he is the only one who has existed for all eternity with no beginning. We also know from scripture that the man came first and the woman came from the man. So that part is correct if we use a timeline. That just leaves Christ. Did he come between God and Man. I think so, as I believe that all things came from him and this opinion does fit perfectly into this model in a time sense at least. Anyway the word Christ here is ‘Christos’ which means “anointed”. So the anointed is the head of Man.
God > Christ > Man > Woman

If God created all things for his Son and his Son was the channel for that creation to come into being, then we can only assume that Christ existed at this point. As Genesis says: Let us make Man in our image. God was talking to Christ at this point and we know that Christ is the image of God and we are the image of Christ. Therefore the image of the image of God (man) is still the image of God. But Christ is the original and first image and we can only assume again that that image existed before the image of the image. A bit like a mirror that reflects a mirror, the original mirror has to exist in order to reflect the second mirror.

So we know that Christ preexisted before creation and now we will look at some more scriptures that show that he was born before creation itself?

Colossians 1:15-16
15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.
16 For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him.

The above verse is quite clear that ALL things were created by or through Jesus.

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So again, there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus/The Word being there. Only the Father and Son were not made. God has always existed and the Son was born from God before the creation of the universe, before anything was made. The next verse describes clearly who/what was the first of God’s works.

Proverbs 8:22-30
22 “The LORD brought me forth as the first of his works, {[22] Or ; or } {[22] Or ; or } before his deeds of old;
23 I was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
24 When there were no oceans, I was given birth, when there were no springs abounding with water;
25 before the mountains were settled in place, before the hills, I was given birth,
26 before he made the earth or its fields or any of the dust of the world.
27 I was there when he set the heavens in place, when he marked out the horizon on the face of the deep,
28 when he established the clouds above and fixed securely the fountains of the deep,
29 when he gave the sea its boundary so the waters would not overstep his command, and when he marked out the foundations of the earth.
30 Then I was the craftsman at his side. I was filled with delight day after day, rejoicing always in his presence,

This verse is talking about Wisdom, whom many believe is Christ. This scriptures compliments other scriptures that that teach that Jesus was given birth by God and then created all THINGS though him.

So from this verse we can see the following points.

Wisdom was brought forth as the first of Gods works.
Wisdom was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
Wisdom was given birth before creation.
Wisdom was the craftsman at his side and rejoiced in his presence before creation.
Some say that Wisdom isn’t Christ, rather this is just wisdom in a conceptual sense and it is true that wisdom is being spoken of in that way. But from verse 22 onward it changes tempo. With terms like I was given birth, I was the craftsman at his side and I was filled with delight, we have to admit that it seems to be talking about a person. Now have a look at the following verses:

1 Corinthians 1:24 (English-NIV)
but to those whom God has called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God.

1 Corinthians 1:30 (English-NIV)
It is because of him that you are in Christ Jesus, who has become for us wisdom from God–that is, our righteousness, holiness and redemption.

Let’s look at some other concepts that Jesus personifies:

Jesus is the Truth. Yet truth is also a concept.
Jesus is the Way. Yet the way is also a concept.
Jesus is the Life. Yet life can also be a concept.
Now look at the following mystery:

1 Corinthians 2:6-9
6 We do, however, speak a message of wisdom among the mature, but not the wisdom of this age or of the rulers of this age, who are coming to nothing.
7 No, we speak of God’s secret wisdom, a wisdom that has been hidden and that God destined for our glory before time began.
8 None of the rulers of this age understood it, for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.
9 However, as it is written:
“No eye has seen,
no ear has heard,
no mind has conceived
what God has prepared for those who love him”

Ephesians 3:8-10
8 Although I am less than the least of all God’s people, this grace was given me: to preach to the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ,
9 and to make plain to everyone the administration of this mystery, which for ages past was kept hidden in God, who created all things.
10 His intent was that now, through the church, the manifold wisdom of God should be made known to the rulers and authorities in the heavenly realms,

Perhaps another scripture alluding to Jesus being the Wisdom of God.

Finally I leave you with the following OT scripture that suggests that God had a Son before the birth Of Jesus Christ on earth.

Proverbs 30:4
Who has gone up to heaven and come down? Who has gathered up the wind in the hollow of his hands? Who has wrapped up the waters in his cloak? Who has established all the ends of the earth? What is his name, and the name of his son? Tell me if you know!


Discussion

Viewing 20 posts - 12,401 through 12,420 (of 19,165 total)
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  • #270392
    Ed J
    Participant

    Hi Marty,

    The Spirit of the LORD spake by me,
    and his word was in my tongue. (2Samuel 23:2)
    “the sword of the Spirit, which is the word of God:” (Eph.6:17)

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #270765
    Frank4YAHWEH
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 29 2011,11:47)

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Dec. 28 2011,12:31)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 25 2011,11:04)

    Quote (Gene Balthrop @ Dec. 24 2011,12:25)
    So yes we do believe Rev 19:13 is a title given to Jesus…..


    Thank you Gene.  Frank?  Are you hip to this?


    Mike,

    Revelation 19:13 says that his (Yahshua's) [name/title] is called “The Word Of Yahweh”. It does NOT SAY “Yahshua IS the word of Yahweh.” as you deceptively teach and believe.


    So you do believe that Rev 19:13 describes Jesus?  Great!  Because that is the truth of the matter, against which it seems Ed stands alone.

    But check out this one, Frank:
    Genesis 17:5 NKJV ©
    No longer shall your name be called Abram, but your name shall be Abraham; for I have made you a father of many nations.

    Because it says “name be called”, does it mean that the actual NAME of Abram wasn't really “Abram”?

    Frank, don't play games with the words of scripture in an attempt to pretend the scriptures don't say what they really do say.

    If it said, “His name is called mikeboll64”, then you can be sure that was one of my actual names.  One of the actual names/titles of Jesus is “The Word of God” because Jesus is the main spokesman for his God.

    He is identified by this same title, by the same author, in the gospel of John.  He is the Word of God in Revelation 19, and he is the Word of God in John 1.  He is the one who became flesh, dwelled on earth, and had the glory of the only begotten Son of God – which he was.

    There is no “deception” in that teaching Frank.  Anyway, I am glad to see that you are not willing to deny that 19:13 is even about Jesus at all, in an attempt to force your doctrine.  That is a good sign.

    Ed, listen up.  You are all alone on this one.  Remember that the Word in 19:13 has eyes of blazing fire, and Jesus has eyes of blazing fire Rev 2:18.

    Remember that the Word in 19:13 has a sharp sword coming out of his mouth, and Jesus has a sharp sword coming out of his mouth in Rev 1:16 and 2:16.

    Remember that the Word in 19:13 wages war against the beast and the kings of the earth, and the Lamb of God also wages war against the beast and the kings of the earth in Rev 17:14

    Remember that the Word in 19:13 is called Lord of lords and King of kings, and the Lamb of God is called these same things in Rev 17:14.

    Remember that the Word in 19:13 will rule with an iron scepter, and Jehovah's Son is foretold to rule with an iron scepter in Psalm 2:9.

    Just some food for thought, Ed.  That is an awful lot of “coincidences”.


    Mike,

    Abram was his given name and Yahweh changed his name to Abraham. This in turn was the name that he was then known and called by in replacement of his given name. No one called Yahshua “The Word of Yahweh” as a given name. This was merely an attributive name/title that Yahshua was given because he was the spokesman of his and our Father Yahweh's word in this last time period. Yahshua was not literally Father Yahweh's word as a pre-existent being with Him in the beginning.

    Hebrew names have meaning. This does not mean that they were literally the meaning of their names. Following are a number of Hebrew names and the meanings of these name. Note that these people who were given these names were not literally the meanings of these names:

    Hagyah [Haggai]: meaning – 'Feast of Yahweh'
    Moadyah [Moadian]: meaning – 'Appointed Faest of Yahweh'

    Hagyah and Moadyah were not LITERALLY Yahweh's feasts!

    Pelalyah [Pelaliah]: meaning – 'Judgement of Yahweh'

    Pelalyah was not LITERALLY Yahweh's Judgement!

    Tobyah [Tobiah]: meaning – 'Righteousness of Yahweh'
    Yahshaphat [Jehoshaphat, Joshaphat]: meaning – 'Judgement of Yahweh'

    Tobyah and Yahshaphat were not LITERALLY Yahweh's Judgement!

    Uzzyah [Uzziah]: meaning – 'Strength of Yahweh'
    Yliyah [Elijah]: meaning – 'Strength of Yahweh'

    Uzzyah and Yliyah were not LITERALLY Yahweh's strength!

    Yahshabbth [Jehoshabeath]: meaning – 'Sabbath of Yahweh'

    Yahshabbth was not LITERALLY Yahweh's Sabbath!

    Zedekyah [Zedekiah, Zidkayah]: meaning – 'Righteousness of Yahweh'

    Zedekyah was not LITERALLY Yahweh's righteousness!

    Kolayah [Kolaiah]: meaning – 'Voice of Yahweh'

    Kolayah was not LITERALLY the voice of Yahweh!

    The same is true with Yahshua being called by the name/title “The Word of Yahweh”. Yahshua was not LITERALLY the word of Yahweh! Yahshua most certainly was not his and our Father Yahweh's word in the beginning as a separate being apart from Himself!

    Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?

    “Jesus IS God!”?

    #270821
    Frank4YAHWEH
    Participant

    LET US MAKE MAN IN OUR IMAGE
    Genesis 1:26,27
    By Voy Wilks
    8/31/98

    “Then Elohim said, 'Let us make man in our image, after our likeness'” (Gen. 1:26, RSV).

    Monotheism means one. Any person who believes in the Trinity or the Duality cannot properly claim to believe in Monotheism. The reason being, Trinity means three, Duality means two, while Monotheism means one – One theos, or One Elohim, not two, three, or a dozen. Of course,, Trinitarians and Dualists will heartily disagree, but this is fact. This is Truth. Monotheism means ONE. Perhaps a better term is Mono-el-ism; ONE EL.

    Let Us

    Because the words us and our appear in Genesis 1:26, “Let us make man in our images and our likeness, Trinitarians say, “Ah ha! This proves the Trinity.” But surprise: Dualist say, “Ah ha! This proves the Duality of Yahweh.” Isn't this amazing? It seems we have a choice. Based on these two little words, we can believe in the Trinity, or we can believe in Duality, all the while referring to these as Monotheism. Amazing!

    After this astonishing revelation, let us now look at Genesis 1:27:

    “So Elohim created man in HIS own image, in the image of Elohim HE created him; male and female HE created them.”

    Comparison

    Genesis 1:26 contains three plural pronouns. Genesis 1:27 contains three singular pronouns. All refer to the same person – the Creator. If Trinitarians and Dualists can ignore verse 27 with its singular pronouns, perhaps I should have the privilege of ignoring verse 26 with its plural pronouns. I speak lightly, of course, to encourage thought and study. My preference is, none of us should ignore Biblical Scripture as originally given.

    Image and Likeness

    Have you noticed? Image and likeness are not plural words, but singular; in Hebrew as well as English. Dr. Bullinger pointed this out, even though he was a Trinitarian. Elohim made man in the image of Elohim, not images of Elohim. This indicates the image (singular) of one person, not two or three persons. The same is true of likeness. The word is singular.

    A Translator's Footnote (Gen. 1:26)

    RSV Harper Study Bible, notes by Harold Lindsell.
    “Let us make man. Many interpret us to mean the Trinity, … but probably early readers understood the word as the plural of majesty, just as the plural Elohim (Hebrew) is used of God to denote his majesty and attributes. Another possible interpretation is the picture of God consulting with his angelic court, the host of heaven (1 Kings 22:19), or the sons of God (Job 1:6).” (Emphasis added).

    It is interesting to note that Harold Lindsell believed in the Trinity, indicated by his note on Mt. 28:19, nevertheless he realized Gen. 1:26 does not promote the Trinity. He spoke of “early readers” who understood the word as the plural of majesty. “Early readers” would be the Saints of antiquity and the disciples of the first century C.E. who had no knowledge of Duality or Trinity (See The Christian Doctrine of God, Vol. 1, by the noted Theologian, Emil Brunner, pages 205-237; published by Westminister Press, Philadelphia, 1946).

    The Reference: 1st Kings 22:19

    When we consult the reference given by Mr. Lindsell (2 Kings 22:19), we see that his point is certainly worth considering:

    “And Micaiah said, 'Therefore hear the word of Yahweh: I saw Yahweh sitting on his throne, and all of the host of heaven standing beside him on his right hand and on his left; and Yahweh said,

    “'Who will entice Ahab that he may go up and fall at Ramoth-Gilead?' And one said one thing and another said another. Then a spirit came forward and stood before Yahweh, saying, 'I will entice him.' And Yahweh said to him, 'By what means?'

    “'I will go forth and be a lying spirit in the mouth of all of his prophets.' And he said, 'You are to entice him, and you shall succeed; go forth and do so.'

    “Now therefore behold, Yahweh has put a lying spirit in the mouth of all these your prophets; Yahweh has spoken evil concerning you” (1 Kings 22:19-22, RSV).

    We see that Yahweh consulted with his celestial court on this occasion. He may have done the same in the beginning (Gen. 1:26). His celestial court consisted of the following:

    (1) Yahweh
    (2) The angels. Note Yahshua was never an angel (Heb. 1:5,13).
    (3) The living creatures (the living beasts); that is, the Cherubim.
    (4) No one else was present, apparently.

    Footnote, Genesis 1:26

    {U]New English Bible[/U]
    “The plural us (Gen. 3:22; 11:7) may be a majestic plural, or else refer to minor divine beings thought to surround God, like the courtiers of a human king (1 Kings 22:19-22).”

    Only One Yahweh & Only One True El

    Since there is only one Yahweh and only one true El (Deut. 6:4; Neh. 9:6; John 17:3), this confirms Yahshua was not present in the beginning (1) as the Creator, or (2) as a second Yahweh (Gen. 1:26); nor was he present in the days of Ahab (1 Kings 22:19).

    “To you it was shown, that you might know that Yahweh is Elohim; there is no other besides HIM. … know therefore this day, and lay it to your heart, that Yahweh is Elohim in heaven above and on earth beneath; there is no other” (Deut. 4:35,39, RSV).

    Deut. 6:4

    Hear, O Israel: Yahweh our Elohim is ONE Yahweh, …” (Deut. 6:4).

    One is translated from the Hebrew word echad, equal in every respect to the English word, one. Echad is a cardinal number, meaning one as in one, two, three, etc. A cardinal number establishes how many, whereas an ordinal number establishes a place in a sequence, such as first, second, third, etc. Yahweh is not first among several. Instead, he is the ONE true El; the ONLY Yahweh who exist (2 Sam. 22:32; Ps. 83:18; Isa. 43:10; 44:6; 45:5,6,21,22; Mark 12:28-32; Luke 18:19; Rev. 15:4).

    Conclusion

    Since there are more than sixty Scriptures which declare there is one Yahweh; one true Elohim so, is it rational to ignore 60 Scriptures which declare there is only one Yahweh, the evidence indicates we must accept the three plural pronouns in Genesis 1:26 as Mr. Lindsell suggested:

    (1) As the plural of majesty, not as a plurality of persons; a plurality of Deities, or

    (2) Accept the view that the only Yahweh who exists consulted with his Angelic Court, as illustrated in 2 Kings 22:19.

    Scriptures do not support the doctrine of the Trinity, neither do they support the doctrine of Duality of Deities. Scriptures teach Monotheism; One Yahweh – One true El.

    “You believe that Yahweh is one; you do well; the demons believe also, and tremble” (James 2:19).
    SOURCE

    #270827
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (942767 @ Jan. 01 2012,20:58)
    If God spoke to humanity through him, then how can he be the Word or Logos in John 1:1?


    Marty,

    For the hundreth time:

    The King of Abyssinia had a spokesman who would relay the king's messages to others waiting in an outer room, because none of them were allowed to see or actually hear the king himself.  That SPOKESMAN was titled “The Word of the King”.

    Can you grasp this concept?  Can you fathom the spokesman FOR someone else being figuratively called the Word of that person?  Even with Rev 19:13 screaming at you that Jesus's NAME is “The Word of God”, are you still blind?  ???

    John 1
    3 Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

    4 In him was life, and that life was the light of men.

    12 Yet to all who received him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God—

    14 The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth.

    15 John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.’”

    Marty:
    1.  Through whom were all things made?  (Col 1:16, 1 Cor 8:6, Heb 1:2)
    2.  Who is the light of men and light of the world?  (John 8:12, 9:5)
    3.  Whose name must we believe in to become immortal children of God?  (John 3:16-18, 20:31, 1 John 5:13)
    4.  Who became flesh?  (Heb 2:14)
    5.  Who made his dwelling among John and the others?
    6.  Who would have the glory as of an only begotten from the Father?  (John 3:16)
    7.  Who did John testify concerning?  (John 1:29-30)

    #270831
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Jan. 04 2012,13:23)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 29 2011,11:47)

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Dec. 28 2011,12:31)
    Mike,

    Revelation 19:13 says that his (Yahshua's) [name/title] is called “The Word Of Yahweh”. It does NOT SAY “Yahshua IS the word of Yahweh.” as you deceptively teach and believe.


    Genesis 17:5 NKJV ©
    No longer shall your name be called Abram, but your name shall be Abraham; for I have made you a father of many nations.

    Because it says “name be called”, does it mean that the actual NAME of Abram wasn't really “Abram”?


    Mike,

    Abram was his given name and Yahweh changed his name to Abraham.


    Frank,

    The words say “name be CALLED Abram”.  You have tried to make a point that “The Word of God” is not a bonafide NAME of Jesus because of the wording “his name is CALLED”.

    But that is the same wording in 17:5, and we know that “Abram” WAS an actual, bonafide NAME of Abraham, right?

    My point is that you can't use the wording “name is CALLED” as a reason to say Jesus really isn't “The Word of God”.  If his name is CALLED that, then he IS that, just as Abraham WAS truly Abram.

    #270836
    Frank4YAHWEH
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Jan. 05 2012,12:32)

    Quote (942767 @ Jan. 01 2012,20:58)
    If God spoke to humanity through him, then how can he be the Word or Logos in John 1:1?


    Marty,

    For the hundreth time:

    The King of Abyssinia had a spokesman who would relay the king's messages to others waiting in an outer room, because none of them were allowed to see or actually hear the king himself.  That SPOKESMAN was titled “The Word of the King”.

    Can you grasp this concept?  Can you fathom the spokesman FOR someone else being figuratively called the Word of that person?  Even with Rev 19:13 screaming at you that Jesus's NAME is “The Word of God”, are you still blind?  ???

    John 1
    3 Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

    4 In him was life, and that life was the light of men.

    12 Yet to all who received him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God—

    14 The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth.

    15 John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.’”

    Marty:
    1.  Through whom were all things made?  (Col 1:16, 1 Cor 8:6, Heb 1:2)
    2.  Who is the light of men and light of the world?  (John 8:12, 9:5)
    3.  Whose name must we believe in to become immortal children of God?  (John 3:16-18, 20:31, 1 John 5:13)
    4.  Who became flesh?  (Heb 2:14)
    5.  Who made his dwelling among John and the others?
    6.  Who would have the glory as of an only begotten from the Father?  (John 3:16)
    7.  Who did John testify concerning?  (John 1:29-30)


    Mike,

    The Messiah's given name is Yahshua, not “The Word of Yahweh”. In accordance with Modern English the New Living Translation translates Revelation 19:13 appropriately:

    He wore a robe dipped in blood, and his title was [T]he Word of [Yahweh] (Revelation 19:13 New Living Translation ©2007 – Yahweh's Name Restored).

    Yahshua's title was the word of Yahweh simply because he was the spokesman of his and our Father Yahweh's word in this last time period as Hebrews 1:1-2 makes perfectly clear. Yahshua did not pre-exist his birth as an actual being as the word of Yahweh in the beginning.

    Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?

    “Jesus IS God!”?

    #270838
    Frank4YAHWEH
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Jan. 05 2012,12:40)

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Jan. 04 2012,13:23)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 29 2011,11:47)

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Dec. 28 2011,12:31)
    Mike,

    Revelation 19:13 says that his (Yahshua's) [name/title] is called “The Word Of Yahweh”. It does NOT SAY “Yahshua IS the word of Yahweh.” as you deceptively teach and believe.


    Genesis 17:5 NKJV ©
    No longer shall your name be called Abram, but your name shall be Abraham; for I have made you a father of many nations.

    Because it says “name be called”, does it mean that the actual NAME of Abram wasn't really “Abram”?


    Mike,

    Abram was his given name and Yahweh changed his name to Abraham.


    Frank,

    The words say “name be CALLED Abram”.  You have tried to make a point that “The Word of God” is not a bonafide NAME of Jesus because of the wording “his name is CALLED”.

    But that is the same wording in 17:5, and we know that “Abram” WAS an actual, bonafide NAME of Abraham, right?

    My point is that you can't use the wording “name is CALLED” as a reason to say Jesus really isn't “The Word of God”.  If his name is CALLED that, then he IS that, just as Abraham WAS truly Abram.


    Mike,

    No, “The Word of Yahweh” is not a BONAFIDE NAME of the Messiah! The Messiah's GIVEN BONAFIDE NAME is Yahshua.

    Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?

    “Jesus IS God!”?

    #270844
    Frank4YAHWEH
    Participant

    Therefore Yahweh exalted him to the highest place and gave him THE NAME that is ABOVE EVERY NAME, that at the NAME OF YAHSHUA every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, and every tongue confess that YAHSHUA Messiah is Master, to the esteem of Yahweh the Father (Philippians 2:9-11).

    #270846
    Ed J
    Participant

    Hi Frank,

    What bible translation do you post from?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #270848
    Frank4YAHWEH
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ Jan. 05 2012,13:38)
    Hi Frank,

    What bible translation do you post from?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    Ed J,

    I use translations (plural) of Father Yahweh's prophetic inspired word.

    #270850
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Jan. 04 2012,20:00)
    Yahshua's title was the word of Yahweh simply because he was the spokesman of his and our Father Yahweh's word in this last time period as Hebrews 1:1-2 makes perfectly clear.


    By golly, I think you've got it Frank! :)

    Now tell me why that title coudn't have been used of him in the gospel by the same author?

    We know the “Word” in John 1 refers to “the Word of God”, right? (Because who else's word would John be talking about?)

    So if John called Jesus by what you ADMIT is Jesus' title in Rev 19:13, then why in the world would it be so hard for you to believe the same author called Jesus by the same title in his other book? ???

    #270851
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Jan. 05 2012,13:42)

    Quote (Ed J @ Jan. 05 2012,13:38)
    Hi Frank,

    What bible translation do you post from?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    Ed J,

    I use translations (plural) of Father Yahweh's prophetic inspired word.


    Hi Frank,

    Which?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #270852
    Frank4YAHWEH
    Participant

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Jan. 05 2012,13:42)

    Quote (Ed J @ Jan. 05 2012,13:38)
    Hi Frank,

    What bible translation do you post from?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    Ed J,

    I use translations (plural) of Father Yahweh's prophetic inspired word.


    Ed J,

    I prefer translations that restore Father Yahweh's Name and His son's name to their proper esteem.

    YAHWEH Transliterated Scriptures

    #270853
    Frank4YAHWEH
    Participant

    Ed J,

    ALL translations that are available to me.

    #270854
    Frank4YAHWEH
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Jan. 05 2012,13:45)

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Jan. 04 2012,20:00)
    Yahshua's title was the word of Yahweh simply because he was the spokesman of his and our Father Yahweh's word in this last time period as Hebrews 1:1-2 makes perfectly clear.


    By golly, I think you've got it Frank!  :)

    Now tell me why that title coudn't have been used of him in the gospel by the same author?

    We know the “Word” in John 1 refers to “the Word of God”, right?  (Because who else's word would John be talking about?)

    So if John called Jesus by what you ADMIT is Jesus' title in Rev 19:13, then why in the world would it be so hard for you to believe the same author called Jesus by the same title in his other book?  ???


    Mike,

    Yahchanan [John] does not say “… and the word was Jesus.”

    #270855
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Jan. 05 2012,13:48)

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Jan. 05 2012,13:42)

    Quote (Ed J @ Jan. 05 2012,13:38)
    Hi Frank,

    What bible translation do you post from?

    God bless
    Ed J


    Ed J,

    I use translations (plural) of Father Yahweh's prophetic inspired word.


    Ed J,

    I prefer translations that restore Father Yahweh's Name and His son's name to their proper esteem.

    YAHWEH Transliterated Scriptures


    Hi Frank,

    Thank you, but I only seen the “AKJV Bible” on that link,
    did I miss any others that were there that you use?

    You still haven't “technically” told me which translations that you use? which are…

    1. AKJV Bible
    2. …?
    3. …?
    4. ect…

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #270856
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Jan. 05 2012,13:50)
    Ed J,

    ALL translations that are available to me.


    Hi Frank,

    I believe there are currently over 54 different English translations
    that are available to you, could you narrow it down a bit more?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #270968
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Jan. 04 2012,20:53)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Jan. 05 2012,13:45)

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Jan. 04 2012,20:00)
    Yahshua's title was the word of Yahweh simply because he was the spokesman of his and our Father Yahweh's word in this last time period as Hebrews 1:1-2 makes perfectly clear.


    By golly, I think you've got it Frank!  :)

    Now tell me why that title coudn't have been used of him in the gospel by the same author?

    We know the “Word” in John 1 refers to “the Word of God”, right?  (Because who else's word would John be talking about?)

    So if John called Jesus by what you ADMIT is Jesus' title in Rev 19:13, then why in the world would it be so hard for you to believe the same author called Jesus by the same title in his other book?  ???


    Mike,

    Yahchanan [John] does not say “… and the word was Jesus.”


    Nor does he say the rider of the white horse was “Jesus”; yet you know and admit that it is, right?

    Go on………………

    #270969
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Jan. 04 2012,20:48)
    Ed J,

    I prefer translations that restore Father Yahweh's Name and His son's name to their proper esteem.


    Then you'll like this one, Frank. Oh, and the NWT.  :)

    #270994
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    It is interesting to note that YHWH has always been, and if we have eternal life, which is to live forever going forth, then that obviously doesn't include going back as we have a beginning. Now Jesus is referenced as the “eternal life that was with the Father” in the beginning. The eternal life that was with the Father is reminiscent of the Word that was with God and it sounds like he was the first eternal life to be with God.

    1 John 1:2
    The life appeared; we have seen it and testify to it, and we proclaim to you the eternal life, which was with the Father and has appeared to us.

    It then says in the second sentence after that: And our fellowship is with the Father and with his Son, Jesus Christ.

    The Book of John and it seems his other books are about Jesus and it equates and calls him many titles.

    Anyone who thinks that the Logos that was with God is not about Jesus has explaining to do. The book is about Jesus and he is introduced in the beginning of the book and is referenced throughout the book with many titles and descriptions.

    In the beginning was the Logos is all about Jesus beginnings.

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