Did Jesus pre-exist before his birth on Earth?

Where did Jesus come from?

John 6:38-40
For I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will, but the will of him who sent me; and this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise it up at the last day. For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who sees the Son and believes in him should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.

The first verse suggests that Jesus came down from Heaven. This seems to contradict that belief which suggests he first existed as a man when he was born into this world. For if Jesus came into existence for the first time when he was conceived through Mary, how could he come down from Heaven? We (Man) came into existence when we are born into this world, but would it be correct to say that we came down from Heaven too? If a verse said that we came down from Heaven, would you think that we pre-existed in Heaven? If so, then why not Jesus?

John 3:17 is another verse that provides support that Jesus came down from Heaven or was sent rather than created.

For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.

The word ‘send’ is the Greek word ‘apostello’.

apostello {ap-os-tel’-lo}
1) to order (one) to go to a place appointed
2) to send away, dismiss
2a) to allow one to depart, that he may be in a state of liberty
2b) to order one to depart, send off
2c) to drive away

To be sent surely implies existence otherwise you would just say born or created. In fact this word (sent) is similar in meaning and sound to the word Apostle (apostolos), which means “one sent forth with orders”. To be sent forth with order, you must exist.

John 6:62
What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?

Jesus is clearly stating here that he came from above since he eventually ascended into Heaven to be at the right-hand of God.

How old is Jesus?

John 1:15
15 John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.‘ “

John the Baptist was six months older than Jesus Christ. So it is physically impossible for Christ to be before him in age. If this verse is referencing age, then it shows preexistence. Jesus existed before  John the Baptist in the least.

John 8:58
“I tell you the truth,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!

Jesus claimed to exist before Abraham, the father of the Jews. The words ‘I am’ mean ‘I exist’. So Jesus claimed existence before Abraham. We can see that Jesus is getting older as we explore the scriptures. But how old?

Jude 1:25
to the only God our Savior be glory, majesty, power and authority, through Jesus Christ our Lord, before all ages, now and forevermore! Amen.

Here we can see that majesty, power, and authority through Jesus Christ is before all ages (all worlds) and forever more into the future. This strongly implies that Jesus existed even before all things. But can we substantiate this?

Did Jesus exist before all creation?

Colossians 1:17
He is before all things, and in him all things hold together.

Colossians answers the question outright. It states that “He is before all things“.  But are there other verses that support this idea?

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus being there. This verse alone answers the question because the universe, angels, and men were made and Jesus was present when they were created according to these verses. In case that is not enough to convince you, I also add another clear verse that says the same thing.

Hebrews 1:1-2
1 In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways,
2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe.

Is Jesus the Word of God?

But some say that this is talking about the Word and not all believe that Jesus is the Word of God. They argue that Jesus came from the Word, but is not the Word itself that was with God in John 1:1. If you believe this, then please explain the next two verses within their wider context:

Revelation 19:13
He is dressed in a robe dipped in blood, and his name is the Word of God.

Colossians 1:15-18
The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him. He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. And he is the head of the body, the church; he is the beginning and the firstborn from among the dead, so that in everything he might have the supremacy.

Okay, if you are honest, this is a closed case. God created all things through the Word. Jesus is called the Word of God and also the son of God. We are also told that God created all things through the son of God. Even if you do not believe that Jesus is the Word, then you still have to believe that Jesus pre-existed on account of him being the son of God. But what we know from scripture is that Jesus existed as the Word of God before he came as a man called Jesus. We know that the Word became flesh.

More proof verses

If Jesus pre-existed, then you might expect that even though the above verses are clear, there would be more verses that teach or at least imply that he pre-existed. So let’s see if this is the case.

Revelation 22:16
“I, Jesus, have sent my angel to give you this testimony for the churches. I am the Root and the Offspring of David, and the bright Morning Star.”

Here we see that Jesus is the offspring of David, yet he is also the root of David, which at appears to show existence before King David. He also claims to be the bright Morning Star and we read in Job how the Morning Stars were present when God created the Earth.

Job 38:6-7
“On what were its bases sunk? Or who laid its cornerstone, When the morning stars sang together And all the sons of God shouted for joy? 

Luke 10:18
He replied, “I saw Satan fall like lightning from heaven.

Comparing Luke 10:18 with Revelation 12:1-10, some say that Satan and his angels fell to the earth before the birth of Christ as a man. If this was the case, then Jesus saw an event that took place before he was born as a man. However, others argue that Satan hasn’t fallen to the Earth yet, or that he has, but Jesus saw this in a vision. Regardless, it certainly doesn’t contradict that Jesus pre-existed.

Micah 5:2
“But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, though you are small among the clans of Judah, out of you will come for me one who will be ruler over Israel, whose origins are from of old, from ancient times.”

The above verse talks about someone who will rule Israel and whose origin is from ancient times. Who but Jesus could fit that description?

John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God/Divine.

John 1:14
The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only,[ 1:14 Or the Only Begotten] who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Clearly, Jesus was with God in the beginning as the Word of God. This places his existence as before all things and thus comes as no surprise that he was there when God created all things.

The Angel of YHWH

We know from certain scriptures that Jesus is Lord of the Sabbath and many assume that Jesus gave the Law of God. We are told in Acts:7:30-39 for instance that an Angel of the Lord appeared to Moses through whom God spoke and this is the same Angel who spoke to Moses on Mount Sinai and passed on the living words (The Law) to Moses.

30 “After forty years had passed, an angel appeared to Moses in the flames of a burning bush in the desert near Mount Sinai.
31 When he saw this, he was amazed at the sight. As he went over to look more closely, he heard the Lord’s voice:
32 ‘I am the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.’Moses trembled with fear and did not dare to look.
33 “Then the Lord said to him, ‘Take off your sandals; the place where you are standing is holy ground.
34 I have indeed seen the oppression of my people in Egypt. I have heard their groaning and have come down to set them free. Now come, I will send you back to Egypt.’
35 “This is the same Moses whom they had rejected with the words, ‘Who made you ruler and judge?’ He was sent to be their ruler and deliverer by God himself, through the angel who appeared to him in the bush.
36 He led them out of Egypt and did wonders and miraculous signs in Egypt, at the Red Sea and for forty years in the desert.
37 “This is that Moses who told the Israelites, ‘God will send you a prophet like me from your own people.’
38 He was in the assembly in the desert, with the angel who spoke to him on Mount Sinai, and with our fathers; and he received living words to pass on to us.
39 “But our fathers refused to obey him. Instead, they rejected him and in their hearts turned back to Egypt.

So is this Angel of the Lord, Jesus? Well it seems possible. Perhaps the correct model to look at is the one mentioned in Revelation 1:1

The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,

Here we can see that the order of the Revelation started with the Originator which is God. He then passed the message to Jesus Christ who in turn sent it to his Angel and then to John. So perhaps it is possible that the angel in Revelation is the same angel mentioned in Acts:7:30-39.

But the Angel of YHWH or Angel of the LORD is described as one like the son of gods.

Daniel 3:24-25
Then Nebuchadnezzar the king was astounded and stood up in haste; he said to his high officials, “Was it not three men we cast bound into the midst of the fire?” They replied to the king, “Certainly, O king.” He said, “Look! I see four men loosed and walking about in the midst of the fire without harm, and the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods!”

The idea that a preincarnate Jesus was this Angel of the LORD is a popular one. We know that this Angel of the LORD is never mentioned while Jesus is walking the earth which supports this idea. But it could also be a coincidence. One connection that can be made with Jesus being this messenger is found in Judges 13:18.

Manoah said to the angel of the LORD, “What is your name, so that when your words come to pass, we may honor you?” But the angel of the LORD said to him, “Why do you ask my name, seeing it is wonderful?”

Now read what Isaiah prophesied in Isaiah 9:6 .

For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

Clearly, Isaiah was speaking of Jesus Christ and note that he was called Wonderful Counselor. Is there a connection here? Perhaps. What we do know is the word ‘angel’ is the same word messenger in the Old Testament, and while it is held that Jesus is not an angel in kind, we know he certainly was a messenger of YHWH and would be fair to say even ‘The Messenger of YHWH’.

So the idea that he may be this angel is not that far fetched. Some vehemently oppose this idea, but they are not aware that both Jesus and John are called angels in the messenger sense.

More to come here……

More proof that Jesus pre-existed

Rev 3:14
And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God.

Moving on we read the following in Philippians 2:5-11
5 Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus:
6 Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,
7 but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.
8 And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to death even death on a cross!
9 Therefore God exalted him to the highest place and gave him the name that is above every name,
10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

Surely the above verses assumes preexistence.  Look at verse 7: ‘but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness’. This verse points out that Jesus humbled himself to become a (or like a) human and also a servant. So this suggests to us that he preexisted in a higher state because to humble oneself is to become lower. If he started life in this humbled state, then it would be incorrect to say that he humbled himself. Further, he “found himself in appearance as a man” is a weird statement to make if he first existed as a human baby.

This verse is often used in support of the trinity doctrine because of the word ‘equal’. But if you are equal to something it means that you are not that thing, rather you are like that thing. This scripture is also very clear about the following: The Father is God and Jesus is Lord and that God exalted Jesus to the highest place.

A closer look at verse 9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: Now I am not sure if Jesus was exalted higher than he was before he came to this world or whether he was exalted to the exact position that he had before. But if we look at John 17:5 again we can see that Jesus asked to return to his former glory.

John 17:5
And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began.

The above verse is clear about Christ’s pre-existence in glory before the world began. Just to prove this is not an isolated scripture here is a similar verse:

John 16:28
I came from the Father and entered the world; now I am leaving the world and going back to the Father.”

The next verse also confirms that Jesus pre-existed in Heaven.

John 3:12-15
12 I have spoken to you of earthly things and you do not believe; how then will you believe if I speak of heavenly things?
13 No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven, the Son of Man.
14 Just as Moses lifted up the snake in the desert, so the Son of Man must be lifted up,
15 that everyone who believes in him may have eternal life.

Ezekiel 8:1-3
1 In the sixth year, in the sixth month on the fifth day, while I was sitting in my house and the elders of Judah were sitting before me, the hand of the Sovereign LORD came upon me there.
2 I looked, and I saw a figure like that of a man. From what appeared to be his waist down he was like fire, and from there up his appearance was as bright as glowing metal.
3 He stretched out what looked like a hand and took me by the hair of my head. The Spirit lifted me up between earth and heaven and in visions of God he took me to Jerusalem, to the entrance to the north gate of the inner court, where the idol that provokes to jealousy stood.

This verse is interesting in the sense that the description is very similar to the description of Jesus Christ in Revelation 1:12-18,

12 I turned around to see the voice that was speaking to me. And when I turned I saw seven golden lampstands,
13 and among the lampstands was someone “like a son of man,” dressed in a robe reaching down to his feet and with a golden sash around his chest.
14 His head and hair were white like wool, as white as snow, and his eyes were like blazing fire.
15 His feet were like bronze glowing in a furnace, and his voice was like the sound of rushing waters.
16 In his right hand he held seven stars, and out of his mouth came a sharp double-edged sword. His face was like the sun shining in all its brilliance.
17 When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. Then he placed his right hand on me and said: “Do not be afraid. I am the First and the Last.
18 I am the Living One; I was dead, and behold I am alive for ever and ever! And I hold the keys of death and Hades.

Have a look at the next verse. 1 Corinthians 11:3 (English-NIV)
Now I want you to realize that the head of every man is Christ, and the head of the woman is man, and the head of Christ is God.

Now the word head in the Greek is ‘kephale’ which can mean head, source or master. Now if we notice the order in a time sense, we have to admit that God is the first as he is the only one who has existed for all eternity with no beginning. We also know from scripture that the man came first and the woman came from the man. So that part is correct if we use a timeline. That just leaves Christ. Did he come between God and Man. I think so, as I believe that all things came from him and this opinion does fit perfectly into this model in a time sense at least. Anyway the word Christ here is ‘Christos’ which means “anointed”. So the anointed is the head of Man.
God > Christ > Man > Woman

If God created all things for his Son and his Son was the channel for that creation to come into being, then we can only assume that Christ existed at this point. As Genesis says: Let us make Man in our image. God was talking to Christ at this point and we know that Christ is the image of God and we are the image of Christ. Therefore the image of the image of God (man) is still the image of God. But Christ is the original and first image and we can only assume again that that image existed before the image of the image. A bit like a mirror that reflects a mirror, the original mirror has to exist in order to reflect the second mirror.

So we know that Christ preexisted before creation and now we will look at some more scriptures that show that he was born before creation itself?

Colossians 1:15-16
15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.
16 For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him.

The above verse is quite clear that ALL things were created by or through Jesus.

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So again, there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus/The Word being there. Only the Father and Son were not made. God has always existed and the Son was born from God before the creation of the universe, before anything was made. The next verse describes clearly who/what was the first of God’s works.

Proverbs 8:22-30
22 “The LORD brought me forth as the first of his works, {[22] Or ; or } {[22] Or ; or } before his deeds of old;
23 I was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
24 When there were no oceans, I was given birth, when there were no springs abounding with water;
25 before the mountains were settled in place, before the hills, I was given birth,
26 before he made the earth or its fields or any of the dust of the world.
27 I was there when he set the heavens in place, when he marked out the horizon on the face of the deep,
28 when he established the clouds above and fixed securely the fountains of the deep,
29 when he gave the sea its boundary so the waters would not overstep his command, and when he marked out the foundations of the earth.
30 Then I was the craftsman at his side. I was filled with delight day after day, rejoicing always in his presence,

This verse is talking about Wisdom, whom many believe is Christ. This scriptures compliments other scriptures that that teach that Jesus was given birth by God and then created all THINGS though him.

So from this verse we can see the following points.

Wisdom was brought forth as the first of Gods works.
Wisdom was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
Wisdom was given birth before creation.
Wisdom was the craftsman at his side and rejoiced in his presence before creation.
Some say that Wisdom isn’t Christ, rather this is just wisdom in a conceptual sense and it is true that wisdom is being spoken of in that way. But from verse 22 onward it changes tempo. With terms like I was given birth, I was the craftsman at his side and I was filled with delight, we have to admit that it seems to be talking about a person. Now have a look at the following verses:

1 Corinthians 1:24 (English-NIV)
but to those whom God has called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God.

1 Corinthians 1:30 (English-NIV)
It is because of him that you are in Christ Jesus, who has become for us wisdom from God–that is, our righteousness, holiness and redemption.

Let’s look at some other concepts that Jesus personifies:

Jesus is the Truth. Yet truth is also a concept.
Jesus is the Way. Yet the way is also a concept.
Jesus is the Life. Yet life can also be a concept.
Now look at the following mystery:

1 Corinthians 2:6-9
6 We do, however, speak a message of wisdom among the mature, but not the wisdom of this age or of the rulers of this age, who are coming to nothing.
7 No, we speak of God’s secret wisdom, a wisdom that has been hidden and that God destined for our glory before time began.
8 None of the rulers of this age understood it, for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.
9 However, as it is written:
“No eye has seen,
no ear has heard,
no mind has conceived
what God has prepared for those who love him”

Ephesians 3:8-10
8 Although I am less than the least of all God’s people, this grace was given me: to preach to the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ,
9 and to make plain to everyone the administration of this mystery, which for ages past was kept hidden in God, who created all things.
10 His intent was that now, through the church, the manifold wisdom of God should be made known to the rulers and authorities in the heavenly realms,

Perhaps another scripture alluding to Jesus being the Wisdom of God.

Finally I leave you with the following OT scripture that suggests that God had a Son before the birth Of Jesus Christ on earth.

Proverbs 30:4
Who has gone up to heaven and come down? Who has gathered up the wind in the hollow of his hands? Who has wrapped up the waters in his cloak? Who has established all the ends of the earth? What is his name, and the name of his son? Tell me if you know!


Discussion

Viewing 20 posts - 9,701 through 9,720 (of 19,165 total)
  • Author
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  • #223005
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 03 2010,13:33)

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 02 2010,15:07)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 02 2010,11:52)

    Quote (Gene Balthrop @ Nov. 02 2010,10:10)
    Let keep the questions short and not have so many in on post i will try not to also.


    Gene,

    Fair enough.  This is how I understand it so far:

    Who is the Word in John 1?

    Ed:  God's Holy Spirit.

    Do I have this correct so far?

    peace and love,
    mike


    Hi Mike,

    I love you brother, and I'm so glad you're here! My answer is:
    Before Jesus' baptism, “The Word” could ‘only’ become BOOK!

    Small speech: Now “The Word” can become, tape, record,
    microfiche, movie, telephone transmission and more flesh; ect.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    That wasn't the question Ed.

    Can your “choice” – the Holy Spirit – BECOME FLESH?  I know your answer is “Yes”, so let's move on down the scripture.

    John 1:14b NIV
    We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

    Can the above be said about your “choice” – the Holy Spirit?   Can God the Father be His own “only begotten Son”?  Can God the Father be said to have “come FROM the Father”?

    If so, please explain.

    mike


    Hi Mike,

    I have explained John 1:14 for you more than once or twice just recently.
    Look again at my last Post to you.

    This question is new…

    Quote
    Can God the Father be said to have “come FROM the Father”?


    The “God Spirit”(117) came from “God The Father”(117) starting at “Pentecost”(117).

    I have started a new thread in which I will be explaining
    questions such as you propose in much greater detail!

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #223006
    Baker
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 04 2010,11:04)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 03 2010,13:33)

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 02 2010,15:07)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 02 2010,11:52)

    Quote (Gene Balthrop @ Nov. 02 2010,10:10)
    Let keep the questions short and not have so many in on post i will try not to also.


    Gene,

    Fair enough.  This is how I understand it so far:

    Who is the Word in John 1?

    Ed:  God's Holy Spirit.

    Do I have this correct so far?

    peace and love,
    mike


    Hi Mike,

    I love you brother, and I'm so glad you're here! My answer is:
    Before Jesus' baptism, “The Word” could ‘only’ become BOOK!

    Small speech: Now “The Word” can become, tape, record,
    microfiche, movie, telephone transmission and more flesh; ect.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    That wasn't the question Ed.

    Can your “choice” – the Holy Spirit – BECOME FLESH?  I know your answer is “Yes”, so let's move on down the scripture.

    John 1:14b NIV
    We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

    Can the above be said about your “choice” – the Holy Spirit?   Can God the Father be His own “only begotten Son”?  Can God the Father be said to have “come FROM the Father”?

    If so, please explain.

    mike


    Hi Mike,

    I have explained John 1:14 for you more than once or twice just recently.
    Look again at my last Post to you.

    This question is new…

    Quote
    Can God the Father be said to have “come FROM the Father”?


    The “God Spirit”(117) came from “God The Father”(117) starting at “Pentecost”(117).

    I have started a new thread in which I will be explaining
    questions such as you propose in much greater detail!

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    Ed, what are you doing?  Come on you are talking over this tread.  I believe that is against the rules, I thinnk… stop it…..Irene

    #223007
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 03 2010,13:37)

    Quote (kerwin @ Nov. 02 2010,18:13)
    Mike Boll,

    I ask because I suspicion you acknowledge translation bias when the translation disagrees with your interpretation but not when it agrees.  I then planned to demonstrate you were using two different measuring sticks hoping you would see your error or alleviate my suspicions by explain the apparent bias.


    I see your point, and agree to the “test” Kerwin. :)

    Yes, I look at what the Greek and Hebrew words actually say, and then agree with the translation that best words it.

    I quote from many different translations, but I like the NIV version far better that any of the others for “ease of understanding” so far.

    Would you like to start with a particular verse and compare our favorite translations of it……..or what?

    peace and love,
    mike


    Hi Mike,

    Have you tried the N.A.S.?
    It is not as accurate as the “AKJV Bible”,
    but the English is easier to read. Here is a link for you

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #223008
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 03 2010,13:41)

    Quote (Gene Balthrop @ Nov. 03 2010,02:22)
    which (ARE) the (SEVEN SPIRITS OF GOD) sent forth into (ALL) the earth.


    Hi Gene,

    So then you DON'T agree with Ed that the Spirits OF God are actually the being of God Himself?

    Good. :)

    peace and love,
    mike


    Hi Mike,

    Don't get hung up on words, Gene and I agree.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #223020
    kerwin
    Participant

    Mike Boll and Ed J,

    Can you please strive to consolidate your posts to the same individual down to one; as you are inadvertently flooding this thread and thus making it difficult for others to follow the conversation they are involved in?  Something else that may help is if you do not quote the post you are responding to but only those points you are addressing.   Thank you.

    #223022
    kerwin
    Participant

    Mike Boll,

    Thank you for alleviating my suspicions as regarding translating from the original languages.

    I missed your post but thankfully Ed J quoted it in his response.

    #223026
    terraricca
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 04 2010,17:47)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 03 2010,13:21)

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 02 2010,14:55)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 02 2010,11:30)

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 01 2010,17:22)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 01 2010,05:49)
    Ed:

    Quote
    5) Became means: came to be; see earlier Post of mine.


    And see my answer to your earlier post.  No matter how you define “became”, it still adds up to “God BECAME flesh” in your theory.

    mike


    Hi Mike,

            “God BECAME flesh in”   …theory.

    Now that you understand; great!

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    Ed,

    You don't have to quote every word I say, but don't take out the one word that makes my quote sound like I'm saying the opposite of what I'm saying, okay?

    Now, please answer my point in the above post.  Is that what you really think?  That God became flesh?

    mike


    Hi Mike,

    How have I not answered your question?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    Here is the question again Ed.

    Does John 1:14 say:

    A.  The Word BECAME flesh?

    B.  The Word CAME TO BE IN SOMEONE WHO WAS FLESH?

    (1)You see Ed, if God BECAME flesh, then He WAS the flesh person of Jesus Christ.  And that means God many times pointed out the fact that He was greater than Himself.  That also means that God prayed to Himself.

    (2)What you are trying to do is take the word “BECAME” and make it mean “was in”.  But the scripture doesn't say the Word “was in” the flesh person of Jesus.  The scripture says the Word BECAME the flesh person Jesus.

    Do you understand?

    mike


    Hi Mike,

    Thank you, now you gave me something to work with.

    Ex.3:4 And when the LORD saw that he(Moshe) turned aside to see,
    God called unto him out of the midst of the bush

    A  The bush became God?

    B GOD CAME TO BE IN THE BUSH FOR MOSHE TO SEE?

    You see Mike I can play the same game you play.
    But unlike Barley, I show the game you are playing!

    1) If you don't like my explanation, then please explain for us all hear at h-net this verse…
    1Tm.3:16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:
    God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels,
    preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory
    .
    Does not my explanation also fit this verse?  Explain how your view squares with 1Tm.3:16?

    2) Yes I understand: Opinions, opinions, opinions, MikeBoll has many opinions!

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    edj

    are you now a self satisfying person ?i read and see how you practice.

    you answering your own questions by using some of the words and carefully pick what you see of interest to you mind ,this to satisfy your ego,???

    Pierre

    #223029
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Kerwin:

    Quote
    The word was fulfilled by the conception of Jesus in the first half of John 1:14 and so by the second half John is speaking of the Word that has been fulfilled with Jesus’ coming according to chronological order.


    Okay Kerwin.  So the “Word” who pre-existed BECAME the flesh person we know as Jesus Christ.  They became one and the same, because that's what scripture says, right?  

    It doesn't say this “Word” was IN the flesh person of Jesus, but that this “Word” BECAME the flesh person of Jesus, right?  

    The flesh person of “the Word/Jesus” had the glory of an only begotten Son from the Father, right?

    And the flesh person of “the Word/Jesus” had knowledge and memories of when he existed in the presence of God before the creation of the world, right?

    And the flesh person of “the Word/Jesus” was killed and raised back to life, right?

    I have never claimed that the flesh body of Jesus pre-existed, and I think it would be silly to do so since flesh and blood cannot enter into the Kingdom of God.

    But if this “Word” was the pre-existent Son of God from his very beginning, and then BECAME flesh in the person of Jesus Christ, then this “Word/Jesus” being DID pre-exist, just not within the fleshly body.

    And since we all recognize this “Word/Jesus” being as “Jesus Christ”, then is if fair to say that this “Jesus Christ” pre-existed?

    Because that's exactly what Paul and other NT writers have done.  When Paul says “Jesus” was in the form of God but then became man, he really means God's only begotten Son, “the Word”, was in the form of God but then became man.

    And when John says nothing came into existence without “the Word”, he is talking about “the Word” who emptied himself of his heavenly glory and was made INTO the flesh person we know as Jesus Christ.

    What you and Gene and the other non-preexisters want is for Jesus of Nazareth to have been nothing but a regular human being like us, and God “inserted” His “Word” into this regular Joe.

    But I keep telling you that the scripture does NOT say “the Word” came to be IN someone who was just a regular Joe.  The scripture CLEARLY says that this “Word” BECAME the flesh being of Jesus Christ.

    Others think Jesus “became” the Son of God at the Jordan.  But John the Baptist said the one who comes after him existed before him…………and he said this BEFORE he baptized “the Word/Jesus”.

    Face it Kerwin, there was NEVER a “regular Joe” who later was filled with “the Word” or the Holy Spirit to BECOME the Son of God.  Jesus was from his very conception the Son of God who was the holy one of God from his very birth as a human.  

    Would you have us believe that people did obeisance to a child who was just a “regular Joe”?  The old man at the temple thanked God for letting him see his Lord while Jesus was just an infant.  And there is no wording whatsoever to make it mean the old man saw the human body that the Lord would eventually be “inserted” into.

    You are not far off on your “Word” belief.  You just need to eliminate the false assumption that this “Word” was placed inside the regular person of Jesus from Nazareth……..because that is NOT what the scriptures teach. What the scriptures DO teach, is that “the Word” BECAME the flesh person of Jesus Christ.

    peace and love,
    mike

    #223030
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 04 2010,07:51)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 03 2010,12:12)

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 02 2010,14:22)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 02 2010,11:03)
    Ed,

    All this info does is tell you that someone's spokesman can be referred to as their “word”.

    mike


    Hi Mike,

    No; that's what you info tells you!
    I consider it ‘squag’.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    Why Ed?

    It is the report of a man who studied different cultures.  He wasn't writing this for a theological issue.  He was just reporting the things he witnessed.

    Do you consider the secular history of the church to also be “squag”…………whatever that is?

    mike


    Hi Mike,

    I don't consider history to be 'squag'.
    Squag is the stuff you throw away.
    It's a made up word, most like it.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    And so you have some kind of proof that the King of Abyssinia DIDN'T call his spokesman “the word of the king”?

    This is a very close minded view you are taking about some reliable circumstantial evidence Ed. And without any reason to even doubt that the King of Abyssinia's spokesman was called his “word”. ???

    #223031
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 04 2010,08:04)
    3) So then: your head, brain and spirit are of you; right? Don't they then compose you yourself?


    They are all a part OF me Ed. My brain is not “the being of Mike Boll”. Nor is my head. But “the being of Mike Boll” CONSISTS OF those things, in part.

    #223032
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Ed:

    Quote
    2) You have just explained why the indefinite article
       was correctly added to Acts 28:6; agreed!


    Ah good!  So now we both agree that the “a” should be added in both 12:22 AND 28:6?  Excellent.

    Now there is only ONE scripture in the Bible where the “a” is NOT added but should be.  And by NOT adding it, the translators make the scripture say “God Almighty was WITH God Almighty”. But you're okay with that.  ???

    Ed:

    Quote
    5) Your thinking bringing other people's (squag) opinions to the table
    does strengthen ‘your opinion’? CLEARLY IT DOESN'T!


    :)  And on that note, I will stop taking you seriously about John 1:1.  I'm learning that when someone here starts spouting clear nonsense because they have no other route, from that point on, I will just be beating my head against a wall.

    #223033
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 04 2010,10:12)
    John 1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us,
    (and we beheld his(God's) glory, the glory(of God) as of the only begotten of the Father,)
    full of grace and truth.


    Ed:

    Quote
    John 1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us,
    (and we beheld his(God's) glory, the glory(of God) as of the only begotten of the Father,)
    full of grace and truth.

    The scripture says the Word had the glory of someone who was BEGOTTEN BY GOD. God has the glory of God, not “someone who was begotten by Him”.

    And on that note, I will not discuss this point any further with you, for you are clearly twisting what the scripture says in an effort to make it fit into your doctrine. :)

    #223035
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 04 2010,10:21)
    Hi Mike,

    You said (in the past) Jesus had glory of his own,
    where did Jesus get this Glory?


    Paul speaks of the glory of the sun and moon and mankind. Jesus speaks of the glory of Solomon.

    Do you imply that all these “glories” are the glory of God? God made all things glorious, so everything has it's own glory.

    But the glory of mankind cannot be equalled to the glory of God. And the glory of the Son cannot be equalled to the glory of God.

    All things were made by God, so the glory each thing has is only there because God made that thing. But none of those things God made have “God's glory”.

    #223037
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 04 2010,10:47)
    Hi Mike,

    Thank you, now you gave me something to work with.

    Ex.3:4 And when the LORD saw that he(Moshe) turned aside to see,
    God called unto him out of the midst of the bush

    A The bush became God?

    B GOD CAME TO BE IN THE BUSH FOR MOSHE TO SEE?

    You see Mike I can play the same game you play.
    But unlike Barley, I show the game you are playing!

    1) If you don't like my explanation, then please explain for us all hear at h-net this verse…
    1Tm.3:16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:
    God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels,
    preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory
    .
    Does not my explanation also fit this verse? Explain how your view squares with 1Tm.3:16?

    2) Yes I understand: Opinions, opinions, opinions, MikeBoll has many opinions!

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    Ed:

    Quote
    Ex.3:4 And when the LORD saw that he(Moshe) turned aside to see,
    God called unto him out of the midst of the bush

    A The bush became God?

    B GOD CAME TO BE IN THE BUSH FOR MOSHE TO SEE?


    Does it SAY the bush BECAME God, Ed? ??? For John 1:14 CLEARLY says “the Word BECAME flesh”.

    Ed:

    Quote
    You see Mike I can play the same game you play.


    Apparently not very well. :D

    Ed:

    Quote
    1) If you don't like my explanation, then please explain for us all hear at h-net this verse…
    1Tm.3:16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:
    God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels,
    preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory
    .
    Does not my explanation also fit this verse? Explain how your view squares with 1Tm.3:16?


    Well first, the word is “He”, not “God”. Check NETBible out:

    http://net.bible.org/verse.php?book=1Ti&chapter=3&verse=16

    Out of the nine majors translations shown, ONLY the KJV and NKJV have “God” in that scripture Ed. You can read the loads of info NETNotes gives about why they, along with the NIV, NASB, NRSV, and the others use the word “He” instead of “God”.

    Think about it Ed. The NIV was reportedly translated by over 100 scholars who had to sign off on being a trinitarian before they were allowed on the project. If there was any valid evidence whatsoever that the word should be “God”, don't you think they would have jumped at the chance to render it as “God”?

    #223038
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 04 2010,11:04)
    The “God Spirit”(117) came from “God The Father”(117) starting at “Pentecost”(117).

    I have started a new thread in which I will be explaining
    questions such as you propose in much greater detail!


    Well, I hope you explain things better in your new thread. Because your own sentence here proves your own theory wrong.

    You say the Holy Spirit IS God the Father. But now you (scripturally) say it “came from God the Father”.

    Stick with this one Ed. It is scriptural.

    #223039
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 04 2010,11:15)
    Hi Mike,

    Have you tried the N.A.S.?


    Thanks,

    I'll look into it. I've read the NWT, the NIV, and am finishing the CEV right now. I can't decide whether to try a different translation, or re-read one of the first two.

    The CEV is for anyone with at least a 5th grade education, so it is “dumbed down” a bit. And they mistranslate the “meaning” of many scriptures. I would not recommend the CEV to anyone. But I must finish what I started. :)

    #223041
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Hi Shimmer, Irene and Kerwin,

    Ed and I have been having our conversation about many points in a “point by point” manner.  He started it, and I love it this way.  We started with about 20 disagreements and although we still don't agree on most points, we are now down to only 4 of them left, so there won't be as many posts.

    But hey guys, that's what the avatars are for.  If you're not interested in what Ed and I are discussing, just skim right over us.  He usually posts during the day, and I post at night.  That's why there are so many in a row.

    We both dislike the long drawn out posts and prefer to keep it one point per post.  Please indulge us this preferrence. :)

    peace and love to all of you,
    mike

    #223045
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 03 2010,15:02)
    Hey Ed,

    I was just led to this scripture by a post from Pierre:

    Luke 11:13 NIV
    13 If you then, though you are evil, know how to give good gifts to your children, how much more will your Father in heaven give the Holy Spirit to those who ask him!”

    How does this scripture fit into your “The Holy Spirit IS God the Father” theory?

    mike


    Hi Mike,

    Have you ever heard the term “Give of yourself”:
    meaning give your LOVE to someone, not product!

                YHVH is Love=117

    1John 4:16 And we have known and believed the love that God hath to us.
    God is love; and he that dwelleth in love dwelleth in God, and God in him.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #223048
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (gollamudi @ Nov. 03 2010,18:37)
    Hi Sis Karmarie,

    There are many other verses which claim that Holy Spirit is God Himself I mean God the Father.  See this another verse “For God is Spirit, so those who worship him must worship in spirit and in truth” (John 4:24). Holy Spirit is none but God Himself who is Holy.

    Things are ok on my side
    Thanks and love to you
    Adam


    Hi Adam,

    This is what I have been trying to tell everyone here!

    Thanks for your support!
    Ed J
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #223054
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Yes Ed, you have been trying. :)

    Maybe Adam needs to explain Luke 11:13, for it seems clear that you aren't going to.

    If this isn't enough to make you see the Holy Spirit is a possesion OF God that He can freely GIVE as a GIFT, then I'll dig up some more scriptures.

    Well, that didn't take long.

    Acts 5:32 NIV
    We are witnesses of these things, and so is the Holy Spirit, whom God has given to those who obey him.”

    Now this scripture metaphorically refers the God's Holy Spirit as a person.  And in doing so, we can see that the “person” of the Holy Spirit has been given by a different person………..God.  

    Here's a good one:

    Matthew 10:20 NIV
    20 for it will not be you speaking, but the Spirit of your Father speaking through you.

    Does this say the “Father of your Father” will be speaking through you? :)

    goodnight,
    mike

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