Did Jesus pre-exist before his birth on Earth?

Where did Jesus come from?

John 6:38-40
For I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will, but the will of him who sent me; and this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise it up at the last day. For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who sees the Son and believes in him should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.

The first verse suggests that Jesus came down from Heaven. This seems to contradict that belief which suggests he first existed as a man when he was born into this world. For if Jesus came into existence for the first time when he was conceived through Mary, how could he come down from Heaven? We (Man) came into existence when we are born into this world, but would it be correct to say that we came down from Heaven too? If a verse said that we came down from Heaven, would you think that we pre-existed in Heaven? If so, then why not Jesus?

John 3:17 is another verse that provides support that Jesus came down from Heaven or was sent rather than created.

For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.

The word ‘send’ is the Greek word ‘apostello’.

apostello {ap-os-tel’-lo}
1) to order (one) to go to a place appointed
2) to send away, dismiss
2a) to allow one to depart, that he may be in a state of liberty
2b) to order one to depart, send off
2c) to drive away

To be sent surely implies existence otherwise you would just say born or created. In fact this word (sent) is similar in meaning and sound to the word Apostle (apostolos), which means “one sent forth with orders”. To be sent forth with order, you must exist.

John 6:62
What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?

Jesus is clearly stating here that he came from above since he eventually ascended into Heaven to be at the right-hand of God.

How old is Jesus?

John 1:15
15 John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.‘ “

John the Baptist was six months older than Jesus Christ. So it is physically impossible for Christ to be before him in age. If this verse is referencing age, then it shows preexistence. Jesus existed before  John the Baptist in the least.

John 8:58
“I tell you the truth,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!

Jesus claimed to exist before Abraham, the father of the Jews. The words ‘I am’ mean ‘I exist’. So Jesus claimed existence before Abraham. We can see that Jesus is getting older as we explore the scriptures. But how old?

Jude 1:25
to the only God our Savior be glory, majesty, power and authority, through Jesus Christ our Lord, before all ages, now and forevermore! Amen.

Here we can see that majesty, power, and authority through Jesus Christ is before all ages (all worlds) and forever more into the future. This strongly implies that Jesus existed even before all things. But can we substantiate this?

Did Jesus exist before all creation?

Colossians 1:17
He is before all things, and in him all things hold together.

Colossians answers the question outright. It states that “He is before all things“.  But are there other verses that support this idea?

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus being there. This verse alone answers the question because the universe, angels, and men were made and Jesus was present when they were created according to these verses. In case that is not enough to convince you, I also add another clear verse that says the same thing.

Hebrews 1:1-2
1 In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways,
2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe.

Is Jesus the Word of God?

But some say that this is talking about the Word and not all believe that Jesus is the Word of God. They argue that Jesus came from the Word, but is not the Word itself that was with God in John 1:1. If you believe this, then please explain the next two verses within their wider context:

Revelation 19:13
He is dressed in a robe dipped in blood, and his name is the Word of God.

Colossians 1:15-18
The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him. He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. And he is the head of the body, the church; he is the beginning and the firstborn from among the dead, so that in everything he might have the supremacy.

Okay, if you are honest, this is a closed case. God created all things through the Word. Jesus is called the Word of God and also the son of God. We are also told that God created all things through the son of God. Even if you do not believe that Jesus is the Word, then you still have to believe that Jesus pre-existed on account of him being the son of God. But what we know from scripture is that Jesus existed as the Word of God before he came as a man called Jesus. We know that the Word became flesh.

More proof verses

If Jesus pre-existed, then you might expect that even though the above verses are clear, there would be more verses that teach or at least imply that he pre-existed. So let’s see if this is the case.

Revelation 22:16
“I, Jesus, have sent my angel to give you this testimony for the churches. I am the Root and the Offspring of David, and the bright Morning Star.”

Here we see that Jesus is the offspring of David, yet he is also the root of David, which at appears to show existence before King David. He also claims to be the bright Morning Star and we read in Job how the Morning Stars were present when God created the Earth.

Job 38:6-7
“On what were its bases sunk? Or who laid its cornerstone, When the morning stars sang together And all the sons of God shouted for joy? 

Luke 10:18
He replied, “I saw Satan fall like lightning from heaven.

Comparing Luke 10:18 with Revelation 12:1-10, some say that Satan and his angels fell to the earth before the birth of Christ as a man. If this was the case, then Jesus saw an event that took place before he was born as a man. However, others argue that Satan hasn’t fallen to the Earth yet, or that he has, but Jesus saw this in a vision. Regardless, it certainly doesn’t contradict that Jesus pre-existed.

Micah 5:2
“But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, though you are small among the clans of Judah, out of you will come for me one who will be ruler over Israel, whose origins are from of old, from ancient times.”

The above verse talks about someone who will rule Israel and whose origin is from ancient times. Who but Jesus could fit that description?

John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God/Divine.

John 1:14
The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only,[ 1:14 Or the Only Begotten] who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Clearly, Jesus was with God in the beginning as the Word of God. This places his existence as before all things and thus comes as no surprise that he was there when God created all things.

The Angel of YHWH

We know from certain scriptures that Jesus is Lord of the Sabbath and many assume that Jesus gave the Law of God. We are told in Acts:7:30-39 for instance that an Angel of the Lord appeared to Moses through whom God spoke and this is the same Angel who spoke to Moses on Mount Sinai and passed on the living words (The Law) to Moses.

30 “After forty years had passed, an angel appeared to Moses in the flames of a burning bush in the desert near Mount Sinai.
31 When he saw this, he was amazed at the sight. As he went over to look more closely, he heard the Lord’s voice:
32 ‘I am the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.’Moses trembled with fear and did not dare to look.
33 “Then the Lord said to him, ‘Take off your sandals; the place where you are standing is holy ground.
34 I have indeed seen the oppression of my people in Egypt. I have heard their groaning and have come down to set them free. Now come, I will send you back to Egypt.’
35 “This is the same Moses whom they had rejected with the words, ‘Who made you ruler and judge?’ He was sent to be their ruler and deliverer by God himself, through the angel who appeared to him in the bush.
36 He led them out of Egypt and did wonders and miraculous signs in Egypt, at the Red Sea and for forty years in the desert.
37 “This is that Moses who told the Israelites, ‘God will send you a prophet like me from your own people.’
38 He was in the assembly in the desert, with the angel who spoke to him on Mount Sinai, and with our fathers; and he received living words to pass on to us.
39 “But our fathers refused to obey him. Instead, they rejected him and in their hearts turned back to Egypt.

So is this Angel of the Lord, Jesus? Well it seems possible. Perhaps the correct model to look at is the one mentioned in Revelation 1:1

The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,

Here we can see that the order of the Revelation started with the Originator which is God. He then passed the message to Jesus Christ who in turn sent it to his Angel and then to John. So perhaps it is possible that the angel in Revelation is the same angel mentioned in Acts:7:30-39.

But the Angel of YHWH or Angel of the LORD is described as one like the son of gods.

Daniel 3:24-25
Then Nebuchadnezzar the king was astounded and stood up in haste; he said to his high officials, “Was it not three men we cast bound into the midst of the fire?” They replied to the king, “Certainly, O king.” He said, “Look! I see four men loosed and walking about in the midst of the fire without harm, and the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods!”

The idea that a preincarnate Jesus was this Angel of the LORD is a popular one. We know that this Angel of the LORD is never mentioned while Jesus is walking the earth which supports this idea. But it could also be a coincidence. One connection that can be made with Jesus being this messenger is found in Judges 13:18.

Manoah said to the angel of the LORD, “What is your name, so that when your words come to pass, we may honor you?” But the angel of the LORD said to him, “Why do you ask my name, seeing it is wonderful?”

Now read what Isaiah prophesied in Isaiah 9:6 .

For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

Clearly, Isaiah was speaking of Jesus Christ and note that he was called Wonderful Counselor. Is there a connection here? Perhaps. What we do know is the word ‘angel’ is the same word messenger in the Old Testament, and while it is held that Jesus is not an angel in kind, we know he certainly was a messenger of YHWH and would be fair to say even ‘The Messenger of YHWH’.

So the idea that he may be this angel is not that far fetched. Some vehemently oppose this idea, but they are not aware that both Jesus and John are called angels in the messenger sense.

More to come here……

More proof that Jesus pre-existed

Rev 3:14
And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God.

Moving on we read the following in Philippians 2:5-11
5 Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus:
6 Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,
7 but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.
8 And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to death even death on a cross!
9 Therefore God exalted him to the highest place and gave him the name that is above every name,
10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

Surely the above verses assumes preexistence.  Look at verse 7: ‘but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness’. This verse points out that Jesus humbled himself to become a (or like a) human and also a servant. So this suggests to us that he preexisted in a higher state because to humble oneself is to become lower. If he started life in this humbled state, then it would be incorrect to say that he humbled himself. Further, he “found himself in appearance as a man” is a weird statement to make if he first existed as a human baby.

This verse is often used in support of the trinity doctrine because of the word ‘equal’. But if you are equal to something it means that you are not that thing, rather you are like that thing. This scripture is also very clear about the following: The Father is God and Jesus is Lord and that God exalted Jesus to the highest place.

A closer look at verse 9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: Now I am not sure if Jesus was exalted higher than he was before he came to this world or whether he was exalted to the exact position that he had before. But if we look at John 17:5 again we can see that Jesus asked to return to his former glory.

John 17:5
And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began.

The above verse is clear about Christ’s pre-existence in glory before the world began. Just to prove this is not an isolated scripture here is a similar verse:

John 16:28
I came from the Father and entered the world; now I am leaving the world and going back to the Father.”

The next verse also confirms that Jesus pre-existed in Heaven.

John 3:12-15
12 I have spoken to you of earthly things and you do not believe; how then will you believe if I speak of heavenly things?
13 No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven, the Son of Man.
14 Just as Moses lifted up the snake in the desert, so the Son of Man must be lifted up,
15 that everyone who believes in him may have eternal life.

Ezekiel 8:1-3
1 In the sixth year, in the sixth month on the fifth day, while I was sitting in my house and the elders of Judah were sitting before me, the hand of the Sovereign LORD came upon me there.
2 I looked, and I saw a figure like that of a man. From what appeared to be his waist down he was like fire, and from there up his appearance was as bright as glowing metal.
3 He stretched out what looked like a hand and took me by the hair of my head. The Spirit lifted me up between earth and heaven and in visions of God he took me to Jerusalem, to the entrance to the north gate of the inner court, where the idol that provokes to jealousy stood.

This verse is interesting in the sense that the description is very similar to the description of Jesus Christ in Revelation 1:12-18,

12 I turned around to see the voice that was speaking to me. And when I turned I saw seven golden lampstands,
13 and among the lampstands was someone “like a son of man,” dressed in a robe reaching down to his feet and with a golden sash around his chest.
14 His head and hair were white like wool, as white as snow, and his eyes were like blazing fire.
15 His feet were like bronze glowing in a furnace, and his voice was like the sound of rushing waters.
16 In his right hand he held seven stars, and out of his mouth came a sharp double-edged sword. His face was like the sun shining in all its brilliance.
17 When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. Then he placed his right hand on me and said: “Do not be afraid. I am the First and the Last.
18 I am the Living One; I was dead, and behold I am alive for ever and ever! And I hold the keys of death and Hades.

Have a look at the next verse. 1 Corinthians 11:3 (English-NIV)
Now I want you to realize that the head of every man is Christ, and the head of the woman is man, and the head of Christ is God.

Now the word head in the Greek is ‘kephale’ which can mean head, source or master. Now if we notice the order in a time sense, we have to admit that God is the first as he is the only one who has existed for all eternity with no beginning. We also know from scripture that the man came first and the woman came from the man. So that part is correct if we use a timeline. That just leaves Christ. Did he come between God and Man. I think so, as I believe that all things came from him and this opinion does fit perfectly into this model in a time sense at least. Anyway the word Christ here is ‘Christos’ which means “anointed”. So the anointed is the head of Man.
God > Christ > Man > Woman

If God created all things for his Son and his Son was the channel for that creation to come into being, then we can only assume that Christ existed at this point. As Genesis says: Let us make Man in our image. God was talking to Christ at this point and we know that Christ is the image of God and we are the image of Christ. Therefore the image of the image of God (man) is still the image of God. But Christ is the original and first image and we can only assume again that that image existed before the image of the image. A bit like a mirror that reflects a mirror, the original mirror has to exist in order to reflect the second mirror.

So we know that Christ preexisted before creation and now we will look at some more scriptures that show that he was born before creation itself?

Colossians 1:15-16
15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.
16 For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him.

The above verse is quite clear that ALL things were created by or through Jesus.

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So again, there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus/The Word being there. Only the Father and Son were not made. God has always existed and the Son was born from God before the creation of the universe, before anything was made. The next verse describes clearly who/what was the first of God’s works.

Proverbs 8:22-30
22 “The LORD brought me forth as the first of his works, {[22] Or ; or } {[22] Or ; or } before his deeds of old;
23 I was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
24 When there were no oceans, I was given birth, when there were no springs abounding with water;
25 before the mountains were settled in place, before the hills, I was given birth,
26 before he made the earth or its fields or any of the dust of the world.
27 I was there when he set the heavens in place, when he marked out the horizon on the face of the deep,
28 when he established the clouds above and fixed securely the fountains of the deep,
29 when he gave the sea its boundary so the waters would not overstep his command, and when he marked out the foundations of the earth.
30 Then I was the craftsman at his side. I was filled with delight day after day, rejoicing always in his presence,

This verse is talking about Wisdom, whom many believe is Christ. This scriptures compliments other scriptures that that teach that Jesus was given birth by God and then created all THINGS though him.

So from this verse we can see the following points.

Wisdom was brought forth as the first of Gods works.
Wisdom was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
Wisdom was given birth before creation.
Wisdom was the craftsman at his side and rejoiced in his presence before creation.
Some say that Wisdom isn’t Christ, rather this is just wisdom in a conceptual sense and it is true that wisdom is being spoken of in that way. But from verse 22 onward it changes tempo. With terms like I was given birth, I was the craftsman at his side and I was filled with delight, we have to admit that it seems to be talking about a person. Now have a look at the following verses:

1 Corinthians 1:24 (English-NIV)
but to those whom God has called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God.

1 Corinthians 1:30 (English-NIV)
It is because of him that you are in Christ Jesus, who has become for us wisdom from God–that is, our righteousness, holiness and redemption.

Let’s look at some other concepts that Jesus personifies:

Jesus is the Truth. Yet truth is also a concept.
Jesus is the Way. Yet the way is also a concept.
Jesus is the Life. Yet life can also be a concept.
Now look at the following mystery:

1 Corinthians 2:6-9
6 We do, however, speak a message of wisdom among the mature, but not the wisdom of this age or of the rulers of this age, who are coming to nothing.
7 No, we speak of God’s secret wisdom, a wisdom that has been hidden and that God destined for our glory before time began.
8 None of the rulers of this age understood it, for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.
9 However, as it is written:
“No eye has seen,
no ear has heard,
no mind has conceived
what God has prepared for those who love him”

Ephesians 3:8-10
8 Although I am less than the least of all God’s people, this grace was given me: to preach to the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ,
9 and to make plain to everyone the administration of this mystery, which for ages past was kept hidden in God, who created all things.
10 His intent was that now, through the church, the manifold wisdom of God should be made known to the rulers and authorities in the heavenly realms,

Perhaps another scripture alluding to Jesus being the Wisdom of God.

Finally I leave you with the following OT scripture that suggests that God had a Son before the birth Of Jesus Christ on earth.

Proverbs 30:4
Who has gone up to heaven and come down? Who has gathered up the wind in the hollow of his hands? Who has wrapped up the waters in his cloak? Who has established all the ends of the earth? What is his name, and the name of his son? Tell me if you know!


Discussion

Viewing 20 posts - 7,441 through 7,460 (of 19,165 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • #197401
    KangarooJack
    Participant

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 17 2010,04:11)

    Quote (martian @ June 16 2010,12:02)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 17 2010,03:29)

    Quote (martian @ June 16 2010,11:27)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 17 2010,03:23)

    Quote (martian @ June 16 2010,11:21)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 17 2010,03:18)

    Quote (martian @ June 16 2010,11:16)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 17 2010,03:08)

    Quote (martian @ June 16 2010,11:00)

    For those of you that are honest with scripture —-

    Acts 20:28

    “Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers, to shepherd the church of God, which he purchased with his own blood.”

    The Issue: The authenticity of the text and the translation of that text.


    Hi All

    Of course when it disagrees with the Arians then they have to claim corruption in the text!  :D

    Nothing new!

    WJ


    Of course when it disagrees with the cult of trinitarians they choose a questionable text/translation and refuse to look at or give any credence to any evidence that might counter their claim.

    To everyone –

    Notice that WJ did not deal with the actual issue but rather just brushed it aside as having no bearing on his opinions.
    :O
    So much mouth moving and no truth in it.


    Brush it off! :D

    I noticed how you have brushed of that God can live in mortal flesh and speak through man, yet you say he could not have a tent of his own!

    WJ


    No I am not going to play your usual bait and switch. We are dealing with the authenticity of your proof text as you have quoted it. When we are done with that I will deal with other issues.
    I am not going to be side stepped by a debate tactic of yours.


    Side stepped, as you said it cannot be proven either way, but that does not mean that it cannot mean what I have been saying does it?

    So who is side stepping now?

    WJ


    I am not the one trying to use a questionable text as proof of my doctrine.
    Are you now willing to retract that your evidence is without question as your posts would indicate?
    Are you willing to say that Acts 20:28 cannot be used as a proof text that it was God's own blood?


    Now you are contradicting yourself.

    You say it is not Gods own Blood yet you say it is Gods own Son!

    WJ


    Actually I did not say “God's own son” I simply pointed out scholars (including Trinitarian) that believe that to be the correct translation.
    I am more then willing to admit that it cannot be used as proof of anything.

    Again are you willing to admit that your proof text as you quoted it is questionable and cannot be used as proof of your conclusions?


    Martian

    Do you not read what I have said?

    Okay I have admitted that it could go either way, yet you and your source says that I am dishonest because I choose the translation that favours Gods own blood!

    To me it is proof, to you it is not.

    And you are being disengenuous if you say I an being dishonest for believing the text the way I do since it can mean either!

    WJ


    Keith,

    The Critical Text which is based in the OLDEST manuscripts we have to date say, “Feed the church of God, which He has purchased with His own blood.” Until  mnauscripts that are older than the Critical Text are dug up the reading “God” TRUMPS all other readings.

    So I would be hesitant to say that it can go other way. I would say that the “God” reading is tentatively the best reading until older manuscripts are found which read differently. It is very unlikely that older manuscripts will be found.

    The rule is that older manuscripts TRUMP other mmanuscripts because they are closest to the originals.

    Jack

    #197402
    KangarooJack
    Participant

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 17 2010,03:08)

    Quote (martian @ June 16 2010,11:00)

    For those of you that are honest with scripture —-

    Acts 20:28

    “Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers, to shepherd the church of God, which he purchased with his own blood.”

    The Issue: The authenticity of the text and the translation of that text.


    Hi All

    Of course when it disagrees with the Arians then they have to claim corruption in the text!  :D

    Nothing new!

    WJ


    Keith,

    The problem with the claim of corruption is that the oldest manuscripts we have to date read, “Feed the church of God, which He has purchased with His own blood.” How does one prove that the oldest manuscripts we have are corrupt? Answer: Manuscripts that are older than the oldest we have would be needed in order to prove corruption.

    The “God” reading stands until older manuscripts that read otherwise are found. Not too likely to happen.

    Martian ignores that Paul identifies Christ as the church's “Husband” who gave Himself for her (Eph. 5). In the old testament GOD ALONE is the Husband. The Husband (God) gave His own blood for His wife.

    Jack

    #197407

    Quote (Kangaroo Jack @ June 16 2010,12:55)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 17 2010,03:08)

    Quote (martian @ June 16 2010,11:00)

    For those of you that are honest with scripture —-

    Acts 20:28

    “Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers, to shepherd the church of God, which he purchased with his own blood.”

    The Issue: The authenticity of the text and the translation of that text.


    Hi All

    Of course when it disagrees with the Arians then they have to claim corruption in the text!  :D

    Nothing new!

    WJ


    Keith,

    The problem with the claim of corruption is that the oldest manuscripts we have to date read, “Feed the church of God, which He has purchased with His own blood.” How does one prove that the oldest manuscripts we have are corrupt? Answer: Manuscripts that are older than the oldest we have would be needed in order to prove corruption.

    The “God” reading stands until manuscripts that read otherwise are found. Not too likely to happen.

    Martian ignores that Paul identifies Christ as the church's “Husband” who gave Himself for her (Eph. 5). In the old testament GOD ALONE is the Husband. The Husband (God) gave His own blood for His wife.

    Jack


    Jack

    Good point! :)

    Keith

    #197411
    JustAskin
    Participant

    To all again,

    Scriptures has a way of revealing itself through the means of the holy Spirit – if one is privileged to have it come on them.

    Does any one believe that God did not know that man would try to corrupt His word? Man, Even man, puts “Error Correction” into things he creates – can one imagine that God did not do this with His word?

    Everything that is required to understand the Scriptures – Is in the Scriptures…

    As much as some require external definitions and documentary backing from 'a man in the pub who'd had a few and started preaching the law of Truth according Jack Daniels” there will be someone who will dispute what he said or that it was 'Jack Daniels” that he was preaching because he didn't actually use the name 'Jack Daniels' but instead only said 'JD' and it was only supposed that 'JD' meant 'jack Daniels' …but …it could have been 'Judge Dread'!!

    At the end of any such dispute – actually, there is never any – the two protagonists simple argue and drink themselves into a stupor until they get thrown out the pub and as they try to hitch a ride home they come across a man lying under his car and they ask him “Wazza ma'a, mate!” to which the man replies “Piston Broke” to which they respond in their drunken shloss, supposing that the man is just 'out of it': “Schow are weee – you ain godda drink on ya, hav' ya?”

    #197420
    martian
    Participant

    WJ

    You say “According to the scriptures “God alone” is our Savour. Yet Jesus “own blood” saves us.” You use this theory to prove that Jesus must be God – BUT – DOES GOD MEAN YOU MUST BE DEITY TO BE CALLED A SAVOUR?

    The Hebrew word translated as “savior” is the verbal root ישע(Y-Sh-Ah, Strong's #3467) meaning to rescue. The context of this word throughout the Tenack (Old Testament) is to rescue someone from his enemy, a trouble or illness. Another form of this verb is מושיע (moshi'ah). This is the “hiphil participle” form of the verb. A hiphil verb changes the action of the verb into a causative and would literally be translated as “to cause one to be rescued.” A hiphil participle verb changes the action of the verb into active and would literally be translated as “causing one to be rescued” or it can be one who performs the action of the verb which would then be translated as “one causing another to be rescued.” The word מושיע (moshi'ah) literally means “one causing another to be rescued,” or simply, a “rescuer,” but this word is usually translated as “deliverer” or “savior.”

    And when the children of Israel cried unto the LORD, the LORD raised up a deliverer (moshi'ah) to the children of Israel, who delivered (the verb Y-Sh-Ah) them, even Othniel the son of Kenaz, Caleb's younger brother. (KJV, Judges 3:9)

    The NAS makes it more clear –
    9When the sons of Israel cried to the LORD, the LORD raised up a deliverer (moshi”ah) for the sons of Israel to deliver (Y-ShAh) them, Othniel the son of Kenaz, Caleb's younger brother.

    Here is a clear example of God calling a human being (Othniel) a savior.
    Othniel is not deity. Yet you claim that to be a savior you must be deity.
    Here are a few more times the word ישע(Y-Sh-Ah, Strong's #3467) is used to depict men and not God.
    Judges 6:37 (New American Standard Bible)

    37behold, I will put a fleece of wool on the threshing floor. If there is dew on the fleece only, and it is dry on all the ground, then I will know that You will deliver Israel through me, as You have spoken.”

    Judges2:16Then the LORD raised up judges who delivered (3467) them from the hands of those who plundered them.

    Ehud Delivers from Moab
    Judges 3
    15 But when the sons of Israel cried to the LORD, the LORD raised up a deliverer (3467) for them, Ehud the son of Gera, the Benjamite, a left-handed man. And the sons of Israel sent tribute by him to Eglon the king of Moab.

    Judges 3
    31 After him came Shamgar the son of Anath, who struck down six hundred Philistines with an oxgoad ; and he also saved (3467) Israel.

    Judges 8
    22 Then the men of Israel said to Gideon, “Rule over us, both you and your son, also your son's son, for you have delivered (been a savior) (3467) us from the hand of Midian.”

    Judges 13
    5 “For behold, you shall conceive and give birth to a son, and no razor shall come upon his head, for the boy shall be a Nazirite to God from the womb ; and he shall begin to deliver (be a savior to) (3467) Israel from the hands of the Philistines.”

    1 Sam 9
    16 “About this time tomorrow I will send you a man from the land of Benjamin, and you shall anoint him to be prince over My people Israel ; and he will deliver(be a savior) (3467) My people from the hand of the Philistines. For I have regarded My people, because their cry has come to Me.”

    1 Sam 23
    2 So David inquired of the LORD, saying, “Shall I go and attack these Philistines ?” And the LORD said to David, “Go and attack the Philistines and deliver (3467) Keilah.”
    It could easily be translated –
    Go and attack the Philistines and be a savior to Keilah.”

    The Hebrew word Yshah is translated into English many different ways.
    avenged 1, avenging 2, brought salvation 2, deliver 27, delivered 8, deliverer 3, deliverers 1, deliverers who delivered 1, delivers 2, endowed with salvation 1, gained the victory 1, help 9, helped 5, preserve 1, safe 1, save 85, saved 33, saves 5, savior 13, surely will not save 1, victorious 1

    Many times the word refers to a human being doing the “savior” work.

    #197426
    KangarooJack
    Participant

    TO MARTIAN: Please explain the following;

    Martian ignores that Paul identifies Christ as the church's “Husband” who gave Himself for her (Eph. 5). In the old testament GOD ALONE is the Husband. The Husband (God) gave His own blood for His wife.

    Kangaroo Jack

    #197439

    Quote (martian @ June 16 2010,14:29)
    WJ

    You  say “According to the scriptures “God alone” is our Savour. Yet Jesus “own blood” saves us.” You use this theory to prove that Jesus must be God – BUT – DOES GOD MEAN YOU MUST BE DEITY TO BE CALLED A SAVOUR?


    Martian

    Jesus is not just “a savour” by proxy. This is a fallacy of the Arian teaching, because Jesus is clearly “The Savour”.

    while we wait for the blessed hope–the glorious appearing of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ, who gave himself for us to redeem us from all wickedness and “to purify for himself a people that are his very own, eager to do what is good. Tit 2:13, 14

    Again, the important thing to see in these verses is that Paul calls Jesus the “Savour” then says that “Jesus purifies FOR HIMSELF a people that are his very own”.

    According to the scriptures “God alone” is our Savour. Yet Jesus “own blood” saves us.

    No other savor’s including Moses gave of their own blood to save a “people for themselves”.

    According to Gods own Law a man could not pay the price of sin with his own life let alone the life of another man, for all were tainted by sin.

    Certainly a man cannot rescue his brother; “he cannot pay God an adequate ransom price” (the ransom price for a human life is too high, and people go to their final destiny), so that he might continue to live forever and not experience death. Pss 49:7-9

    Yet Jesus not only gave his “Own blood” to redeem us to himself, but also gives us eternal life!

    No other prophet, priest, king etc, could ever claim YHWH's people as his own or give his life to redeem another. Jesus is our only “Lord (owner) and master. Jude 1:4, 5

    YHWH specifically says…

    I, even I, am the LORD; and “BESIDE ME THERE IS NO SAVIOUR. Isa 43:11

    Tell ye, and bring them near; yea, let them take counsel together: who hath declared this from ancient time? who hath told it from that time? have not I the LORD? and there is no God else beside me; “A JUST GOD AND A SAVIOUR; HERE IS NONE BESIDE ME”. Isa 45:21

    Yet I am the LORD thy God from the land of Egypt, and thou “SHALT KNOW NO GOD BUT ME: FOR THERE IS NO SAVIOUR BESIDE ME”. Hosea 13:4

    And as Jack has pointed out, God was Israels “Husband” and in the NT Jesus is the husband of the people of God which is his own!

    WJ

    #197441
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi WJ,
    Did you think there was another possible SAVIOUR for you?
    There is no other name UNDER HEAVEN by which WE can be saved

    You are a slow learner

    #197442
    KangarooJack
    Participant

    Worshippingjesus said to martian:

    Quote
    Certainly a man cannot rescue his brother; “he cannot pay God an adequate ransom price” (the ransom price for a human life is too high, and people go to their final destiny), so that he might continue to live forever and not experience death. Pss 49:7-9


    Bingo! A man cannot rescue his brother. Therefore, Jesus was more than just a mere man. He was indeed God in the flesh.

    Excellent point WJ!

    Jack

    #197443
    KangarooJack
    Participant

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ June 17 2010,07:35)
    Hi WJ,
    Did you think there was another possible SAVIOUR for you?
    There is no other name UNDER HEAVEN by which WE can be saved

    You are a slow learner


    Gobbledygook!

    KJ

    #197461
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi KJ,
    Intellectuals do have problems grasping simple spiritual truth.
    Ask your kids

    #197470
    martian
    Participant

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 17 2010,07:32)

    Quote (martian @ June 16 2010,14:29)
    WJ

    You  say “According to the scriptures “God alone” is our Savour. Yet Jesus “own blood” saves us.” You use this theory to prove that Jesus must be God – BUT – DOES GOD MEAN YOU MUST BE DEITY TO BE CALLED A SAVOUR?


    Martian

    Jesus is not just “a savour” by proxy. This is a fallacy of the Arian teaching, because Jesus is clearly “The Savour”.

    while we wait for the blessed hope–the glorious appearing of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ, who gave himself for us to redeem us from all wickedness and “to purify for himself a people that are his very own, eager to do what is good. Tit 2:13, 14

    Again, the important thing to see in these verses is that Paul calls Jesus the “Savour” then says that “Jesus purifies FOR HIMSELF a people that are his very own”.

    According to the scriptures “God alone” is our Savour. Yet Jesus “own blood” saves us.

    No other savor’s including Moses gave of their own blood to save a “people for themselves”.

    According to Gods own Law a man could not pay the price of sin with his own life let alone the life of another man, for all were tainted by sin.

    Certainly a man cannot rescue his brother; “he cannot pay God an adequate ransom price” (the ransom price for a human life is too high, and people go to their final destiny), so that he might continue to live forever and not experience death. Pss 49:7-9

    Yet Jesus not only gave his “Own blood” to redeem us to himself, but also gives us eternal life!

    No other prophet, priest, king etc, could ever claim YHWH's people as his own or give his life to redeem another. Jesus is our only “Lord (owner) and master. Jude 1:4, 5

    YHWH specifically says…

    I, even I, am the LORD; and “BESIDE ME THERE IS NO SAVIOUR. Isa 43:11

    Tell ye, and bring them near; yea, let them take counsel together: who hath declared this from ancient time? who hath told it from that time? have not I the LORD? and there is no God else beside me; “A JUST GOD AND A SAVIOUR; HERE IS NONE BESIDE ME”. Isa 45:21

    Yet I am the LORD thy God from the land of Egypt, and thou “SHALT KNOW NO GOD BUT ME: FOR THERE IS NO SAVIOUR BESIDE ME”. Hosea 13:4

    And as Jack has pointed out, God was Israels “Husband” and in the NT Jesus is the husband of the people of God which is his own!

    WJ


    To the uninitiated you might make some sense however the end conclusion still begs the question — If Christ is not human how are we to become like him or how about how can an immortal God become mortal and die. These truths that God is immortal and that Christ is our example are basic tennants of the Christian faith. If you want to believe otherwise, fine but do not call yourself Christian.

    #197472
    martian
    Participant

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 17 2010,07:32)

    Quote (martian @ June 16 2010,14:29)
    WJ

    You  say “According to the scriptures “God alone” is our Savour. Yet Jesus “own blood” saves us.” You use this theory to prove that Jesus must be God – BUT – DOES GOD MEAN YOU MUST BE DEITY TO BE CALLED A SAVOUR?


    Martian

    Jesus is not just “a savour” by proxy. This is a fallacy of the Arian teaching, because Jesus is clearly “The Savour”.

    while we wait for the blessed hope–the glorious appearing of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ, who gave himself for us to redeem us from all wickedness and “to purify for himself a people that are his very own, eager to do what is good. Tit 2:13, 14

    Again, the important thing to see in these verses is that Paul calls Jesus the “Savour” then says that “Jesus purifies FOR HIMSELF a people that are his very own”.

    According to the scriptures “God alone” is our Savour. Yet Jesus “own blood” saves us.

    No other savor’s including Moses gave of their own blood to save a “people for themselves”.

    According to Gods own Law a man could not pay the price of sin with his own life let alone the life of another man, for all were tainted by sin.

    Certainly a man cannot rescue his brother; “he cannot pay God an adequate ransom price” (the ransom price for a human life is too high, and people go to their final destiny), so that he might continue to live forever and not experience death. Pss 49:7-9

    Yet Jesus not only gave his “Own blood” to redeem us to himself, but also gives us eternal life!

    No other prophet, priest, king etc, could ever claim YHWH's people as his own or give his life to redeem another. Jesus is our only “Lord (owner) and master. Jude 1:4, 5

    YHWH specifically says…

    I, even I, am the LORD; and “BESIDE ME THERE IS NO SAVIOUR. Isa 43:11

    Tell ye, and bring them near; yea, let them take counsel together: who hath declared this from ancient time? who hath told it from that time? have not I the LORD? and there is no God else beside me; “A JUST GOD AND A SAVIOUR; HERE IS NONE BESIDE ME”. Isa 45:21

    Yet I am the LORD thy God from the land of Egypt, and thou “SHALT KNOW NO GOD BUT ME: FOR THERE IS NO SAVIOUR BESIDE ME”. Hosea 13:4

    And as Jack has pointed out, God was Israels “Husband” and in the NT Jesus is the husband of the people of God which is his own!

    WJ


    As David was the savior in his situation. Certainly Christ was the ultimate of savior, but that does not deminish the fact that he can be human and fulfill that mission.
    Luke 23/46 …. Crying out with a loud voice, Jesus said, Father into your hands I commit my spirit. With these words he gave up his spirit……. Note it says his spirit and not Ruach HaKodesh ( Hebrew, The Holy Spirit). The literal Greek calls it…. the spirit of me…. This is not the Spirit of Yahweh but his human spirit. Did Jesus have a will of his own? John 5/30 … I (Jesus) do not seek my own will but the will of him who sent me…. This verse indicates that Jesus had a choice to seek His own will or that of the Father’s. Matthew 26/39 ….. Yet not as I will, but as Thou wilt. Again Jesus had his own will but refused to let it overshadow what God wanted and willed. Did Jesus have a soul? Matthew 26/38… My (Jesus) soul is deeply grieved, to the point of death….
    So now we have proven that Jesus was made up of a human body, soul, spirit and will. Since it is clear that Jesus is made up of these parts, we have to ask ourselves, what part is God? This sounds like a complete human being to me!

    #197474
    JustAskin
    Participant

    Martian,

    God Almighty is the ultimate saviour.

    However, to glorify himself is not his way, as such. So, He has invested the power and authority and the duty to His Son, Jesus Christ, so through him, He will be glorified even more.

    #197620
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    Martian……….You said it right GOD Almighty is the (ONLY) TRUE SAVIOR and there is NO OTHER SAVIOR, even those He uses to save are empowered by Him to do what they are doing in their part of that saving work of the (ONLY) Savior. When Moses broke faith with GOD by ascribing some saving work ot the waters of Meribiah to himself, God forbid him from going into the promise land, he could see it only , because He allowed Glory of GOD to be transfered to Him. Jesus never ceased to gave GOD the FATHER (ALL) the Glory, saying the son of man can do (NOTHING) of himself, and again “I Have glorified YOU upon the earth> No matter who GOD uses to save it Still is GOD Alone who is doing the saving work. Trinitarian twist scripture and turn Jesus a MAN as a GOD that was saving the people (himself). They are Idolaters. IMO

    peace and love to you and yours……………….gene

    #197634

    Quote (martian @ June 16 2010,18:16)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 17 2010,07:32)

    Quote (martian @ June 16 2010,14:29)
    WJ

    You  say “According to the scriptures “God alone” is our Savour. Yet Jesus “own blood” saves us.” You use this theory to prove that Jesus must be God – BUT – DOES GOD MEAN YOU MUST BE DEITY TO BE CALLED A SAVOUR?


    Martian

    Jesus is not just “a savour” by proxy. This is a fallacy of the Arian teaching, because Jesus is clearly “The Savour”.

    while we wait for the blessed hope–the glorious appearing of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ, who gave himself for us to redeem us from all wickedness and “to purify for himself a people that are his very own, eager to do what is good. Tit 2:13, 14

    Again, the important thing to see in these verses is that Paul calls Jesus the “Savour” then says that “Jesus purifies FOR HIMSELF a people that are his very own”.

    According to the scriptures “God alone” is our Savour. Yet Jesus “own blood” saves us.

    No other savor’s including Moses gave of their own blood to save a “people for themselves”.

    According to Gods own Law a man could not pay the price of sin with his own life let alone the life of another man, for all were tainted by sin.

    Certainly a man cannot rescue his brother; “he cannot pay God an adequate ransom price” (the ransom price for a human life is too high, and people go to their final destiny), so that he might continue to live forever and not experience death. Pss 49:7-9

    Yet Jesus not only gave his “Own blood” to redeem us to himself, but also gives us eternal life!

    No other prophet, priest, king etc, could ever claim YHWH's people as his own or give his life to redeem another. Jesus is our only “Lord (owner) and master. Jude 1:4, 5

    YHWH specifically says…

    I, even I, am the LORD; and “BESIDE ME THERE IS NO SAVIOUR. Isa 43:11

    Tell ye, and bring them near; yea, let them take counsel together: who hath declared this from ancient time? who hath told it from that time? have not I the LORD? and there is no God else beside me; “A JUST GOD AND A SAVIOUR; HERE IS NONE BESIDE ME”. Isa 45:21

    Yet I am the LORD thy God from the land of Egypt, and thou “SHALT KNOW NO GOD BUT ME: FOR THERE IS NO SAVIOUR BESIDE ME”. Hosea 13:4

    And as Jack has pointed out, God was Israels “Husband” and in the NT Jesus is the husband of the people of God which is his own!

    WJ


    To the uninitiated you might make some sense however the end conclusion still begs the question — If Christ is not human how are we to become like him or how about how can an immortal God become mortal and die. These truths that God is immortal and that Christ is our example are basic tennants of the Christian faith. If you want to believe otherwise, fine but do not call yourself Christian.


    No it is you who is not a Christian.

    For you believe that Jesus is a mere man and didn't have an advantage over us, but we know he did because he had the Holy Spirit without measure!

    Jesus is not our Savour by proxy, he is our Only Savour and with his own blood he redeemed us for himself!

    He is our “Only Lord and Master”, is he yours?

    WJ

    #197636
    KangarooJack
    Participant

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 18 2010,03:06)

    Quote (martian @ June 16 2010,18:16)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 17 2010,07:32)

    Quote (martian @ June 16 2010,14:29)
    WJ

    You  say “According to the scriptures “God alone” is our Savour. Yet Jesus “own blood” saves us.” You use this theory to prove that Jesus must be God – BUT – DOES GOD MEAN YOU MUST BE DEITY TO BE CALLED A SAVOUR?


    Martian

    Jesus is not just “a savour” by proxy. This is a fallacy of the Arian teaching, because Jesus is clearly “The Savour”.

    while we wait for the blessed hope–the glorious appearing of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ, who gave himself for us to redeem us from all wickedness and “to purify for himself a people that are his very own, eager to do what is good. Tit 2:13, 14

    Again, the important thing to see in these verses is that Paul calls Jesus the “Savour” then says that “Jesus purifies FOR HIMSELF a people that are his very own”.

    According to the scriptures “God alone” is our Savour. Yet Jesus “own blood” saves us.

    No other savor’s including Moses gave of their own blood to save a “people for themselves”.

    According to Gods own Law a man could not pay the price of sin with his own life let alone the life of another man, for all were tainted by sin.

    Certainly a man cannot rescue his brother; “he cannot pay God an adequate ransom price” (the ransom price for a human life is too high, and people go to their final destiny), so that he might continue to live forever and not experience death. Pss 49:7-9

    Yet Jesus not only gave his “Own blood” to redeem us to himself, but also gives us eternal life!

    No other prophet, priest, king etc, could ever claim YHWH's people as his own or give his life to redeem another. Jesus is our only “Lord (owner) and master. Jude 1:4, 5

    YHWH specifically says…

    I, even I, am the LORD; and “BESIDE ME THERE IS NO SAVIOUR. Isa 43:11

    Tell ye, and bring them near; yea, let them take counsel together: who hath declared this from ancient time? who hath told it from that time? have not I the LORD? and there is no God else beside me; “A JUST GOD AND A SAVIOUR; HERE IS NONE BESIDE ME”. Isa 45:21

    Yet I am the LORD thy God from the land of Egypt, and thou “SHALT KNOW NO GOD BUT ME: FOR THERE IS NO SAVIOUR BESIDE ME”. Hosea 13:4

    And as Jack has pointed out, God was Israels “Husband” and in the NT Jesus is the husband of the people of God which is his own!

    WJ


    To the uninitiated you might make some sense however the end conclusion still begs the question — If Christ is not human how are we to become like him or how about how can an immortal God become mortal and die. These truths that God is immortal and that Christ is our example are basic tennants of the Christian faith. If you want to believe otherwise, fine but do not call yourself Christian.


    No it is you who is not a Christian.

    For you believe that Jesus didn't have an advantage over us, but we know he did because he had the Holy Spirit without measure!

    He is our “Only Lord and Master”, is he yours?

    WJ


    Jesus was appointed by the “oath” unlike his predecessor priests who were appointed by the law because they had weakness. If Christ had weakness then he could have sinned and the oath could have failed and God can change. When God says, “I change not” He is speaking about the word He has spoken.

    This is quite a “catch 22” for Martian. He believes that God cannot change. But on the other hand He says that Christ had weakness which would mean that the oath could have failed. But if the oath could have failed, then God can change which Martian says God cannot do.

    the Roo

    #197641
    martian
    Participant

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 18 2010,03:06)

    Quote (martian @ June 16 2010,18:16)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 17 2010,07:32)

    Quote (martian @ June 16 2010,14:29)
    WJ

    You  say “According to the scriptures “God alone” is our Savour. Yet Jesus “own blood” saves us.” You use this theory to prove that Jesus must be God – BUT – DOES GOD MEAN YOU MUST BE DEITY TO BE CALLED A SAVOUR?


    Martian

    Jesus is not just “a savour” by proxy. This is a fallacy of the Arian teaching, because Jesus is clearly “The Savour”.

    while we wait for the blessed hope–the glorious appearing of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ, who gave himself for us to redeem us from all wickedness and “to purify for himself a people that are his very own, eager to do what is good. Tit 2:13, 14

    Again, the important thing to see in these verses is that Paul calls Jesus the “Savour” then says that “Jesus purifies FOR HIMSELF a people that are his very own”.

    According to the scriptures “God alone” is our Savour. Yet Jesus “own blood” saves us.

    No other savor’s including Moses gave of their own blood to save a “people for themselves”.

    According to Gods own Law a man could not pay the price of sin with his own life let alone the life of another man, for all were tainted by sin.

    Certainly a man cannot rescue his brother; “he cannot pay God an adequate ransom price” (the ransom price for a human life is too high, and people go to their final destiny), so that he might continue to live forever and not experience death. Pss 49:7-9

    Yet Jesus not only gave his “Own blood” to redeem us to himself, but also gives us eternal life!

    No other prophet, priest, king etc, could ever claim YHWH's people as his own or give his life to redeem another. Jesus is our only “Lord (owner) and master. Jude 1:4, 5

    YHWH specifically says…

    I, even I, am the LORD; and “BESIDE ME THERE IS NO SAVIOUR. Isa 43:11

    Tell ye, and bring them near; yea, let them take counsel together: who hath declared this from ancient time? who hath told it from that time? have not I the LORD? and there is no God else beside me; “A JUST GOD AND A SAVIOUR; HERE IS NONE BESIDE ME”. Isa 45:21

    Yet I am the LORD thy God from the land of Egypt, and thou “SHALT KNOW NO GOD BUT ME: FOR THERE IS NO SAVIOUR BESIDE ME”. Hosea 13:4

    And as Jack has pointed out, God was Israels “Husband” and in the NT Jesus is the husband of the people of God which is his own!

    WJ


    To the uninitiated you might make some sense however the end conclusion still begs the question — If Christ is not human how are we to become like him or how about how can an immortal God become mortal and die. These truths that God is immortal and that Christ is our example are basic tennants of the Christian faith. If you want to believe otherwise, fine but do not call yourself Christian.


    No it is you who is not a Christian.

    For you believe that Jesus is a mere man and didn't have an advantage over us, but we know he did because he had the Holy Spirit without measure!

    Jesus is not our Savour by proxy, he is our Only Savour and with his own blood he redeemed us for himself!

    He is our “Only Lord and Master”, is he yours?

    WJ


    Actually he is my Lord and Master. I use these terms in their intended way. Both are human titles. He is my human Lord and Savior. You do not accept him as your human Lord and master so you have none.

    #197644
    KangarooJack
    Participant

    Martian said to WJ:

    Quote
    He is my human Lord and Savior.


    First, Martian is not paying attention to the scriptures WJ has given. Martian says that Jesus is his “human” Savior. Martian says this contrary to the scripture WJ gave which says that a man cannot save his brother,

    Certainly a man cannot rescue his brother; “he cannot pay God an adequate ransom price” (the ransom price for a human life is too high, and people go to their final destiny), so that he might continue to live forever and not experience death. Pss 49:7-9

    Therefore, Jesus was not a mere man as WJ has correctly said. He is our God!

    Second, Martian has implied that he has TWO saviors. The one is human and the other is God. But God said, “Besides Me there is no Savior” (Is. 43:11).

    the Roo

    #197651

    Quote (Kangaroo Jack @ June 17 2010,12:13)
    Martian said to WJ:

    Quote
    He is my human Lord and Savior.


    First, Martian is not paying attention to the scriptures WJ has given. Martian says that Jesus is his “human” Savior. Martian says this contrary to the scripture WJ gave which says that a man cannot save his brother,

    Certainly a man cannot rescue his brother; “he cannot pay God an adequate ransom price” (the ransom price for a human life is too high, and people go to their final destiny), so that he might continue to live forever and not experience death. Pss 49:7-9

    Therefore, Jesus was not a mere man as WJ has correctly said. He is our God!

    Second, Martian has implied that he has TWO saviors. The one is human and the other is God. But God said, “Besides Me there is no Savior” (Is. 43:11).

    the Roo


    Jack

    Beat me to the punch!

    Thanks, and very true.

    Jesus said…

    I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for “if ye believe not that I am he“, ye shall die in your sins. John 8:24

    WJ

Viewing 20 posts - 7,441 through 7,460 (of 19,165 total)
  • You must be logged in to reply to this topic.

© 1999 - 2026 Heaven Net

Log in with your credentials

or    

Forgot your details?

Create Account