- This topic has 2,141 replies, 60 voices, and was last updated 1 year, 7 months ago by
.
- Posts
Hi David,
The word Godhead in Colossians 1:9 means deity in the Greek. Deity has these following meanings:
1. a god or goddess.
2. divine character or nature, esp. that of the Supreme Being; divinity.
3. the estate or rank of a god: The king attained deity after his death.
4. a person or thing revered as a god or goddess: a society in which money is the only deity.
5. the Deity, God; Supreme Being.We are to worship the Father through that redemptive name. It does mean Yahweh is Salvation
Hi Silva, yes through the name only that is Jesus the name above all names not that the person Jesus is God.
AdamHi Adam,
So you believe that the name of the Father is Jesus(Yahweh is salvation)? If not, how do you worship the Father if that is not his name?
Hi Silva, yes I agree see my post above that's why I told the importance of the name 'Jesus' the name above all names nothing but Father's name given to Jesus.
Hi Gollamudi,
Oneness is monothism. I'm asking you because I'm trying to figure out what the difference is?
May be I don't follow that. I only follow the monotheism of Bible believing that Father is only the True God and Jesus as His Christ (the Messiah) who was sent by that One God
What do you mean Silva? God gave His name to angels don't you read that in O.T. Now He gave His name to Jesus His beloved son and in future He also gives His name to you and me. See Rev 3:12, it doesn't make us Father. You are in complete confusion about understanding God and Jesus.You better stop this arguement here which will not benefit you and me.
Take care
Adamgsilva72……when did gollmaudi ever say the name of the Father is Jesus. You are inferring He thinks Jesus is the Father, I never heard him say that.
We shouldn't put words in other peoples mouth. A i have seen being done a lot here lately.IMO……gene
Quote (gollamudi @ June 08 2008,15:11) May be I don't follow that. I only follow the monotheism of Bible believing that Father is only the True God and Jesus as His Christ (the Messiah) who was sent by that One God
Hi GM,
Wherre was he sent from?
Where was he sent to?
Where is this sending shown in scripture?Here Nick, in Jn 17:3. I don't believe that he has sent from heaven as being but he was sent in the same way as John the Baptist was sent (Jn 1:6) from God.
Hi GM,
The same John had this to say about the man from heaven,
Jn3
31He that cometh from above is above all: he that is of the earth is earthly, and speaketh of the earth: he that cometh from heaven is above all.32And what he hath seen and heard, that he testifieth; and no man receiveth his testimony.
33He that hath received his testimony hath set to his seal that God is true.
34For he whom God hath sent speaketh the words of God: for God giveth not the Spirit by measure unto him.
35The Father loveth the Son, and hath given all things into his hand.
36He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him.
You should listen to him.
Quote (Nick Hassan @ June 08 2008,10:45) Hi GM,
HEAVEN is not a synonym for GOD.
Nick,
“heaven” is sometimes used as a synonym for GOD.You have been shown this before, but you refuse to accept it!
Matthew 21:25 – (Jesus says to the Jewish authorities) “the baptism of John…was it from heaven or from men?”
Matthew 23:22 – “he who swears by heaven, swears by the throne of God and by Him who sits on it.”
John 3:27 – (John the Baptist says of Jesus) “A man can receive nothing, unless it has been given to him from heaven.“
Quote (from @ the Net) “Heaven” is a synonym for “God” when Jesus asks,“Did the baptism of John come from heaven, or was it of human origin?” (Matthew 21:25; Mark 11:30-31; Luke 20:4-5), and also when John the Baptist says, “No one can receive anything except what has been given from heaven” (John 3:27). Because of his tendency to avoid the use of God’s name, the author of Matthew uses “kingdom of heaven” thirty-two times and “kingdom of God” only four times. A comparison of all the occurrences of “kingdom of heaven” and “kingdom of God” in the Gospels shows their equivalence. Quote (Jewish Encyclopedia @ Article “Heaven” By : Kaufmann Kohler) Inasmuch as “heaven” stands for the seat of God, whither prayer is directed, and where the destinies of men are decided, it came to be used as an equivalent for “God” (… the rabbinical “min ha-shamayim” = “from heaven it is decreed,” 'Ab. Zarah 18a; Hul. 7b; Gen. R. lxxix. 6; “bi-yede shamayim” = “by the hands of heaven,” Ber. 33b; and “ha-shamayim beni le-benak” = “destiny stands between me and thee,” Ned. xi. 12; I Macc. iii. 18 et seq.; iv. 10, 24, 40; xii. 15; II Macc. iii. 15, ix. 20; III Macc. vi. 17, 33; Assumptio Mosis, iii. 8; Matt. xxi. 25). In rabbinical terminology, especially, “shamayim,” without the article, became the regular expression for the name of God, which was, from motives of reverence, avoided as far as possible; hence the words “mora” or “yir'at shamayim” = “fear of heaven” (Abot i. 3; Ber. 6b); “shem shamayim” = “the name of heaven” (Abot i. 12, ii. 2, iv. 11, and elsewhere); and “malkut shamayim” = “kingdom of heaven.” This last expression is used in the sense of “sovereignty of God,” as in the phrase “mekabbel 'ol malkut shamayim” = “to accept the yoke of God's kingdom”—that is, by a solemn profession to acknowledge Israel's God as the only King and Ruler (Ber. ii. 1). With reference to the Messianic age, it applies to the time when God will be the sole King on earth, in opposition to the kings of worldly powers (Pesik. 51a; Cant. R. ii. 12); whence Matthew's “kingdom of heaven” (Matt. iii. 2, and elsewhere), where the other gospels have “kingdom of God.”
- You must be logged in to reply to this topic.
