Proclaimer on the Hot-Seat …exposing his

[Ed J]

Quote (t8 @ April 21 2014,10:32)

So what is the conclusion from what you are saying. 1) Jesus did not say Judas is A devil. Agree to that.

I HAVE ALREADY ANSWERED THAT.

[Ed J]

Quote (t8 @ April 21 2014,10:32)

Ed J, I have told you before that I am not tiling anyone for disagreeing with me. That is simply not the case. 2) The AKJV is not a perfect translation. Agree to that, and I will remove the tile.

It simply is the case, because YOU refuse to remove the tile unless I agree with your doctrine.

So please stop the lies, OK?

[Ed J]

Quote (t8 @ Aug. 29 2013,12:18)

I am not the cruel judge you make me out to be.

       You have done it to yourself!

You can also undo it by honoring your promise and remove the tile.

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ April 21 2014,11:06)

Quote (terraricca @ April 20 2014,16:54) 1.  MY interpretation is the correct one. 2.  THE AKJV's interpretation is the correct one. show me where you answer any of those two question if you have done this it would be easy See Ed?  Pierre knows the choice you must make, and the answer you must give.

I have already answered #1 perhaps you too seem to have missed it.

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ April 21 2014,10:47)

See?  The damage is already done, Ed.  Might as well come clean and have the tile removed, right?

Hi Mike,

This thread is all about coming clean.

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ April 21 2014,11:09)

Quote (t8 @ Jan. 26 2014,19:37) Edited James Version (EDJV interpretation): Jesus was NOT calling Judas 'the devil' nor was Jesus even calling Judas 'a devil' Authorised King James Version (AKJV): Jesus answered them, Have not I chosen you twelve, and one of you is a devil? Obviously both your interpretation and the AKJV cannot be correct. My question: Which is correct? 1) Your interpretation of John 6:70; 2) The AKJV translation of this verse. 1 or 2. Not a hard question. See Ed? t8 knows the choice you must make, and the answer you must give.

I answered this, are you going to lie for your boss now as well?

[mikeboll64]

Ed,

You are PURPOSELY quoting t8's comments and questions out of context to paint a very DIFFERENT story than the one that actually occurred.

Do it again, and you'll have two tiles to cry about.

[mikeboll64]

Quote (Ed J @ April 20 2014,18:37)

Quote (mikeboll64 @ April 21 2014,11:09) Quote (t8 @ Jan. 26 2014,19:37) Edited James Version (EDJV interpretation): Jesus was NOT calling Judas 'the devil' nor was Jesus even calling Judas 'a devil' Authorised King James Version (AKJV): Jesus answered them, Have not I chosen you twelve, and one of you is a devil? Obviously both your interpretation and the AKJV cannot be correct. My question: Which is correct? 1) Your interpretation of John 6:70; 2) The AKJV translation of this verse. 1 or 2. Not a hard question. See Ed? t8 knows the choice you must make, and the answer you must give. I answered this, are you going to lie for your boss now as well?

Apparently, neither me nor journey nor Pierre nor t8 have actually SEEN that answer. So if you did indeed answer it in a DIRECT and HONEST and COMPLETE manner, just re-post it for us so we can see it, and move on from this discussion.

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ April 21 2014,11:39)

Apparently, neither me nor journey nor Pierre nor t8 have actually SEEN that answer.  So if you did indeed answer it in a DIRECT and HONEST and COMPLETE manner, just re-post it for us so we can see it, and move on from this discussion.

Regarding #1.
A. Neither the Greek, nor the Hebrew has “indefinite articles”
    So Jesus could not have said ‘one of you is A devil’
B. And likewise none of the 12 Greek definite articles were used,
    So Jesus equally could not have said ‘one of you is THE devil’
C. Therefore:  “Jesus was NOT calling Judas 'the devil' nor was Jesus even calling Judas 'a devil'”
    is a true statement, even though you may yet consider it wrong.

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ April 21 2014,11:37)

Ed, You are PURPOSELY quoting t8's comments and questions out of context to paint a very DIFFERENT story than the one that actually occurred. Do it again, and you'll have two tiles to cry about.

Please explain what you mean?
Does the context change the words?

If so then please show how not including his whole post changes the words I highlighted?

Looking forward to this.

[Ed J]

Quote (t8 @ April 21 2014,10:32)

Further, I can see that you have made some steps forward. i.e., that you say that: 1) Jesus did not call Judas A devil (tick) 2) That the AKJV translators were neglectful in not italicizing the 'A'. Let's dig deeper

Hi T8,

“Let's dig deeper”  Love to!  Be a man of your word and remove the tile and we'll talk about whatever you want.
If you instead keep waving the 'tile-punishment-stick' over my head, you prove instead that you are bigoted bully.

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[Ed J]

Hi Everyone,

There are endless threads where you people try to prove the other guy wrong.
WHY NOT INSTEAD provide us with the evidence that suggests that you are right?
It's what I do, and will continue to do! You guys might want to give persuasion a try.

Your brother
in Christ,
Ed J

[Ed J]

Mike,

My goal is always to accurately represent what others say
and also to hope that they will accurately represent what I say.
Quoting a post in its entirety is not necessary as T8 has often said.

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[Ed J]

Hi Mike,

This is not about me explaining a discrepancy
between my words and what the AKJV Bible says in John 6:70, though T8 has presented it this way.

It is instead about T8 trying to use John 6:70 to accreditate his belief of Jesus being 'a god'.
And since I have shot his evidence out of the water, he has turned on his source – the “AKJV Bible”.

Please try not to forget      THAT IS WHAT THIS THREAD EXPOSES!

I hope I have made myself clear now,
Ed J

[Ed J]

Hi Mike,

To say that T8 has not promised to remove the tile once I explained
his perceived discrepancy is to argue against the core of our dispute.

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[Ed J]

Quote (Ed J @ April 21 2014,14:58)

Hi Mike, This is not about me explaining a discrepancy between my words and what the AKJV Bible says in John 6:70, though T8 has presented it this way. It is instead about T8 trying to use John 6:70 to accreditate his belief of Jesus being 'a god'. And since I have shot his evidence out of the water, he has turned on his source – the “AKJV Bible”. Please try not to forget      THAT IS WHAT THIS THREAD EXPOSES! I hope I have made myself clear now, Ed J

Here is my evidence    (for Mike:  it is the first paragraph in a long post)

Quote (t8 @ April 21 2014,10:32)

Ed J, (1)I have told you before that I am not tiling anyone for disagreeing with me. That is simply not the case. (2)Worse for your statement here is that I actually agree that Jesus did not call Judas A devil. (3)So why would I tile you for agreeing with me? I am not.

1) That is correct:  T8 agrees with me on my point, the one labeled “CHOICE #1” – where I'm correct.
2) Worse for him, because it exposes his hidden agenda against the “AKJV Bible” rather than me.
3) You have instead tiled me for disagreeing with a different premise of yours, not that one.

The premise you tiled me for: is the one where you try to use me to discredit – YOUR SOURCE – the “AKJV Bible”.
After I shot down you using it as evidence for a different premise of yours (Jesus is a god in the quantitative state)
you have tiled me. You tiled me for not cooperating with you in your scheme to assault the “AKJV Bible” (YOUR SOURCE).   

Why don't you come clean and admit it.

Your brother
in Christ,
Ed J

[terraricca]

edj

you still did not answer the questions ,it is not t8 or Mike that is in question but your interpretation and what is written in the akjv ;the rest of the story is your variant to change things around ;as I see it

[journey42]

Quote (Ed J @ April 20 2014,15:34)

Hi Journey42, I prefer to stick to the facts OK?  The Greek language has NO indefinite articles – so there is no wrong in what I said. Since the AKJV Bible is noted for italicizing words that were not in the original text, the indefinite article “a“ should have been italicized inj John 6:70. These are the facts, accept them or reject them it is your choice. Ed J

Ed,

I had a quick scan through my bible.
Not every indefinate article is in italics.

I had a quick look and I don’t see them all in Italics.

By putting in an “A” or a “the” without italics does not change the intended meaning. They don’t need to show they added that word because it has to be there to be read in English.
Their method looks consistent to me so far.

So…the indefinate article in John 6:70 does not have to be in italics.

[Proclaimer]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ April 21 2014,12:09)

Quote (t8 @ Jan. 26 2014,19:37) Edited James Version (EDJV interpretation): Jesus was NOT calling Judas 'the devil' nor was Jesus even calling Judas 'a devil' Authorised King James Version (AKJV): Jesus answered them, Have not I chosen you twelve, and one of you is a devil? Obviously both your interpretation and the AKJV cannot be correct. My question: Which is correct? 1) Your interpretation of John 6:70; 2) The AKJV translation of this verse. 1 or 2. Not a hard question. See Ed? t8 knows the choice you must make, and the answer you must give.

Thanks Mike. Ed J is trying to tire me with this and hope that I forget the real question asked.

I will copy and paste it here below for Ed J once again. Yet I know he will entertain us further with more dishonest statements to the tune that he has answered the question. But Ed J, there is a contradiction that you need to address. Both your views contradict. Fix it.

QUOTE:
==============
Edited James Version (EDJV interpretation):
Jesus was NOT calling Judas 'the devil' nor was Jesus even calling Judas 'a devil'

Authorised King James Version (AKJV):
Jesus answered them, Have not I chosen you twelve, and one of you is a devil?

Obviously both your interpretation and the AKJV cannot be correct.
My question: Which is correct?

1) Your interpretation of John 6:70;
2) The AKJV translation of this verse.

1 or 2.

Not a hard question.
==============

[Ed J]

1

now please remove the tile

[Author]

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