No one could answer him

[mikeboll64]

Quote (Colter @ Aug. 23 2013,04:36)

The problem rests in your definition of God………..

That indeed is the crux of the problem, Colter.

The Webster's definition I like the best – the one that most accurately describes “elohim” and “theos” in the Bible, is: Any of various beings conceived of as supernatural, immortal, and having special powers over the lives and affairs of people and the course of nature.

Not only is this definition scripturally accurate, it clearly explains the signs and wonders the gods of Egypt were able to match. It explains the god Satan's ability to control Sabeans, Chaldeans, mighty winds, and fire from heaven in Job 1. And his ability to produce sores all over Job's body in Job 2. It explain how wrath was brought upon the Israelites after the king of Moab sacrificed his son to his own god Chemosh in 2 Kings 3:27.

Now I have been asking and asking on this site, but no one ever wants to answer. I'll ask again:

If the definition I quoted above is NOT scripturally accurate, then please give us YOUR OWN definition of the word “god” – according to its SCRIPTURAL usage.

[mikeboll64]

Quote (942767 @ Aug. 23 2013,19:13)

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 23 2013,14:40) For even if there are those called gods, whether in heaven or on earth (as indeed there are many gods and many lords)……… Paul was a polytheist. Hi Mike: Why do you just post the part of the scripture, you know that Paul was not a Polythiest, this is what he said: Quote 1Cr 8:5   For though there be that are called gods, whether in heaven or in earth, (as there be gods many, and lords many,)   1Cr 8:6   But to us [there is but] one God, the Father, of whom [are] all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom [are] all things, and we by him.   Love in Christ, Marty

Marty, is Jesus truly and LITERALLY the ONLY lord Christians are to have?  YES or NO?

If you answer that question HONESTLY by saying “NO”, then please EXPLAIN for me how Paul was able to say we have but “one Lord, Jesus Christ”.

This favorite scripture of yours doesn't really help your unscriptural cause, Marty.

First of all, it is clear that the “indeed there are many lords” part of the statement is the LITERAL part, and the “one Lord Jesus Christ” part is the EMPHATIC part.

Likewise, according to MANY SCRIPTURES, the “indeed there are many gods” part of his statement is the LITERAL part, and the “one God the Father” part is the EMPHATIC part.

Secondly, for me there IS truly ONE God whom I worship and serve – and that is the Father Jehovah.  But Paul wasn't saying that for Christians, there EXISTS only one God.  He was saying that we HAVE only one God.

So my belief that there indeed exist many gods and many lords is perfectly aligned with what Paul stated.  And my belief that Jesus is the MAIN Lord Jehovah set over us, and Jehovah is the MAIN and MOST HIGH God amongst all the other gods – and the ONLY one I worship as my God – is perfectly aligned with what Paul stated.

So here's the deal:  You can either show me that the “many lords” part is the EMPHATIC part of Paul's statement, and the “one Lord Jesus Christ” is the LITERAL part – or you can come over to the truth of the matter, and accept that just like the “many lords” part is the LITERAL part of the statement, the “many gods” part is ALSO the LITERAL part of the statement.

So?  Are you able to show me scripturally that Jesus Christ is LITERALLY the ONLY lord that Christians have?

If not, your understanding is dead in the water.

[Spock]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 25 2013,03:15)

Quote (Colter @ Aug. 23 2013,04:36) The problem rests in your definition of God……….. That indeed is the crux of the problem, Colter. The Webster's definition I like the best – the one that most accurately describes “elohim” and “theos” in the Bible, is:  Any of various beings conceived of as supernatural, immortal, and having special powers over the lives and affairs of people and the course of nature. Not only is this definition scripturally accurate, it clearly explains the signs and wonders the gods of Egypt were able to match.  It explains the god Satan's ability to control Sabeans, Chaldeans, mighty winds, and fire from heaven in Job 1.  And his ability to produce sores all over Job's body in Job 2.  It explain how wrath was brought upon the Israelites after the king of Moab sacrificed his son to his own god Chemosh in 2 Kings 3:27. Now I have been asking and asking on this site, but no one ever wants to answer.  I'll ask again: If the definition I quoted above is NOT scripturally accurate, then please give us YOUR OWN definition of the word “god” – according to its SCRIPTURAL usage.

Mike, after recovering from stunned disbelief that someone doesn't realize that the Egyptian Gods were not real, that the stories were exagerations, that Job is parabolic, that Saten never was a God, I would have to concede that the literal portrayal of God in the current, most commonly referenced cannon, is so contradictory and skitsophrenik that any attempt to define it would be futile.

Colter

[mikeboll64]

If the Egyptian gods were not real, then how were they able to turn staffs into snakes, water into blood, and produce frogs all over the land out of thin air?

Jehovah Himself said, “I will strike down the firstborn of Egypt, and bring judgment upon their gods“.  How does Jehovah “bring judgment” upon things that were “not real” in the first place?  (Also, compare with Psalm 82, where Jehovah renders judgment against other gods in the assembly of the gods.)

Your claim that Job is just a parable doesn't do you any justice.  For we know that Satan IS scripturally called a god by both Paul AND Jehovah Himself.  We know that he IS real, and that he IS very powerful, and that he DOES have “special powers over the lives and affairs of people and the course of nature”.

So for YOU to say the gods of Egypt aren't real, and that Satan isn't really a god, is of no consequence to me and scripture.  I will continue to believe what scripture says on the matter over what you and your UB have to say about it.

(People, pay attention here.  This is a classic case of a Trinitarian who knows Jesus is called a god in scripture, but who WANTS Jesus to actually BE the very God he is the SON OF.  For this reason he will disallow the clear scriptures that speak of other gods, just so only Jesus and the Father can truly be “God”.

Beware the yeast, people!)

[942767]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 25 2013,03:32)

Quote (942767 @ Aug. 23 2013,19:13) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 23 2013,14:40) For even if there are those called gods, whether in heaven or on earth (as indeed there are many gods and many lords)……… Paul was a polytheist. Hi Mike: Why do you just post the part of the scripture, you know that Paul was not a Polythiest, this is what he said: Quote 1Cr 8:5   For though there be that are called gods, whether in heaven or in earth, (as there be gods many, and lords many,)   1Cr 8:6   But to us [there is but] one God, the Father, of whom [are] all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom [are] all things, and we by him.   Love in Christ, Marty Marty, is Jesus truly and LITERALLY the ONLY lord Christians are to have?  YES or NO? If you answer that question HONESTLY by saying “NO”, then please EXPLAIN for me how Paul was able to say we have but “one Lord, Jesus Christ”. This favorite scripture of yours doesn't really help your unscriptural cause, Marty. First of all, it is clear that the “indeed there are many lords” part of the statement is the LITERAL part, and the “one Lord Jesus Christ” part is the EMPHATIC part. Likewise, according to MANY SCRIPTURES, the “indeed there are many gods” part of his statement is the LITERAL part, and the “one God the Father” part is the EMPHATIC part. Secondly, for me there IS truly ONE God whom I worship and serve – and that is the Father Jehovah.  But Paul wasn't saying that for Christians, there EXISTS only one God.  He was saying that we HAVE only one God. So my belief that there indeed exist many gods and many lords is perfectly aligned with what Paul stated.  And my belief that Jesus is the MAIN Lord Jehovah set over us, and Jehovah is the MAIN and MOST HIGH God amongst all the other gods – and the ONLY one I worship as my God – is perfectly aligned with what Paul stated. So here's the deal:  You can either show me that the “many lords” part is the EMPHATIC part of Paul's statement, and the “one Lord Jesus Christ” is the LITERAL part – or you can come over to the truth of the matter, and accept that just like the “many lords” part is the LITERAL part of the statement, the “many gods” part is ALSO the LITERAL part of the statement. So?  Are you able to show me scripturally that Jesus Christ is LITERALLY the ONLY lord that Christians have? If not, your understanding is dead in the water.

Hi Mike:

What does the scripture state, Mike? It states that for a born again Christian, there is but One God, the Father, and one Lord, Jesus Christ.

And so, if you want to argue with the scripture, go right ahead. I did no write the scripture. It was given by the inspiration of God.

This is also scripture:

Quote

Eph 6:5 ¶ Servants, be obedient to them that are [your] masters according to the flesh, with fear and trembling, in singleness of your heart, as unto Christ; Eph 6:6 Not with eyeservice, as menpleasers; but as the servants of Christ, doing the will of God from the heart; Eph 6:7 With good will doing service, as to the Lord, and not to men:

Love in Christ,
Marty

[mikeboll64]

Quote (942767 @ Aug. 24 2013,11:10)

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 25 2013,03:32) So?  Are you able to show me scripturally that Jesus Christ is LITERALLY the ONLY lord that Christians have? If not, your understanding is dead in the water. Hi Mike: What does the scripture state, Mike?  It states that for a born again Christian, there is but One God, the Father, and one Lord, Jesus Christ. And so, if you want to argue with the scripture, go right ahead.

Let's see, Marty:

1 Corinthians 8:6
yet for us there is but one lord, Jesus Christ.

Ephesians 6:5
Slaves, obey your earthly lords….. just as you would obey Christ.

Now is it really “arguing with scripture” to be able to understand certain statements LITERALLY and others EMPHATICALLY?  Was Paul arguing against himself in those two scriptures I listed above?  

The fact of the matter is that there literally indeed exist many lords, and Jesus is emphatically our only lord.

The fact of the matter is that there literally indeed exist many gods, and Jehovah is emphatically our only god, and the only true god.

The fact of the matter is that literally, there are many good humans and angels, all servants of Jehovah, but emphatically, no one is good except for Jehovah.

Etc, etc, etc.

[abe]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 24 2013,08:15)

Quote (Colter @ Aug. 23 2013,04:36) The problem rests in your definition of God……….. That indeed is the crux of the problem, Colter. The Webster's definition I like the best – the one that most accurately describes “elohim” and “theos” in the Bible, is:  Any of various beings conceived of as supernatural, immortal, and having special powers over the lives and affairs of people and the course of nature. Not only is this definition scripturally accurate, it clearly explains the signs and wonders the gods of Egypt were able to match.  It explains the god Satan's ability to control Sabeans, Chaldeans, mighty winds, and fire from heaven in Job 1.  And his ability to produce sores all over Job's body in Job 2.  It explain how wrath was brought upon the Israelites after the king of Moab sacrificed his son to his own god Chemosh in 2 Kings 3:27. Now I have been asking and asking on this site, but no one ever wants to answer.  I'll ask again: If the definition I quoted above is NOT scripturally accurate, then please give us YOUR OWN definition of the word “god” – according to its SCRIPTURAL usage.

Mike,

heathen [ˈhiːðən]
n pl -thens, -then
1. (Spirituality, New Age, Astrology & Self-help / Alternative Belief Systems) a person who does not acknowledge the God of Christianity, Judaism, or Islam; pagan
2. an uncivilized or barbaric person
(Spirituality, New Age, Astrology & Self-help / Alternative Belief Systems)
the heathen (functioning as plural) heathens collectively
adj
1. (Spirituality, New Age, Astrology & Self-help / Alternative Belief Systems) irreligious; pagan
2. unenlightened; uncivilized; barbaric
3. (Spirituality, New Age, Astrology & Self-help / Alternative Belief Systems) of or relating to heathen peoples or their religious, moral, and other customs, practices, and beliefs

a person who does not acknowledge the God of Christianity, Judaism, or Islam; pagan

does not   *Acknowledge*     the God    of Christianity,

1Cor.8:4    therefore the eating of things sacrificed to idols, we know that no idol is anything in the world, and that there is no God but one
:5   For though there be that are called gods, whether in heaven or on earth; as there are gods many, and lords many;
6   yet to us there is one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we unto him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things, and we through him.

yet to us(Christians)

     
Heathen:
does not   *Acknowledge*     the God    of Christianity,

Peace.

[942767]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 25 2013,04:20)

Quote (942767 @ Aug. 24 2013,11:10) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 25 2013,03:32) So?  Are you able to show me scripturally that Jesus Christ is LITERALLY the ONLY lord that Christians have? If not, your understanding is dead in the water. Hi Mike: What does the scripture state, Mike?  It states that for a born again Christian, there is but One God, the Father, and one Lord, Jesus Christ. And so, if you want to argue with the scripture, go right ahead.   Let's see, Marty: 1 Corinthians 8:6 yet for us there is but one lord, Jesus Christ. Ephesians 6:5 Slaves, obey your earthly lords….. just as you would obey Christ. Now is it really “arguing with scripture” to be able to understand certain statements LITERALLY and others EMPHATICALLY?  Was Paul arguing against himself in those two scriptures I listed above?   The fact of the matter is that there literally indeed exist many lords, and Jesus is emphatically our only lord. The fact of the matter is that there literally indeed exist many gods, and Jehovah is emphatically our only god, and the only true god. The fact of the matter is that literally, there are many good humans and angels, all servants of Jehovah, but emphatically, no one is good except for Jehovah. Etc, etc, etc.

No, Paul is not arguing against himself in the two scriptures. He said though there be many so called gods, and lords, but to us, there is but One God, the Father, and one Lord, the Lord Jesus.

And so, yes, Christians have “masters after the flesh, but when we do service unto the Lord, we will be obeying our masters after the flesh, and so, in this way, he is our only Lord. It is him that we are ultimately obeying.

Love in Christ,
Marty

[mikeboll64]

As usual with your posts, I don't get it Abe.

Are you saying “heathen” is YOUR definition of “god”? Because that is what I asked, right? For YOUR definition of “god”, right?

Or were you implying that I am a heathen? Of course I'm not, because I do acknowledge the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob as my own one and only God.

[mikeboll64]

Quote (942767 @ Aug. 24 2013,11:53)

No, Paul is not arguing against himself in the two scriptures.   Christians have “masters after the flesh, but when we do service unto the Lord, we will be obeying our masters after the flesh, and so, in this way, he is our only Lord.  It is him that we are ultimately obeying. Love in Christ, Marty

BRILLIANT, Marty! Kudos to you for understanding the entire context, and putting it all together so that Paul WASN'T contradicting himself in those two scriptures!

So while there do indeed exist MANY lords for us Christians, Jesus is our “ultimate” Lord – next in power only to God Himself, who is REALLY and LITERALLY our “Ultimate Lord”, right?

So the LITERAL part of Paul's statement in 1 Cor 8:5-6 is the “many lords” part, right?

And the EMPHATIC part of the statement is the “one lord Jesus Christ” part, right?

By Jove, I do believe you are close to scriptural truth.

Now, go and apply that same common sense reasoning to the “many gods” versus the “one God the Father” part of the same statement.

[942767]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 25 2013,05:01)

Quote (942767 @ Aug. 24 2013,11:53) No, Paul is not arguing against himself in the two scriptures.   Christians have “masters after the flesh, but when we do service unto the Lord, we will be obeying our masters after the flesh, and so, in this way, he is our only Lord.  It is him that we are ultimately obeying. Love in Christ, Marty BRILLIANT, Marty!  Kudos to you for understanding the entire context, and putting it all together so that Paul WASN'T contradicting himself in those two scriptures! So while there do indeed exist MANY lords for us Christians, Jesus is our “ultimate” Lord – next in power only to God Himself, who is REALLY and LITERALLY our “Ultimate Lord”, right? So the LITERAL part of Paul's statement in 1 Cor 8:5-6 is the “many lords” part, right? And the EMPHATIC part of the statement is the “one lord Jesus Christ” part, right? By Jove, I do believe you are close to scriptural truth. Now, go and apply that same common sense reasoning to the “many gods” versus the “one God the Father” part of the same statement.

Mike, I haven't confessed anyone but Jesus as my Lord.

Suppose my master after the flesh wants me to do something that is contrary to the Word of God, should I obey him?

God has made him, Jesus, both Lord and Christ.

For me, as a Christian, there is “Only One God”, The Father, and One Lord, my Lord, Jesus, God's Son and His Christ.

Love in Christ,
Marty

[bodhitharta]

Quote (942767 @ Aug. 25 2013,02:01)

Hi BD, that is correct.  Genesis 1 God made man in His own image.  The first man Adam was made “a living soul”, that is like God in that he is a living person, having a mind, a will, and emotions, and the last Adam, Jesus, was made “a life giving spirit”, and is “the express image of God's person”, “God is love”.  It is through this spirit that was formed in Jesus by God as he obeyed God unto death on the cross, that we have seen God's character. Yes, God told all of the angels to worship him, but worship can take on different meanings.  He is the King of kings, and we honor him as such, and that is what worship means here, but we do not worship him as God. This is what Jesus stated: Quote Jhn 5:18   Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God.   Jhn 5:19   Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise.   Jhn 5:20   For the Father loveth the Son, and sheweth him all things that himself doeth: and he will shew him greater works than these, that ye may marvel.   Jhn 5:21   For as the Father raiseth up the dead, and quickeneth [them]; even so the Son quickeneth whom he will.   Jhn 5:22   For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgment unto the Son:   Jhn 5:23   That all [men] should honour the Son, even as they honour the Father. He that honoureth not the Son honoureth not the Father which hath sent him. Love in Christ, Marty

Yes, I agree in the Quran the angels were also told to bow to Adam:

And behold, We said to the angels: “bow down to Adam” and they bowed down. Not so Iblis(Satan): he refused and was haughty: He was of those who reject Faith.

( سورة البقرة , Al-Baqara, Chapter #2, Verse #34)

[Spock]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 25 2013,03:52)

If the Egyptian gods were not real, then how were they able to turn staffs into snakes, water into blood, and produce frogs all over the land out of thin air? Jehovah Himself said, “I will strike down the firstborn of Egypt, and bring judgment upon their gods“.  How does Jehovah “bring judgment” upon things that were “not real” in the first place?  (Also, compare with Psalm 82, where Jehovah renders judgment against other gods in the assembly of the gods.) Your claim that Job is just a parable doesn't do you any justice.  For we know that Satan IS scripturally called a god by both Paul AND Jehovah Himself.  We know that he IS real, and that he IS very powerful, and that he DOES have “special powers over the lives and affairs of people and the course of nature”. So for YOU to say the gods of Egypt aren't real, and that Satan isn't really a god, is of no consequence to me and scripture.  I will continue to believe what scripture says on the matter over what you and your UB have to say about it. (People, pay attention here.  This is a classic case of a Trinitarian who knows Jesus is called a god in scripture, but who WANTS Jesus to actually BE the very God he is the SON OF.  For this reason he will disallow the clear scriptures that speak of other gods, just so only Jesus and the Father can truly be “God”. Beware the yeast, people!)

The story of the Egyptian Gods was an exageration intended for the more child like mind of the Babylonion Exile era when they were written. That's how all that ridiculous stuff happened. The audience were the scattered Israelites who were devastated at the loss of their nation.

There is only infinite I AM and his unified, plural personifications. There is no pantheon of opposing Gods.I have explained that to you repeatedly but you don't seem to “get it”.

And the bible doesn't claim to be the word of God, that's a creation of the presit class, it an idolatrous religion all on its own.

And Jahovah as a name is a very late creation.

Colter

[bodhitharta]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 25 2013,03:52)

If the Egyptian gods were not real, then how were they able to turn staffs into snakes, water into blood, and produce frogs all over the land out of thin air?

He [Musa (Moses)] said: “throw you (first).” So when they threw, they bewitched the eyes of the people, and struck terror into them, and they displayed a great magic.

( سورة الأعراف , Al-Araf, Chapter #7, Verse #116)

And We revealed to Musa (Moses) (saying): “throw your stick,” and behold! It swallowed up straight away all the falsehoods which they showed.

( سورة الأعراف , Al-Araf, Chapter #7, Verse #117)

The were doing tricks of Illusion God had Moses doing real Miracles

[mikeboll64]

Quote (bodhitharta @ Aug. 24 2013,15:15)

They were doing tricks of Illusion God had Moses doing real Miracles

Interesting, Asana. Because the Bible clearly says that Pharaoh's priests “did the same things”.

So if theirs were tricks of illusions, then so were God's. On the other hand, if God's were truly miraculous signs and wonders, then so were theirs.

[mikeboll64]

Quote (Colter @ Aug. 24 2013,15:00)

The story of the Egyptian Gods was an exageration intended for the more child like mind of the Babylonion Exile era……..

So Colter,

Your answer is that the 10 plagues part of the Bible was made up, and is not to be considered as true?

Boy, if only we could all just eliminate the parts of the Bible that don't go along with our own personal wishes and doctrines!

Oh wait……….. many of us DO!  

[mikeboll64]

Quote (942767 @ Aug. 24 2013,13:22)

Mike, I haven't confessed anyone but Jesus as my Lord.

Matthew 22
36 “Teacher, which is the greatest commandment in the Law?”

37 Jesus replied: “‘Love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind.’

38 This is the first and greatest commandment.”

Luke 10:21
At that time Jesus, full of joy through the Holy Spirit, said, “I praise you, Father, Lord of heaven and earth…….”

Acts 17:24
“The God who made the world and everything in it is the Lord of heaven and earth…….”

Marty, I'm truly sorry that you are unable, or unwilling to confess “the Lord your God” as your Lord.  It's truly sad the lengths to which some people will go to hold on to their own personal doctrines.

Quote (942767 @ Aug. 24 2013,13:22)

Suppose my master after the flesh wants me to do something that is contrary to the Word of God, should I obey him?

Acts 5:29
Peter and the other apostles replied: “We must obey God rather than human beings!”

If the commands of your earthly lords contradict the commands of your heavenly Lords, then you should obviously obey the heavenly Lords above all others.

Follow the laws of the land up to the point that they begin to contradict the commands of our Lord Jesus or our Lord Jehovah.  (That's right Marty……….. TWO Lords in heaven – not just ONE like Paul EMPHATICALLY said.)

[bodhitharta]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 26 2013,04:38)

Quote (bodhitharta @ Aug. 24 2013,15:15) They were doing tricks of Illusion God had Moses doing real Miracles Interesting, Asana.  Because the Bible clearly says that Pharaoh's priests “did the same things”. So if theirs were tricks of illusions, then so were God's.  On the other hand, if God's were truly miraculous signs and wonders, then so were theirs.

Read it again, you were mistaken

Exodus 7:9-12

New International Version (NIV)

9 “When Pharaoh says to you, ‘Perform a miracle,’ then say to Aaron, ‘Take your staff and throw it down before Pharaoh,’ and it will become a snake.”

10 So Moses and Aaron went to Pharaoh and did just as the Lord commanded. Aaron threw his staff down in front of Pharaoh and his officials, and it became a snake. 11 Pharaoh then summoned wise men and sorcerers, and the Egyptian magicians also did the same things by their secret arts: 12 Each one threw down his staff and it became a snake. But Aaron’s staff swallowed up their staffs.

[Spock]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 26 2013,04:42)

Quote (Colter @ Aug. 24 2013,15:00) The story of the Egyptian Gods was an exageration intended for the more child like mind of the Babylonion Exile era…….. So Colter, Your answer is that the 10 plagues part of the Bible was made up, and is not to be considered as true? Boy, if only we could all just eliminate the parts of the Bible that don't go along with our own personal wishes and doctrines! Oh wait……….. many of us DO!

Yes, the plagues should be an obveous exageration to those who know Jesus. These are only issues for people who have been inducted into the religion that God wrote the books used to create the Bible even though the books make no such claim.

Colter

[942767]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 26 2013,04:58)

Quote (942767 @ Aug. 24 2013,13:22) Mike, I haven't confessed anyone but Jesus as my Lord. Matthew 22 36 “Teacher, which is the greatest commandment in the Law?” 37 Jesus replied: “‘Love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind.’ 38 This is the first and greatest commandment.” Luke 10:21 At that time Jesus, full of joy through the Holy Spirit, said, “I praise you, Father, Lord of heaven and earth…….” Acts 17:24 “The God who made the world and everything in it is the Lord of heaven and earth…….” Marty, I'm truly sorry that you are unable, or unwilling to confess “the Lord your God” as your Lord.  It's truly sad the lengths to which some people will go to hold on to their own personal doctrines. Quote (942767 @ Aug. 24 2013,13:22) Suppose my master after the flesh wants me to do something that is contrary to the Word of God, should I obey him? Acts 5:29 Peter and the other apostles replied: “We must obey God rather than human beings!” If the commands of your earthly lords contradict the commands of your heavenly Lords, then you should obviously obey the heavenly Lords above all others. Follow the laws of the land up to the point that they begin to contradict the commands of our Lord Jesus or our Lord Jehovah.  (That's right Marty……….. TWO Lords in heaven – not just ONE like Paul EMPHATICALLY said.)

Hi Mike:

This is what the scripture states:

Quote

1Cr 11:3 But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman [is] the man; and the head of Christ [is] God.

By confessing Jesus as my Lord, I am submitted to the LORD of heaven and earth through his Word.

If I am doing what I do as a service unto the Lord and unto man, I will be obeying God rather than man in all that I do.

Love in Christ,
Marty

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