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t8,
I agree that the definite article before logos means it is speaking of the actual word of God and not the qualities of it. The same is done in John 10:35, 1 John 2:14, and probably other places if I keep looking.
Hi Nick,
Did Jesus appear?
Hi Ed,
appear what?
Hi Nick,
I know my questions present you with difficulty,
so I will make it a tad bit simpler for you, OK?Did “the spirit of Christ” APPEAR in flesh – “Yes” or “No”?
He was logos by preexistence from eternity and became son of God in Flesh by Mary-the theotokos. Let all other blasphemies be cast to the pit.
Hi Andrew,
The word was made flesh and dwelt among us.
His origins were from everlasting.
Jesus was the blessed vessel.
AndrewAD,
God came before his word for he spoke his word. Of course eternity minus 1 is still eternity so that may not change anything.
Jesus became the Logos of God and so the Logos acquired humanity.
Hi Ed,
If you are granted graces and gifts to enable to to take a role in the Body of Christ
why do you think you would have become the Head of that Body?
Ed.
Hi Kerwin
When the HolySpirit enters us do we become “Ho Logos” too?
More of an image as we only receive the Spirit through Jesus Christ. Jesus has been given the authorities of the word God breaths out of his mouth while believers are only to the extent of the gifts they receive and the Spirit they live by.
t8,
The wording and sentence structure is purposeful.
I am well aware that the definite article is used before logos but I have no idea why you believe that proves it is a name and not the actual word that is being spoken about.
The definite article means it is talking about a specific logos that was with God, not generally like an attribute.
IF I say “The River” then it is a specific river. If I say, ‘river’, then that is general and I am talking about rivers in general.
Rivers can be swift, rivers traverse the low ground, rivers irrigate the surrounding land.
Put ‘THE’ in there, and it is saying that a certain river is swift etc.
When you talk about the logos in John 1:1 kerwin, you are being general. You and others seem to ignore that it is a specific logos, not just logos in general. Further, that specific logos was WITH God in the beginning. We know that Jesus is called the Word of God and that he existed in the form of God. Is it specifying him then. If not, then why. Being general is not an answer. I don’t want to hear about logos in general when answering John 1:1.
Hi t8,
Where does scripture say Jesus existed in the form of God?
Are you not misquoting phil 2 yet again?
Is it Ok to treat scripture with disrespect?
Hi t8,
Every word of scripture is carefully chosen by God.
Do you agree?
Is it ok to be cavalier about how we quote it?
Could we not be unwittingly putting stumbling stones before the feet of others?
Hi t8,
You say
‘We know that Jesus is called the Word of God..’
Where is this written or have you deduced it?
Is you deduction completely accurate?
Hi t8,
In rev 19 we see someone called faithful and true also called the Word of God.
You could deduce it is Jesus Christ but it it not stated.
@t8,
You are assuming Koine Greek and English use the definite article in the same way and I know that is incorrect. I do not know how they differ. If I has access to the Koine Greek manuscripts of Philo’s writings then he would also precede logos by the definite article. The only evidence I have is that the definite article often precedes logos when his teachings are described in English.
The Logos was the highest of these intermediary beings, and was called by Philo “the first-born of God.”
I would not have used the word “beings” as Philo does not teach that the logos was a being. He did personalize it as a being. This quote is from Wikipedia’s article on Philo’s view of God.
Philo and John both employ the divine word doctrine is their teaching though John teaches that Jesus is the Christ and Philo teaches Greeks about the Logos itself. From John’s writing his audience appears to be Jews, but a different sub-culture than those Matthew addresses.
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