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devo
Quote There MUST be an infallible Book somewhere. You say, “But ALL translations are God's word, not just one.” That's impossible, because the various translations contain different readings, and God is not the author of confusion (I Cor. 14:33). Besides, if all of the versions are the word of God, then where are the “corrupt” and “perverted” versions that we are warned about in II Corinthians 2:17? If everyone is innocent, then where are those who are said to be GUILTY of subtracting from and adding to the word of God (Rev. 22:18-19)? God wouldn't have warned us about Bible perversion if it wasn't going to be a reality. the truth is given to you from above in your heart,not paper ,not written words ,BUT PUT THE WRITTEN WORDS IN YOU ON YOUR HEART AND YOU WILL SEE THAT IT IS FROM THE HEART THAT GOD WILL CALL OUT ON YOU
Quote (kerwin @ Aug. 10 2012,13:15) The KJV does add words to the Ancient Greek as well as translate Passover to Easter and Hades, Tartarus, and Gehenna to Hell. For some reason it is not consistent in translating Sheol to Hell. Even though it is flawed the truth is still available as we have a living and active God that will get us past these obstacles.
KerwinActs 12:1 Now about the time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church.
Acts 12:2 And he killed James the brother of John.
Acts 12:3 And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread)
Acts 12:4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after easter to bring Peter forth to the people.
Hi Kerwin
Herod's tradition. Not a Jewish tradition, nor for christians then, and absolutely not a mistranslation.
Are you not aware that easter was a pagan celebration of the Greek goddess of spring. The romans adapted a lot of Greek traditions, and the word “easter” was purposely put in the bible by God himself to give us a clue, that this festival has nothing to do with any Jewish Passover, or death of Christ. It's roots are pagan and therefore the Romans celebrated it for their own purposes. Herod intended “after easter” to put Peter away.
The “Christian church”, changed the Pagan festival from a celebration of spring to a celebration of the resurrection of Jesus.
How many christians today are celebrating this pagan festival?
Despite knowing it's roots, they make excuses, saying this is what it means to us today, and we will keep doing it.
This is not what it means to follow the Lamb wheresoever he goes. We are with him, all the way, or we are against him. If Lukewarm, he will spew us out of his mouth.1 Corinthians 10:20 But I say, that the things which the Gentiles sacrifice, they sacrifice to devils, and not to God: and I would not that ye should have fellowship with devils.
1 Corinthians 10:21 Ye cannot drink the cup of the Lord, and the cup of devils: ye cannot be partakers of the Lord's table, and of the table of devils.
1 Timothy 4:1 Now the Spirit speaketh expressly, that in the latter times some shall depart from the faith, giving heed to seducing spirits, and doctrines of devils;
Quote (journey42 @ Aug. 11 2012,15:22) Kerwin Acts 12:4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after easter to bring Peter forth to the people.
Herod's tradition. Not a Jewish tradition, nor for christians then, and absolutely not a mistranslation.
Are you not aware that easter was a pagan celebration of the Greek goddess of spring. The romans adapted a lot of Greek traditions, and the word “easter” was purposely put in the bible by God himself to give us a clue, that this festival has nothing to do with any Jewish Passover, or death of Christ. It's roots are pagan and therefore the Romans celebrated it for their own purposes. Herod intended “after easter” to put Peter away.
Hi Georgie,Kerwin does not believe Herod was celebrating the 'Ishtar celebration'
though I have pointed this “Bible Truth” out as well.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (Ed J @ Aug. 11 2012,18:34) Quote (carmel @ Aug. 11 2012,08:06) Quote Do we become “God by nature” too? (2Peter 1:4)
Edj,What were we,before creation ever existed?
peace and love in Jesus
Charles
Hi Charles,I believe we were all pre-existent Angels; all accept Jesus that is.
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
edj
you would like it but NOQuote (Ed J @ Aug. 11 2012,23:56) Why would “I” like it?
Why ask me ,you believe it,I do not,You should know why you like to believe it,even this works against scriptures
Quote (terraricca @ Aug. 11 2012,17:32) Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 11 2012,23:56) Quote (terraricca @ Aug. 11 2012,16:30) edj you would like it but NO
Why would “I” like it?
Why ask me ,you believe it,I do not,You should know why you like to believe it,even this works against scriptures
Hi Pierre,So you say things that you admit you do not know what YOU are talking about? …is that not evidence of YOUR 'confusion'?
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (Ed J @ Aug. 11 2012,17:38) Quote (terraricca @ Aug. 11 2012,17:32) Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 11 2012,23:56) Quote (terraricca @ Aug. 11 2012,16:30) edj you would like it but NO
Why would “I” like it?
Why ask me ,you believe it,I do not,You should know why you like to believe it,even this works against scriptures
Hi Pierre,So you say things that you admit you do not know what YOU are talking about? …is that not evidence of YOUR 'confusion'?
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
EDJ.You are really mind boggling; whats next Ed?
We were angels before,then turned into flesh and then some only will turn back to angels:Have you been to heaven ED?
Tell me how it looks like.What about the other angels?WHere they flesh too?
So Adam and Eve were angels before,then turned into dust.Have you been drinking out of that cup again?
wakeup.
Mike,
John 20
King James Version (KJV)27 Then saith he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing.28 And Thomas answered and said unto him, My LORD and my God.
Thomas is not addressing Jesus but he is replying to Jesus’ words to “be not faithless, but believing” by stating “My LORD and my God”.
Does John 20:28 work if Thomas’ words are “My Lord Jesus and my God Jehovah”?
Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 12 2012,00:38) Quote (terraricca @ Aug. 11 2012,17:32) Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 11 2012,23:56) Quote (terraricca @ Aug. 11 2012,16:30) edj you would like it but NO
Why would “I” like it?
Why ask me ,you believe it,I do not,You should know why you like to believe it,even this works against scriptures
Hi Pierre,So you say things that you admit you do not know what YOU are talking about? …is that not evidence of YOUR 'confusion'?
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
edlwhy do you call me confused ,you are the one that now believe in old women stories ,
you are a dreamer ,wake up and believe YOU NEVER WERE A ANGEL ,JUST A MAN
Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Aug. 10 2012,17:24) Yes, I was quite aware of the question. It seems the answer to the question is way over your head!
Then by all means, dumb it down for me please, because I didn't see an answer to my question in your last response.Who are the “US”, Frank?
Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Aug. 10 2012,17:35) Note that Philippians 2 does not say Yahshua pre-existed his birth as “a god”.
Nope. But it teaches that Jesus pre-existed his “becoming made in the likeness of a human being” as a being who was in the form of God.I assume “form of God” means “spirit being”, which God is.
Quote (Devolution @ Aug. 10 2012,20:20) ……….your words testify against you that you do not believe that God was able to keep His promise to preserve His word for all generations.
Wow. Your words testify that you will choose to believe TRADITION over TRUTH, Devo.Apparently, some of you people on this site are unaware that the KJV is simply one of the MANY English TRANSLATIONS of the Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek words of the scriptures – a TRANSLATION in which flawed men did their best to render those original words, from the best mss they had access to at the time, into English.
The problem is that OLDER and BETTER mss have since been discovered. Devo, think this out:
All of the known Greek mss have “who” (not “God”) in 1 Tim 3:16 up until the 9th century. Now, which translation is more likely to be the original words Paul wrote – “who”, which was in all the mss up until the 9th century, or “God”, which appeared in certain mss 900 years after Paul wrote his letter to Timothy?
We actually have possession of an Alexandrian ms where a line was ADDED after the fact to change “who” to “God”, Devo. It has been proven under the microscope that the line was ADDED by a later scribe, because the ink doesn't match the rest of the ms.
I do not fault the translators of the KJV for this error, for they were doing the best they could translating from the best mss known to them at that time. But the fact remains that the original word Paul used was “who”, and that word was later CHANGED to “God”, and therefore, the KJV translators later translated that ALTERED word into English as “God”. (This is just ONE of the MANY pieces of evidence against the “God” translation of 1 Tim 3:16.)
Also, do you suppose that God intended for only English speaking people to have His “unadulterated word”? The KJV is an ENGLISH translation, right? So what about all those who have ever lived their lives without speaking the English language? Were they just allowed to suffer through without having access to God's “unadulterated word”?
Quote (Devolution @ Aug. 10 2012,20:37) Oh Mike, There is something else you should consider, unlike ALL other versions of the bible, the KJV has one superior truth over them all, and that is this, the King James Translators actually BELIEVED They Were Handling the Very Words of God.
And the others who translated the scriptures into English just thought they were playing games?mike said:
there are no words in Phil 2:6 that say “God is nature”. I don't know where you're even getting that from.—————————–
you do not know greek mike. your words are non sense.
Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 10 2012,17:07) Quote (jammin @ Aug. 10 2012,16:39) Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 10 2012,09:55) Case re-opened Do we become “God by nature” too? (2Peter 1:4)
God bless
Ed J
we become what???read the verse well boy.
your doctrine is not in the bible.
Hi Jammin,The divine nature in Jesus – is what YOU say makes him “God”,
so my question to you Jammin is: when we're partakers of
the divine nature – does that make us “God” as well? <– please answerGod bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
2 pet 1.4 is not the same as phil 2.6read the context boy
Quote (limjunus @ Aug. 10 2012,18:01) Quote (jammin @ Aug. 10 2012,16:41) Quote (limjunus @ Aug. 10 2012,15:05) Quote (jammin @ Aug. 10 2012,09:48) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 10 2012,08:41) Quote (jammin @ Aug. 09 2012,08:24) mike,
are you truly human just like your father?
yes or no?
Sorry jammin,I forgot about this question yesterday. YES, I am truly human just like my (earthly) father is.
you agree that your father is truly human
you agree that you and your father HAVE the same nature and that is your human nature.
you agree that you are also truly human just like your father.therefore,
Christ is truly God just like his father
christ and his father have the same nature.
the father is truly God. the son is truly God by nature.thanks for your answer
case closed
Case close? What case? Nature of God or nature of manYou can close the nature of man, there is no problem with me but the case about the nature (attributes) of God, we are just in the beginning.
Man nature in the term of multiplication: Human Father & mother bearing a child, of course also a human. It is scientifically proven.
How about the nature (attributes) of God. HIS SINGULARITY:In the term of : Mathematically, Scientifically and spiritually, it could not be possible for the true One and only God to be multiplied the same with the human.
So, the point is, Jesus Christ is not the One and only true God, but instead he has the nature of God for being HOLY, entitled him to be the “only begotten Son of God” (he is the only human has no even single sin) and he is entitled to “never die” (immortal status) because death is the penalty of the sin, Jesus Christ, did not do any single sin.
That nature (Holy & Immortal) is also entitled him to be equal with God, and he gave-up (stripped) that nature (Holy & immortal) by taken the nature or form of a man, so that he can take all of our sins and died for us. Philippians 2:6-8
Jesus Christ for being obedient to the will of God, even in the death on the cross; as what they have agreed; God raised him from the dead and elevated him to the highest position; given him a very special name above all name and in his name every knee, above in heaven, on earth and underneath the earth shall be kneeling down (worshiping) and God made him both Lord and Christ, for the glory of the One and only true God.
Philippians 2:9-11Peace.
u did not answer my question
your father is truly human and you agreeare you truly human just like your father??
mike has already answered me. how about u boy?
Just post that you can not answers my questions, do not make us fool around hereYour question is 101% nonsense.
Do not compare the nature of God to the nature of man. You are 100% zero with the Bible knowledge and in intellectual good manner and right conduct.
How can I answer you? the issue is the nature (attributes) of God, and not the nature of man.
To question the nature of man regarding what nature the father and the son is? Is just you are showing your complete ignoramus about it and trying to intimidate me but in fact you are not capable to refute my questions.
So, now where is your answers? “bad-boy”
you agree that you are truly human just like your father.accept that Christ is truly God just like his father bec they have the same nature and that is their nature God.
phil 2.6 said that
Philippians 2:6New International Version (NIV)
6 Who, being in very nature[a] God,
believe it or not
Quote (journey42 @ Aug. 10 2012,22:22) Hi Kerwin Herod's tradition. Not a Jewish tradition, nor for christians then, and absolutely not a mistranslation.
journey,The Greek word used was “pascha”, which means “passover”. The word doesn't MEAN “Easter”, and should not have been translated as such. The word “Easter” is most definitely a mistranslation of the Greek word used.
Remember when I told you before that many of the KJV flaws were later remedied in the NKJV? This is one of them, as the NKJV correctly translates the Greek word as “Passover”.
Quote (kerwin @ Aug. 11 2012,03:00) Does John 20:28 work if Thomas’ words are “My Lord Jesus and my God Jehovah”?
Well, if the words were, “And Thomas said to Jesus, 'My Lord Jesus and my God Jehovah!' “, then I'd start listening a little more closely to Lightenup, who believes Jesus is “God Jehovah the Son”.
But taking the words as they are written, there is only one conclusion I can HONESTLY come up with, and that conclusion is that Thomas addressed Jesus as his Lord and his God.
This doesn't mean that Thomas thought Jesus was the God who created the heavens and the earth, only that he addressed Jesus as his “master and mighty ruler” – which he is.
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