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Quote (942767 @ June 30 2012,19:11) Hi Pierre: Jesus was born of a woman just as all men after the First Adam have been except that he was not born of the sperm of man, but God by His Holy Spirit overshadowed the virgin Mary and she conceived in her womb. And so, although he was and is a man, God is His Father. He was not fathered by any man.
Quote Romans 1
King James Version (KJV)
1 Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called to be an apostle, separated unto the gospel of God,2 (Which he had promised afore by his prophets in the holy scriptures,)
3 Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh;
4 And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead:
Love in Christ,
Marty
Martythousands of babies are born from a surrogate mother every day,(and the parents of the child are waiting the birth)
and you think God could not do this
(I mean take his son and make him to become a human being in this way )do you think God is limited
and the sons of man are born to man through a man and a women as far that I know ,well this is the way that I had my kids 
but Christ the son of God the creator does not mix with women and it says that his son was created BEFORE ALL CREATION ,AND THAT ALL THINGS WERE CREATED THROUGH HIM ,if this is true then Christ preexisted his birth as a man,
Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 30 2012,04:41) Quote (kerwin @ June 29 2012,00:39) Mike, Quote Does scripture tell us when or why Jesus started being called the Word of God? If it does, that is news to me. Anyway, your response was irrelevant to my question. I only want to know if God meant Jesus when he spoke of putting His word in His people's inward parts in Jer 31:33. Do you think God was talking about Jesus in that scripture?
I know that Jehovah did write the Word upon Jesus' heart and place it into his heart for Isaiah 42:1 teaches us that. John 1:14 speaks of a time when the Word was made flesh and John the Baptist recognized the Word in Jesus when Jesus came to him to be immersed.
Kerwin,Why not just directly answer the question I asked?
Did God mean “Jesus” when he spoke of putting His word in His people's inward parts in Jer 31:33? Do you think God was talking about Jesus in that scripture? YES or NO?
Mike;What I have answered is sufficient for understanding as it reveals Jehovah wrote his Word on heart and placed it in his inward parts.
Quote (kerwin @ June 30 2012,20:04) Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 30 2012,04:41) Quote (kerwin @ June 29 2012,00:39) Mike, Quote Does scripture tell us when or why Jesus started being called the Word of God? If it does, that is news to me. Anyway, your response was irrelevant to my question. I only want to know if God meant Jesus when he spoke of putting His word in His people's inward parts in Jer 31:33. Do you think God was talking about Jesus in that scripture?
I know that Jehovah did write the Word upon Jesus' heart and place it into his heart for Isaiah 42:1 teaches us that. John 1:14 speaks of a time when the Word was made flesh and John the Baptist recognized the Word in Jesus when Jesus came to him to be immersed.
Kerwin,Why not just directly answer the question I asked?
Did God mean “Jesus” when he spoke of putting His word in His people's inward parts in Jer 31:33? Do you think God was talking about Jesus in that scripture? YES or NO?
Mike;What I have answered is sufficient for understanding as it reveals Jehovah wrote his Word on heart and placed it in his inward parts.
Klet be honest God did not write his words into the hearts of people ,unless the people start to read his words (scriptures)
but we can not obtain his words if we do not look for ,and can not understand it if we do not knock,the written words of God is written in THE LOVE WE HAVE FOR HIM ,( THEIR IS NO PAPER AND PEN IN OUR HEARTS
)Quote (kerwin @ June 29 2012,20:04) Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 30 2012,04:41) Quote (kerwin @ June 29 2012,00:39) Mike, Quote Does scripture tell us when or why Jesus started being called the Word of God? If it does, that is news to me. Anyway, your response was irrelevant to my question. I only want to know if God meant Jesus when he spoke of putting His word in His people's inward parts in Jer 31:33. Do you think God was talking about Jesus in that scripture?
I know that Jehovah did write the Word upon Jesus' heart and place it into his heart for Isaiah 42:1 teaches us that. John 1:14 speaks of a time when the Word was made flesh and John the Baptist recognized the Word in Jesus when Jesus came to him to be immersed.
Kerwin,Why not just directly answer the question I asked?
Did God mean “Jesus” when he spoke of putting His word in His people's inward parts in Jer 31:33? Do you think God was talking about Jesus in that scripture? YES or NO?
Mike;What I have answered is sufficient for understanding as it reveals Jehovah wrote his Word on heart and placed it in his inward parts.
NO, it is NOT “sufficient”, Kerwin.I want to know if God intended to say He would put JESUS in His people's inward parts. Did he mean JESUS in Jer 31:33? YES or NO?
Marty
Quote And he is before all of God's creation in the sense that God created every thing that he created by him and for him. God's plan before the world began was to reconcile the world unto Himself through His Only Begotten Son and His Christ. I did not see this ; God's plan before the world began” so what you saying is that before God start to create he already made arrangements to send his son ,not created yet ,no universe ,no angels ect , Satan did not yet existed and ad not yet rebel,or men not sin,??? ,
is this your message to me
yes or no or whatMarty;
Do you believe that Jesus is called the Second Adam in the Writings? If so; where is he so called; and why is he called that?
Was Adam sired of either or woman? Is God both his mother and father?
Was Eve sired of a woman? Is God her mother and Adam her father?
Do you believe God sires children in the same way his creations do? If not then how does he sire children?
Mike;
Quote NO, it is NOT “sufficient”, Kerwin. I want to know if God intended to say He would put JESUS in His people's inward parts. Did he mean JESUS in Jer 31:33? YES or NO?
Your words make it seem that you are wrapped in the letter of Scripture but fail to follow the Spirit of Scripture. To follow the spirit you must seek understanding of it with your heart and ask for it with your mouth; just as Jesus teaches us.
In going by the spirit of what is written, it is irrelevant if Jeremiah's words include Jesus; though I hold they do. What is important is whether or not Jehovah placed his Word into the inner parts of the flesh that is Jesus and wrote his Word on the heart of that same flesh. I hold that in putting his Spirit on Jesus that he did place the Word in him since it is the Spirit that reveals the Word.
The letter teaches us that Jehovah declared “Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah” and Jesus is a member of the house of Judah; therefore Jesus is included. That is why Jesus is the Author and Finisher of the New Covenant.
Quote (kerwin @ June 30 2012,01:58) Your words make it seem that you are wrapped in the letter of Scripture but fail to follow the Spirit of Scripture.
Kerwin,It seems there are only two choices:
1. Each and every time “the word of God” is mentioned in the scriptures, it refers to Jesus.
2. More than one thing is referred to by the phrase “the word of God”.
Do you think that every time “the word of God” is mentioned in scripture, it is in reference to the person who rides the white horse in Rev 19:13? YES or NO?
Quote (kerwin @ July 01 2012,01:30) Marty; Do you believe that Jesus is called the Second Adam in the Writings? If so; where is he so called; and why is he called that?
Was Adam sired of either or woman? Is God both his mother and father?
Was Eve sired of a woman? Is God her mother and Adam her father?
Do you believe God sires children in the same way his creations do? If not then how does he sire children?
kDID YOU LEARN SOMETHING FROM MY POST
Quote (terraricca @ June 30 2012,15:36) Marty Quote And he is before all of God's creation in the sense that God created every thing that he created by him and for him. God's plan before the world began was to reconcile the world unto Himself through His Only Begotten Son and His Christ. I did not see this ; God's plan before the world began” so what you saying is that before God start to create he already made arrangements to send his son ,not created yet ,no universe ,no angels ect , Satan did not yet existed and ad not yet rebel,or men not sin,??? ,
is this your message to me
yes or no or what
Hi Pierre:That is correct.
Quote Gen 1:1 ¶ In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth. Gen 1:2 And the earth was without form, and void; and darkness [was] upon the face of the deep. And the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters.
Quote Gen 1:7 And God made the firmament, and divided the waters which [were] under the firmament from the waters which [were] above the firmament: and it was so. Gen 1:8 And God called the firmament Heaven. And the evening and the morning were the second day.
Quote Gen 1:31 And God saw every thing that he had made, and, behold, [it was] very good. And the evening and the morning were the sixth day. Quote Gen 2:4 ¶ These [are] the generations of the heavens and of the earth when they were created, in the day that the LORD God made the earth and the heavens, Quote Gen 3:1 ¶ Now the serpent was more subtil than any beast of the field which the LORD God had made. And he said unto the woman, Yea, hath God said, Ye shall not eat of every tree of the garden? Love in Christ,
MartyQuote (kerwin @ June 30 2012,18:30) Marty; Do you believe that Jesus is called the Second Adam in the Writings? If so; where is he so called; and why is he called that?
Was Adam sired of either or woman? Is God both his mother and father?
Was Eve sired of a woman? Is God her mother and Adam her father?
Do you believe God sires children in the same way his creations do? If not then how does he sire children?
Hi Kerwin:What do you mean by the writings?
This what I find in the scriptures about the Last Adam:
Quote 1Cr 15:45 And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam [was made] a quickening spirit. 1Cr 15:46 Howbeit that [was] not first which is spiritual, but that which is natural; and afterward that which is spiritual.
1Cr 15:47 The first man [is] of the earth, earthy: the second man [is] the Lord from heaven.
Adam's body was created from the dust of the earth, and Eve was created from one of Adam's ribs. Adam became a living being when God breathed the breathe of life into him. That is what the scriptures relate to us. They were created beings just as the angels were. Adam is said to be a son of God, and so God was his father. He gave him life by breathing the breathe of life into his body.
No, God does not sire children in the same way that his creation does. Jesus is the only man who was born of God in the womb of a woman. The scripture states that the Holy Spirit overshadowed Mary and she conceived in her womb. There is no other man who was or will ever be born this way.
I believe God can do this, don't you?
Jesus was also born again from the dead which means that God is also the Father of His Spirit. All other men who were born of a woman were born of the sperm of man and if they are children of God, God is the Father of their Spirit. They are children of God through the Spirit of Adoption.
I hope that this answers your questions.
Love in Christ,
MartyQuote (mikeboll64 @ June 30 2012,10:14) Marty, Is it scriptural that John the Baptist called Jesus “the Lamb of God” – even though Jesus wasn't literally a lamb? YES or NO?
Yes.Quote (942767 @ July 01 2012,13:41) Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 30 2012,10:14) Marty, Is it scriptural that John the Baptist called Jesus “the Lamb of God” – even though Jesus wasn't literally a lamb? YES or NO?
Yes.
Is jesus really a groom, or is it just symbolising him as a groom?
Is jesus really a lamb, or is it hust symbolising him as a lamb?
Is jesus really a rock, or is it only symbolising him as a rock?
Is Jesus really a shepherd,or is it only symbolising him as a shepherd?
Jesus is the light of the world;is he a glowing ball of light walking on earth?Who truly is the bride of Christ?
Rev.21:2.9.10. please consider,is Jesus married to a city?wakeup.
Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 30 2012,20:25) Quote (kerwin @ June 30 2012,01:58) Your words make it seem that you are wrapped in the letter of Scripture but fail to follow the Spirit of Scripture.
Kerwin,It seems there are only two choices:
1. Each and every time “the word of God” is mentioned in the scriptures, it refers to Jesus.
2. More than one thing is referred to by the phrase “the word of God”.
Do you think that every time “the word of God” is mentioned in scripture, it is in reference to the person who rides the white horse in Rev 19:13? YES or NO?
Mike;Each time the Word of God is mentioned in Scripture is means the Word that comes out of Jehovah's mouth. This includes Revelations 19:13.
Jesus is called by the name of that which comes out of the mouth of God.
Quote (kerwin @ July 01 2012,23:27) Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 30 2012,20:25) Quote (kerwin @ June 30 2012,01:58) Your words make it seem that you are wrapped in the letter of Scripture but fail to follow the Spirit of Scripture.
Kerwin,It seems there are only two choices:
1. Each and every time “the word of God” is mentioned in the scriptures, it refers to Jesus.
2. More than one thing is referred to by the phrase “the word of God”.
Do you think that every time “the word of God” is mentioned in scripture, it is in reference to the person who rides the white horse in Rev 19:13? YES or NO?
Mike;Each time the Word of God is mentioned in Scripture is means the Word that comes out of Jehovah's mouth. This includes Revelations 19:13.
Jesus is called by the name of that which comes out of the mouth of God.
KAnd what his the sword in his mouth
Rev 19No one can see Words ,do you not understand this
No one can touch words ,can you understand that
Words do not have a live of their own,or do they
Spoken,written,words are only powerfull BECAUSE THEY ARE TRUE,and from God,and are also related to men ,us.do you understand this,???
All the so called N.T his about Gods son ,that came down from above from the father,to fulfill the law,what no men could do because we are all born in sin.do you understand this,
He came down and took the cover of flesh to be like us,he could never be us ,because his father his God and our father his man,do you understand that
To be covered with flesh he came trough a maiden,a surrogate mother,
A women devoted to the Lord and the law.
And one more thing ,words do not visit people,or do they
,if yes please explain,Marty,
Scriptures=Writings. It is just traditions that lead us to say Scriptures.
There is no mention of Jesus in 1 Corinthians 15:45-47. That interpretation is based on tradition, the idea Jesus is a being whose body consists of spirit and that Jesus is the first man of the new creation. The KJV also has added words that support it which are not in the Ancient Greek.
Scripture speaks of each man being composed two men; the first is the outer man who is made from the dust while the second man is the spirit that comes from God and gives life to the body; making it a living soul.
The Spirit came upon Mary just as the Spirit moved upon the face of the waters during the first day of creation and later landed upon her Son at his immersion. God’s power overshadowed her as some hoped Peter’s shadow would overshadow them in Acts 5:15 and a cloud overshadowed Jesus and his disciples after he was transfigured on the mount. Don’t you believe the Spirit moved upon the face of creation and God overshadowed Adam when he created the later; especially as later God stated his Spirit would no longer struggle with fallen flesh, Genesis 6:3?
The Spirit of God landed on Adam and caused Eve to be conceived by the overshadowing power of God; a similar thing later happened with Jesus. Adam is all human despite having no mother or father of his flesh; Eve is all human despite having no mother of her flesh, and so also Jesus is all human despite having no father of his flesh.
John the Baptist saw the Word in Jesus as Jesus was coming to be immersed by him and so stated that Jesus should immerse him and not the other way around. Jesus is the Son through the Word, which was even then in him.
Quote (kerwin @ July 01 2012,18:03) Marty, Scriptures=Writings. It is just traditions that lead us to say Scriptures.
There is no mention of Jesus in 1 Corinthians 15:45-47. That interpretation is based on tradition, the idea Jesus is a being whose body consists of spirit and that Jesus is the first man of the new creation. The KJV also has added words that support it which are not in the Ancient Greek.
Scripture speaks of each man being composed two men; the first is the outer man who is made from the dust while the second man is the spirit that comes from God and gives life to the body; making it a living soul.
The Spirit came upon Mary just as the Spirit moved upon the face of the waters during the first day of creation and later landed upon her Son at his immersion. God’s power overshadowed her as some hoped Peter’s shadow would overshadow them in Acts 5:15 and a cloud overshadowed Jesus and his disciples after he was transfigured on the mount. Don’t you believe the Spirit moved upon the face of creation and God overshadowed Adam when he created the later; especially as later God stated his Spirit would no longer struggle with fallen flesh, Genesis 6:3?
The Spirit of God landed on Adam and caused Eve to be conceived by the overshadowing power of God; a similar thing later happened with Jesus. Adam is all human despite having no mother or father of his flesh; Eve is all human despite having no mother of her flesh, and so also Jesus is all human despite having no father of his flesh.
John the Baptist saw the Word in Jesus as Jesus was coming to be immersed by him and so stated that Jesus should immerse him and not the other way around. Jesus is the Son through the Word, which was even then in him.
Kerwin .You should just do away with reading the english bible and just go by your ancient greek bible.
wakeup.
Quote (kerwin @ July 02 2012,01:03) Marty, Scriptures=Writings. It is just traditions that lead us to say Scriptures.
There is no mention of Jesus in 1 Corinthians 15:45-47. That interpretation is based on tradition, the idea Jesus is a being whose body consists of spirit and that Jesus is the first man of the new creation. The KJV also has added words that support it which are not in the Ancient Greek.
Scripture speaks of each man being composed two men; the first is the outer man who is made from the dust while the second man is the spirit that comes from God and gives life to the body; making it a living soul.
The Spirit came upon Mary just as the Spirit moved upon the face of the waters during the first day of creation and later landed upon her Son at his immersion. God’s power overshadowed her as some hoped Peter’s shadow would overshadow them in Acts 5:15 and a cloud overshadowed Jesus and his disciples after he was transfigured on the mount. Don’t you believe the Spirit moved upon the face of creation and God overshadowed Adam when he created the later; especially as later God stated his Spirit would no longer struggle with fallen flesh, Genesis 6:3?
The Spirit of God landed on Adam and caused Eve to be conceived by the overshadowing power of God; a similar thing later happened with Jesus. Adam is all human despite having no mother or father of his flesh; Eve is all human despite having no mother of her flesh, and so also Jesus is all human despite having no father of his flesh.
John the Baptist saw the Word in Jesus as Jesus was coming to be immersed by him and so stated that Jesus should immerse him and not the other way around. Jesus is the Son through the Word, which was even then in him.
KQuote Scripture speaks of each man being composed two men; the first is the outer man who is made from the dust while the second man is the spirit that comes from God and gives life to the body; making it a living soul. show scriptures for this or retracte you faulty doctrines,
Quote The Spirit came upon Mary just as the Spirit moved upon the face of the waters during the first day of creation and later landed upon her Son at his immersion. God’s power overshadowed her as some hoped Peter’s shadow would overshadow them in Acts 5:15 and a cloud overshadowed Jesus and his disciples after he was transfigured on the mount. Don’t you believe the Spirit moved upon the face of creation and God overshadowed Adam when he created the later; especially as later God stated his Spirit would no longer struggle with fallen flesh, Genesis 6:3? what is your religion any way
it seems to me you make it up as you read your multy version of scriptures and rejecting them as you move along in them denying the power that make it the truth,Quote The Spirit of God landed on Adam and caused Eve to be conceived by the overshadowing power of God; a similar thing later happened with Jesus. Adam is all human despite having no mother or father of his flesh; Eve is all human despite having no mother of her flesh, and so also Jesus is all human despite having no father of his flesh. any scriptures to cover this way of conviction of yours
Quote John the Baptist saw the Word in Jesus as Jesus was coming to be immersed by him and so stated that Jesus should immerse him and not the other way around. Jesus is the Son through the Word, which was even then in him.
CAN ANYONE SEE WORDS COMING OUT OF SOMEONE ,YOU GO EVEN DEEPER IN YOUR LIES ;YOU SAY THAT JOHN THE BAPTIST SAW THE WORDS THAT ARE IN CHRIST ,WERE DO YOU SEE THIS INSANITY.Quote (942767 @ June 30 2012,20:41) Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 30 2012,10:14) Marty, Is it scriptural that John the Baptist called Jesus “the Lamb of God” – even though Jesus wasn't literally a lamb? YES or NO?
Yes.
Hi Marty,And is it scriptural that Jesus is called by the name “the Word of God” – even though he is not literally a spoke word from God? YES or NO?
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