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Mike,
FYI, The following translations were not translated by those who did not believe that Yahshua pre-existed his birth:
And the word came IN the flesh … Weymouth New Testament
And the word was MADE flesh … American King James Version & King James 2000 Bible
Quote (Ed J @ June 19 2012,11:40) Hi Frank, Please try to refrain from name-calling while expressing your opinion.
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
Ed J,You are also a total ignoramus!
Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ June 19 2012,18:50) Mike, FYI, The following translations were not translated by those who did not believe that Yahshua pre-existed his birth:
And the word came IN the flesh … Weymouth New Testament
And the word was MADE flesh … American King James Version & King James 2000 Bible
so???Quote (terraricca @ June 19 2012,12:05) Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ June 19 2012,18:50) Mike, FYI, The following translations were not translated by those who did not believe that Yahshua pre-existed his birth:
And the word came IN the flesh … Weymouth New Testament
And the word was MADE flesh … American King James Version & King James 2000 Bible
so???
Piear,Yes, I am well aware that you do not care and that you are also a total ignoramus!
Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ June 18 2012,18:36) Mike, BTW, you did not pay very close attention as I had suggested that you do! Do you not remember conveying to me quite some time ago that it did not make sense in that Father Yahweh's word was WITH Him? That makes you a total ignoramus!
Okay Frank,1. Jesus is said to have the NAME “the Word of God” in Rev 19:13 – not the TITLE.
2. Neither the Weymouth nor the KJV translations of 1:14 that you listed speak of the word coming to be IN someone who was already flesh. And even if you found a translation that DID say the word came to be IN someone who was flesh, you will have found a doctored, untruthful translation.
3. I did read your cut and paste job, and didn't see one instance where someone's word was with themselves. But more importantly, I didn't see where ANYTHING was with someone while also BEING that someone at the same time. (Don't forget that not only was the Word WITH God, but your translation says it also WAS the very God it was WITH. So while one can poetically say that all wisdom resides with (or is with) God, one cannot truthfully say that wisdom IS God. Get it?)
4. Also, I just looked up Numbers 14:24, and the word “with” isn't even in the Hebrew, and seems to have been added only in the KJV version. The NKJV doesn't even have that word.
I haven't looked at any of the other scriptures, but suspect I might find similar circumstances in more than a few of them.
Now, I made what I felt were some very good points in my rebuttal to your cut and paste. Were you going to even attempt to address those points? Or just continue “owning me”?
Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 19 2012,12:15) Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ June 18 2012,18:36) Mike, BTW, you did not pay very close attention as I had suggested that you do! Do you not remember conveying to me quite some time ago that it did not make sense in that Father Yahweh's word was WITH Him? That makes you a total ignoramus!
Okay Frank,1. Jesus is said to have the NAME “the Word of God” in Rev 19:13 – not the TITLE.
2. Neither the Weymouth nor the KJV translations of 1:14 that you listed speak of the word coming to be IN someone who was already flesh. And even if you found a translation that DID say the word came to be IN someone who was flesh, you will have found a doctored, untruthful translation.
3. I did read your cut and paste job, and didn't see one instance where someone's word was with themselves. But more importantly, I didn't see where ANYTHING was with someone while also BEING that someone at the same time. (Don't forget that not only was the Word WITH God, but your translation says it also WAS the very God it was WITH. So while one can poetically say that all wisdom resides with (or is with) God, one cannot truthfully say that wisdom IS God. Get it?)
Now, I made what I felt were some very good points in my rebuttal to your cut and paste. Were you going to even attempt to address those points? Or just continue “owning me”?
Mike,In our English language the words name and title are distinguished. Nowhere in Scripture will you ever find Yahshua being referred to my the NAME “The Word of Yahweh”. His GIVEN NAME is Yahshua.
“First, in Hebrew and Greek alike, there is no formal distinction between “name” and “title” as there is in English. The word used to express both concepts is the same in each language. In Hebrew, that word is shem; in Greek translation, onoma. Any form of personal address is a “name” in these languages. What kind of “name” is meant is determined by the verbal grammar and content as well as by the context.”
SOURCENew Living Translation (©2007)
He wore a robe dipped in blood, and his TITLE was the Word of God.Mike,
Set them apart by the truth; Your word is truth (Yahchanan 17:17).
I have hidden Your word IN my heart that I might not sin against You (Psalm 119:11).
But His word was IN mine heart as a burning fire shut up in my bones, and I was weary with forbearing, and I could not stay (Yeremyah 20:9).
If you remain in me and my words remain IN you, ask whatever you wish, and it will be given you (Yahchanan 15:7).
Fix these words of Mine IN your hearts and minds; tie them as symbols on your hands and bind them on your foreheads (Deuteronomy 11:18).
Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ June 18 2012,19:27) “First, in Hebrew and Greek alike, there is no formal distinction between “name” and “title” as there is in English. The word used to express both concepts is the same in each language.
Okay Frank. Let's not make this a debate about whether it should be “name” or “title”. Instead, why not address the actual point I made? Here it is again for you:Since we know Jesus has the TITLE “the Word of God” in Rev 19:13, which makes more sense:
1. The one who has the TITLE “the Word of God” became flesh, and dwelled among mankind with the glory of God's only begotten Son (which he also was)?
2. The plan of God BECAME flesh and dwelled among mankind with the glory of God's only begotten Son?
Quote (Nick Hassan @ June 18 2012,19:38) Hi MB,
Was Jesus always called the Word
even before he was called Jesus?
I suspect so, Nick. I believe he is the one who often came to Isaiah, Jeremiah, and the other prophets. When the Hebrew says, “The Word of YHWH came to me saying…………..” , I believe it is many times referring to the pre-existent Jesus.Why do you ask? Do you have evidence that he wasn't called “the Word” before the worlds were created through him?
Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ June 18 2012,19:53) Mike, Once again, YOU HAVE BEEN OWNED!
Yes Frank.I realize you call not addressing my points “owning me”. And I further realize that you have once again not addressed my points, thereby “owning me” yet again.
Instead of “owning me”, why not try to address the points I made?
(Btw, what are your latest scriptures supposed to prove? Do they show an instance where someone was not only with his own word, but his word actually was him?)
Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 19 2012,12:56) Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ June 18 2012,19:27) “First, in Hebrew and Greek alike, there is no formal distinction between “name” and “title” as there is in English. The word used to express both concepts is the same in each language.
Okay Frank. Let's not make this a debate about whether it should be “name” or “title”. Instead, why not address the actual point I made? Here it is again for you:Since we know Jesus has the TITLE “the Word of God” in Rev 19:13, which makes more sense:
1. The one who has the TITLE “the Word of God” became flesh, and dwelled among mankind with the glory of God's only begotten Son (which he also was)?
2. The plan of God BECAME flesh and dwelled among mankind with the glory of God's only begotten Son?
Mike,You seem to forget that I do not believe the foolishness that you believe that Father Yahweh's word is and actual being!
Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 19 2012,13:01) Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ June 18 2012,19:53) Mike, Once again, YOU HAVE BEEN OWNED!
Yes Frank.I realize you call not addressing my points “owning me”. And I further realize that you have once again not addressed my points, thereby “owning me” yet again.
Instead of “owning me”, why not try to address the points I made?
(Btw, what are your latest scriptures supposed to prove? Do they show an instance where someone was not only with his own word, but his word actually was him?)
Mike,I do not care to address the point that is on top of your head!
Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ June 19 2012,20:08) Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 19 2012,13:01) Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ June 18 2012,19:53) Mike, Once again, YOU HAVE BEEN OWNED!
Yes Frank.I realize you call not addressing my points “owning me”. And I further realize that you have once again not addressed my points, thereby “owning me” yet again.
Instead of “owning me”, why not try to address the points I made?
(Btw, what are your latest scriptures supposed to prove? Do they show an instance where someone was not only with his own word, but his word actually was him?)
Mike,I do not care to address the point that is on top of your head!
MikeFrank is gone on a spin can`t stop he be back as soon as he find an other flaw in his believe then argue it out with you
Mike,
So shall My word be that goes forth out of My mouth: it shall not return unto Me void, but IT shall accomplish that which I please, and IT shall prosper in the thing whereto I sent IT (Isayah 55:11).
Quote (terraricca @ June 19 2012,13:15) Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ June 19 2012,20:08) Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 19 2012,13:01) Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ June 18 2012,19:53) Mike, Once again, YOU HAVE BEEN OWNED!
Yes Frank.I realize you call not addressing my points “owning me”. And I further realize that you have once again not addressed my points, thereby “owning me” yet again.
Instead of “owning me”, why not try to address the points I made?
(Btw, what are your latest scriptures supposed to prove? Do they show an instance where someone was not only with his own word, but his word actually was him?)
Mike,I do not care to address the point that is on top of your head!
MikeFrank is gone on a spin can`t stop he be back as soon as he find an other flaw in his believe then argue it out with you
Piear,You are a flaw!
Hi MB,
You say
“I suspect so, Nick. I believe he is the one who often came to Isaiah, Jeremiah, and the other prophets. When the Hebrew says, “The Word of YHWH came to me saying…………..” , I believe it is many times referring to the pre-existent Jesus.”The prophets were visited by a lesser god?
The Spirit of Christ was in them[1peter 1] so how can both these things be true?
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