JOHN 1:1 who is the WORD?

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  • #302703
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Ed, would you mind directly addressing my post at the bottom of the previous page?

    #302704
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 17 2012,09:15)
    Right Ed.  The verse you posted speaks of God the Father, who raised Jesus from the dead…………….AND………………..His Spirit.

    See the word “AND”?  It signifies that TWO things are being spoken of.  Only ONE of those TWO things is “God”.


    Hi Mike,

    “God is Spirit: and they that worship him must worship in spirit and in truth.” (John 4:24)

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #302708
    942767
    Participant

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ June 16 2012,15:06)

    Quote (942767 @ June 16 2012,12:01)

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ June 15 2012,14:56)
    Hi 94,
    I do not think that is the scriptural meaning of MORPHE.
    Take you eyes off the man and focus on the work of the Spirit in him.


    Hi Nick:

    And so, what is the scriptual meaning of Morphe, according to you?

    The man had to be born into this world in order for that which was accomplished by God through him to happen, and the scripture states that in this last day God has spoken to us through His Son.

    And, John 3:16 states: “For God so loved the world that he gave His Only Begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish but have everlasting life.”

    I am teachable but you are going to have to show me by the scriptures.

    Love in Christ,
    Marty


    Hi 94,
    Number 3444
    Transliteration:
    morphe {mor-fay'}
    Word Origin:
    perhaps from the base of 3313 (through the idea of adjustment of parts)
    TDNT:
    4:742,607
    Part of Speech:
    noun feminine
    Usage in the KJV:
    form 3

    Total: 3
    Definition:
    the form by which a person or thing strikes the vision
    external appearance


    Hi Nick:

    I believe that definition is more in line with what I have stated than with trying to make this fit with Jesus being in a pre-existent state.

    Total: 3
    Definition:
    the form by which a person or thing strikes the vision
    external appearance

    Here is the way that the Pharisees and Scribes were seeing this:

    Quote
    Luk 5:20   And when he saw their faith, he said unto him, Man, thy sins are forgiven thee.  

    Luk 5:21   And the scribes and the Pharisees began to reason, saying, Who is this which speaketh blasphemies? Who can forgive sins, but God alone?  

    Luk 5:22   But when Jesus perceived their thoughts, he answering said unto them, What reason ye in your hearts?  

    Luk 5:23   Whether is easier, to say, Thy sins be forgiven thee; or to say, Rise up and walk?  

    Luk 5:24   But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power upon earth to forgive sins, (he said unto the sick of the palsy,) I say unto thee, Arise, and take up thy couch, and go into thine house.  

    Love in Christ,
    Marty

    #302709
    942767
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 16 2012,09:15)

    Quote (942767 @ June 14 2012,21:52)
    No, Nick:  He was in the form of God, in his ministry on earth.  He had been given the authority as God's Christ to forgive sins, but he did not let his position as God's Christ to go to his head, but he humbled himself and became obedient to God, even unto death on the cross.


    Hi Marty,

    So at which point in Jesus' ministry did he empty himself of his authority to forgive sins on earth and become made in the likeness of a human being?


    No, Mike, it was not stated that he emptied himself of this authority. He did not.

    Read my post again, and maybe you can figure it out.

    Love in Christ,
    Marty

    #302710
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ June 16 2012,17:41)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 17 2012,09:15)
    Right Ed.  The verse you posted speaks of God the Father, who raised Jesus from the dead…………….AND………………..His Spirit.

    See the word “AND”?  It signifies that TWO things are being spoken of.  Only ONE of those TWO things is “God”.


    Hi Mike,

    “God is Spirit: and they that worship him must worship in spirit and in truth.” (John 4:24)


    Okay Ed. Nevermind then.

    #302712
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 17 2012,11:02)

    Quote (Ed J @ June 16 2012,17:41)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 17 2012,09:15)
    Right Ed.  The verse you posted speaks of God the Father, who raised Jesus from the dead…………….AND………………..His Spirit.

    See the word “AND”?  It signifies that TWO things are being spoken of.  Only ONE of those TWO things is “God”.


    Hi Mike,

    “God is Spirit: and they that worship him must worship in spirit and in truth.” (John 4:24)


    Okay Ed.  Nevermind then.


    Hi Mike,

    God's Spirit is not a separate thing “AND” you already know that.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #302714
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Ed, God is not HIS Holy Spirit, and YOU should know that.

    World English Dictionary

    his (hɪz)

    1. of, belonging to: his knee

    Ed, notice that “his knee” is not “him”, but something that BELONGS TO “him”.

    Also notice the word “of”, and compare with my definition of “of” that I posted earlier for Nick.

    The simple fact is that the words “his” and “of” indicate POSSESSION, or something that BELONGS TO someone.

    This shouldn't be so hard. ???

    #302716
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 17 2012,11:19)
    Ed, God is not HIS Holy Spirit, and YOU should know that.

    World English Dictionary

    his  (hɪz)

    1. of, belonging to:  his knee

    Ed, notice that “his knee” is not “him”, but something that BELONGS TO “him”.

    Also notice the word “of”, and compare with my definition of “of” that I posted earlier for Nick.

    The simple fact is that the words “his” and “of” indicate POSSESSION, or something that BELONGS TO someone.

    This shouldn't be so hard.  ???


    Hi Mike,

    Neither Hebrew Masoretic texts nor Greek Textus Receptus
    have an equivalent for the English word of “of” AND you already know that.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #302717
    Ed J
    Participant

    Don't let the mind of Mike cause you to teach false doctrines.

    #302722
    terraricca
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ June 17 2012,18:38)
    Don't let the mind of Mike cause you to teach false doctrines.


    edj

    answer ;NO LET ME DO IT ,NOT YOU MIKE . :D :D :D

    #302723
    terraricca
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ June 17 2012,18:36)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 17 2012,11:19)
    Ed, God is not HIS Holy Spirit, and YOU should know that.

    World English Dictionary

    his  (hɪz)

    1. of, belonging to:  his knee

    Ed, notice that “his knee” is not “him”, but something that BELONGS TO “him”.

    Also notice the word “of”, and compare with my definition of “of” that I posted earlier for Nick.

    The simple fact is that the words “his” and “of” indicate POSSESSION, or something that BELONGS TO someone.

    This shouldn't be so hard.  ???


    Hi Mike,

    Neither Hebrew Masoretic texts nor Greek Textus Receptus
    have an equivalent for the English word of “of” AND you already know that.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    EDJ

    RIDICULE answer, tell me who would they know what it meant????

    #302726
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ June 16 2012,18:36)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 17 2012,11:19)
    Ed, God is not HIS Holy Spirit, and YOU should know that.

    World English Dictionary

    his  (hɪz)

    1. of, belonging to:  his knee

    Ed, notice that “his knee” is not “him”, but something that BELONGS TO “him”.

    Also notice the word “of”, and compare with my definition of “of” that I posted earlier for Nick.

    The simple fact is that the words “his” and “of” indicate POSSESSION, or something that BELONGS TO someone.

    This shouldn't be so hard.  ???


    Hi Mike,

    Neither Hebrew Masoretic texts nor Greek Textus Receptus
    have an equivalent for the English word of “of” AND you already know that.


    Ed,

    I thought you promised last time not to resort to the old “the Greek doesn't have the word 'of' “ defense.  ???

    You do know that in the Greek language, they would write the word in the genetive form in cases of possession, right?  Of course you know, because we've been through this about five times already.

    So in the Greek, it would be “the Holy Spirit (genitive form of) God”.  In English, we translate that as “the Holy Spirit OF God”, right?  And YOU already know that, don't you?

    So do you have an actual answer to my post (as opposed to the “of” diversion)?  Do you have a comment about how the example the World English Dictionary used was “his knee”, while telling us that “his” refers to POSSESSION?

    (I thought that example was fitting, since I believe that's one of the examples YOU used before, trying to tell my how “my knee” was “me”.  :) )

    #302727
    terraricca
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ June 17 2012,18:16)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 17 2012,11:02)

    Quote (Ed J @ June 16 2012,17:41)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 17 2012,09:15)
    Right Ed.  The verse you posted speaks of God the Father, who raised Jesus from the dead…………….AND………………..His Spirit.

    See the word “AND”?  It signifies that TWO things are being spoken of.  Only ONE of those TWO things is “God”.


    Hi Mike,

    “God is Spirit: and they that worship him must worship in spirit and in truth.” (John 4:24)


    Okay Ed.  Nevermind then.


    Hi Mike,

    God's Spirit is not a separate thing “AND” you already know that.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    edddy

    Quote
    God's Spirit is not a separate thing

    but is the holy spirit that same spirit ???

    and sins God his spirit would it mean that he his the holy spirit and his spirit and made of spirit ?????

    #302728
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (terraricca @ June 17 2012,12:09)

    Quote (Ed J @ June 17 2012,18:38)
    Don't let the mind of Mike cause you to teach false doctrines.


    edj

    answer ;NO LET ME DO IT ,NOT YOU MIKE . :D  :D  :D


    PIERRE,

    You shouldn't either.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #302729
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (terraricca @ June 17 2012,12:10)

    Quote (Ed J @ June 17 2012,18:36)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 17 2012,11:19)
    Ed, God is not HIS Holy Spirit, and YOU should know that.

    World English Dictionary

    his  (hɪz)

    1. of, belonging to:  his knee

    Ed, notice that “his knee” is not “him”, but something that BELONGS TO “him”.

    Also notice the word “of”, and compare with my definition of “of” that I posted earlier for Nick.

    The simple fact is that the words “his” and “of” indicate POSSESSION, or something that BELONGS TO someone.

    This shouldn't be so hard.  ???


    Hi Mike,

    Neither Hebrew Masoretic texts nor Greek Textus Receptus
    have an equivalent for the English word of “of” AND you already know that.

    God bless
    Ed J


    EDJ

    RIDICULE answer, tell me who would they know what it meant????


    Hi Pierre,

    The translators don't necessarily know what God meant.
    That is why the “AKJV Bible” was translated “word for word”.

    “For my thoughts are not your thoughts, neither are your ways my ways,
    saith the LORD. For as the heavens are higher than the earth, so are my ways
    higher than your ways, and my thoughts than your thoughts.” (Isaiah 55:8-9)

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #302730
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 17 2012,12:12)

    Quote (Ed J @ June 16 2012,18:36)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 17 2012,11:19)
    Ed, God is not HIS Holy Spirit, and YOU should know that.

    World English Dictionary

    his  (hɪz)

    1. of, belonging to:  his knee

    Ed, notice that “his knee” is not “him”, but something that BELONGS TO “him”.

    Also notice the word “of”, and compare with my definition of “of” that I posted earlier for Nick.

    The simple fact is that the words “his” and “of” indicate POSSESSION, or something that BELONGS TO someone.

    This shouldn't be so hard.  ???


    Hi Mike,

    Neither Hebrew Masoretic texts nor Greek Textus Receptus
    have an equivalent for the English word of “of” AND you already know that.


    Ed,

    I thought you promised last time not to resort to the old “the Greek doesn't have the word 'of' “ defense.  ???

    You do know that in the Greek language, they would write the word in the genetive form in cases of possession, right?  Of course you know, because we've been through this about five times already.

    So in the Greek, it would be “the Holy Spirit (genitive form of) God”.  In English, we translate that as “the Holy Spirit OF God”, right?  And YOU already know that, don't you?

    So do you have an actual answer to my post (as opposed to the “of” diversion)?  Do you have a comment about how the example the World English Dictionary used was “his knee”, while telling us that “his” refers to POSSESSION?

    (I thought that example was fitting, since I believe that's one of the examples YOU used before, trying to tell my how “my knee” was “me”.  :) )


    Hi Mike, we must look to the Greek, not English to understand what God meant.  (Link)

    For the most part, the genitive is often viewed as the case of possession. In more technical terms one noun in the genitive case helps to qualify another noun by showing its “class” or “kind”. The genitive case has more uses than most other cases, but in general a noun in the genitive case helps to limit the scope of another noun by indicating its “kind” or “class”. It is generally translated into English with a prepositional phrase starting with the word “of”. The most common use of the genitive is to show possession (although it does not necessarily indicate actual, literal ownership).

    For instance: “the servant of the high priest” (Mark 14:47). The words “of the high priest” are in the genitive case in Greek and modify the word “servant”. (In Greek the word “of” is not present, but it is supplied in English in the translation of the genitive case). Here the genitive helps to qualify “which” servant the writer is referring to. It is helping to limit the sphere of all servants to a particular one.

    And: “But you have received a spirit of sonship…” (Rom 8:15). Again the word “sonship” is in the genitive case, telling what kind of spirit we have received. (Please be sure to see the list of 'Reference Sheets' where the genitive and other uses and classifications can be printed out for quick reference.)

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #302739
    terraricca
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ June 17 2012,19:19)

    Quote (terraricca @ June 17 2012,12:10)

    Quote (Ed J @ June 17 2012,18:36)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 17 2012,11:19)
    Ed, God is not HIS Holy Spirit, and YOU should know that.

    World English Dictionary

    his  (hɪz)

    1. of, belonging to:  his knee

    Ed, notice that “his knee” is not “him”, but something that BELONGS TO “him”.

    Also notice the word “of”, and compare with my definition of “of” that I posted earlier for Nick.

    The simple fact is that the words “his” and “of” indicate POSSESSION, or something that BELONGS TO someone.

    This shouldn't be so hard.  ???


    Hi Mike,

    Neither Hebrew Masoretic texts nor Greek Textus Receptus
    have an equivalent for the English word of “of” AND you already know that.

    God bless
    Ed J


    EDJ

    RIDICULE answer, tell me who would they know what it meant????


    Hi Pierre,

    The translators don't necessarily know what God meant.
    That is why the “AKJV Bible” was translated “word for word”.

    “For my thoughts are not your thoughts, neither are your ways my ways,
    saith the LORD. For as the heavens are higher than the earth, so are my ways
    higher than your ways, and my thoughts than your thoughts.” (Isaiah 55:8-9)

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    edj

    i disagree with you scriptures are showing the difference but most of you guys do not see it or refuse to see it

    all tree are different ,but if it is not given to you to see it what can I do and others that see this ????

    #302743
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ June 16 2012,19:28)
    The most common use of the genitive is to show possession (although it does not necessarily indicate actual, literal ownership).

    For instance: “the servant of the high priest” (Mark 14:47).


    And is “the servant” the same person as “the high priest”, Ed?

    NO, because the servant is OF the high priest, right?

    Ed, God SENDS HIS Holy Spirit to those He chooses.  Surley God cannot SEND Himself.

    Ed, let's go back to the scripture YOU posted: If the Spirit of Him who raised Jesus from the dead dwells in you……..

    If the Spirit IS God, and the Him who raised Jesus IS God, then that scripture teaches us that the GOD OF GOD dwells in us.

    If that makes sense to you, then believe it. I'm done with this discussion. We've already discussed this 5 times before, and it always ends up feeling like I'm telling a little kid the sky is blue, while he just keeps yelling, “No it's not! It's GREEN!”.

    #302748
    Ed J
    Participant

    Hi Mike,

    “Thou sendest forth thy spirit, they are created:
    and thou renewest the face of the earth.” (Psalms 104:30)

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #302749
    Ed J
    Participant

    Hi Mike,

    You have said on more than one occasion that he does not dwell in you.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

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