JOHN 1:1 who is the WORD?

Viewing 20 posts - 6,621 through 6,640 (of 25,908 total)
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  • #295552
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ April 30 2012,03:17)

    Quote (Ed J @ April 29 2012,09:58)
    Besides,
    this it the thread you should address my post in.


    Then WHY did you post it in the OTHER THREAD?   ???

    Pick one thread, Ed, and I will address your post.  Would you like me to address it HERE, or THERE?

    Quote (Ed J @ April 29 2012,09:58)
    What do you say about God being IN Jesus?


    Do I need to refer you back to the Peter Frampton song, I'm in You again?

    If you want to use the poetic references of God (or Jesus) being “IN” us as proof of your understanding of John 1:14, then you need to show proof of John using the word “IN” in 1:14.


    Hi Mike,

    Because you are discussing the same thing in more than one thread.
    This is the thread to which the discussion does belong; agreed?
    The three associated verses (below) establish the matter.

    “At the mouth of three witnesses,
      shall the matter be established.” (Deut 19:15)

    1) Acts 10:38 How God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the HolySpirit and with power:
    who went about doing good, and healing all that were oppressed of the devil;
    for God was with (in more term “IN”) him.

    2) 2Cor 5:19 To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the
    world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them;
    and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.

    3) John 14:10 Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the
    Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of
    myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works.

    With μετά (met-ah')
    with which it is joined;
    properly, denoting accompaniment.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #295554
    jammin
    Participant

    LOL

    edj is so hard headed. he explains what the bible did not teach LOL. you are making your own explanation edj LOL

    #295557
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (jammin @ April 30 2012,03:50)
    LOL

    edj is so hard headed. he explains what the bible did not teach LOL. you are making your own explanation edj LOL


    Hi Jammin,

    You don't agree that the bible explains the bible?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #295562
    jammin
    Participant

    the bible is correct but your interpretation is wrong. LOL

    i already posted the meaning of those verses before but you are still using it to support your illusion LOL

    your understanding to that verse is not the real meaning of the verse. LOL

    deut 19.15 refers to the case crime committed

    Deuteronomy 19:15

    New Living Translation (NLT)

    15 “You must not convict anyone of a crime on the testimony of only one witness. The facts of the case must be established by the testimony of two or three witnesses.

    God was in christ means God was making all human beings his friends thru christ
    2 Corinthians 5:19

    Good News Translation (GNT)
    19 Our message is that God was making all human beings his friends through Christ.[a] God did not keep an account of their sins, and he has given us the message which tells how he makes them his friends.

    christ is not the father. the father is not the son

    #295564
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ April 29 2012,10:45)
    This is the thread to which the discussion does belong; agreed?
    The three associated verses (below) establish the matter.

    “At the mouth of three witnesses,
      shall the matter be established.” (Deut 19:15)

    1) Acts 10:38
    …..for God was with (in more term “IN”) him.

    2) 2Cor 5:19 To wit, that God was in Christ,

    3) John 14:10
    but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works.

    With μετά (met-ah')
    with which it is joined;
    properly, denoting accompaniment.

    God bless
    Ed J


    Okay Ed,

    Then let's discuss it in this thread, and not both of them.

    You've claimed for a long time that the Word was God.  But that doesn't work unless you believe God became flesh, and dwelled among us with the glory of God's only begotten.

    Also, let's see where your claim takes us in this verse:
    John 6:38 (King James Version)
    For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me.

    Ed, WHO came down from heaven?  If it was God, then why did God come, NOT to do His own will, but the will of God?   ???

    #295567
    jammin
    Participant

    mike it was God, not the father but the son who is also God by nature.

    #295571
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Your understanding arrives at the same problem in John 6:38 as Ed's does, jammin.

    If the one who came down from heaven was God Himself, then how is it that God Himself has a DIFFERENT will than God Himself? ???

    Don't you see that whoever came down from heaven had HIS OWN will, which apparently differed from the will of the One who sent him?

    #295572
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ April 30 2012,02:27)
    Okay Ed,

    Also, let's see where your claim takes us in this verse:
    John 6:38 (King James Version)
    For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me.

    Ed, (1)WHO came down from heaven?  (2)If it was God, then why did God come, (3)NOT to do His own will, but the will of God?   ???


    Hi Mike,

    This is a separate point altogether.

    1) Christ
    2) God became flesh at Jesus baptism. (see John 1:14)
      (and Ex. 3:14) “I will be what I will be
    3) This point is another point,
        not connected.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #295573
    jammin
    Participant

    Christ is God by nature mike.

    let the bible answer you
    phil 2.6
    For he, who had always been God by nature, did not cling to his prerogatives as God’s equal,

    you agree mike that Christ have the same nature as his father, God.

    #295574
    jammin
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ April 30 2012,04:22)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ April 30 2012,02:27)
    Okay Ed,

    Also, let's see where your claim takes us in this verse:
    John 6:38 (King James Version)
    For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me.

    Ed, (1)WHO came down from heaven?  (2)If it was God, then why did God come, (3)NOT to do His own will, but the will of God?   ???


    Hi Mike,

    This is a separate point altogether.

    1) Christ
    2) God became flesh at Jesus baptism. (see John 1:14)
      (and Ex. 3:14) “I will be what I will be
    3) This point is another point,
        not connected.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    there is no word baptism in john 1.14

    that is just your opinion LOL :D

    you are a doctor kwak kwak dude :D

    #295575
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (jammin @ April 30 2012,04:24)
    Christ is God by nature mike.

    let the bible answer you
    phil 2.6
    For he, who had always been God by nature, did not cling to his prerogatives as God’s equal,

    you agree mike that Christ have the same nature as his father, God.


    Hi Jammin,

    Did you read the 'book of Urantia'?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #295576
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (jammin @ April 30 2012,04:25)

    Quote (Ed J @ April 30 2012,04:22)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ April 30 2012,02:27)
    Okay Ed,

    Also, let's see where your claim takes us in this verse:
    John 6:38 (King James Version)
    For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me.

    Ed, (1)WHO came down from heaven?  (2)If it was God, then why did God come, (3)NOT to do His own will, but the will of God?   ???


    Hi Mike,

    This is a separate point altogether.

    1) Christ
    2) God became flesh at Jesus baptism. (see John 1:14)
      (and Ex. 3:14) “I will be what I will be
    3) This point is another point,
        not connected.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    there is no word baptism in john 1.14

    that is just your opinion LOL  :D

    you are a doctor kwak kwak dude  :D


    Hi Jammin,

    1) Acts 10:38 How God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the HolySpirit and with power:
    who went about doing good, and healing all that were oppressed of the devil;
    for God was with (in more term “IN”) him. (see John 1:14)

    With μετά (met-ah')
    with which it is joined;
    properly, denoting accompaniment.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #295579
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ April 29 2012,11:22)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ April 30 2012,02:27)
    Okay Ed,

    Also, let's see where your claim takes us in this verse:
    John 6:38 (King James Version)
    For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me.

    Ed, (1)WHO came down from heaven?  (2)If it was God, then why did God come, (3)NOT to do His own will, but the will of God?   ???


    Hi Mike,

    This is a separate point altogether.

    1) Christ
    2) God became flesh at Jesus baptism. (see John 1:14)
      (and Ex. 3:14) “I will be what I will be
    3) This point is another point,
        not connected.

    God bless
    Ed J


    1.  So “Christ” is a separate being/person/entity than his own God, right?  And Christ existed as this separate being/person/entity before he came down from heaven, right?

    2.   God never became flesh.  You think the Holy Spirit is God, right?  So if that SPIRIT BECAME FLESH, it would no longer have been spirit anymore.

    3.  Sure it is, because WHOEVER/WHATEVER came down from heaven had a DIFFERENT will than that of the One who sent him down from heaven.

    (Ed, if you continue to stick to the point and not play games, I will continue to discuss this with you. But know that the minute you start playing your usual games, I will go back to ignoring your posts like I usually do.)

    #295580
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ April 30 2012,04:37)

    Quote (Ed J @ April 29 2012,11:22)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ April 30 2012,02:27)
    Okay Ed,

    Also, let's see where your claim takes us in this verse:
    John 6:38 (King James Version)
    For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me.

    Ed, (1)WHO came down from heaven?  (2)If it was God, then why did God come, (3)NOT to do His own will, but the will of God?   ???


    Hi Mike,

    This is a separate point altogether.

    1) Christ
    2) God became flesh at Jesus baptism. (see John 1:14)
      (and Ex. 3:14) “I will be what I will be
    3) This point is another point,
        not connected.

    God bless
    Ed J


    1.  (A)So “Christ” is a separate being/person/entity than his own God, right?  (B)And Christ existed as this separate being/person/entity before he came down from heaven, right?

    2.   (A)God never became flesh.  (B)You think the Holy Spirit is God, right?  (C)So if that SPIRIT BECAME FLESH, it would no longer have been spirit anymore.

    3.  Sure it is, because WHOEVER/WHATEVER came down from heaven had a DIFFERENT will than that of the One who sent him down from heaven.


    Hi Mike,

    1A) Yep
    1B) Nope

    2A) The HolySpirit became flesh. (see John 1:14)
        “I will be what I will be”
    2B) You think differently?
    2C) Are you not spirit and flesh?

    3) Both Jesus and the “HolySpirit” came down from heaven.
       “If the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he(HolySpirit)
         that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you.
    ” (Rom.8:11)

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #295581
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ April 30 2012,04:37)
    (Ed, if you continue to stick to the point and not play games, I will continue to discuss this with you.  But know that the minute you start playing your usual games, I will go back to ignoring your posts like I usually do.


    What games?

    #295582
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ April 29 2012,12:13)
    3) Both Jesus and the “HolySpirit” came down from heaven.


    Thank you.  This is what I've been saying all along.  There is no need to discuss your misconceptions, like the Holy Spirit OF God being the God it is the Holy Spirit OF.

    The scriptural fact is that whoever “came down from heaven” had a different will than the One who sent him down from heaven.  In order for there to be TWO wills, there have to be TWO entities.

    Therefore, there were TWO entities in heaven with TWO separate wills.  One of those TWO entities (Jesus) was sent down from heaven by the OTHER of those TWO entites (God).

    #295588
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi MB,
    Logic rules-ok?

    #295591
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ April 30 2012,05:43)

    Quote (Ed J @ April 29 2012,12:13)
    3) Both Jesus and the “HolySpirit” came down from heaven.


    Thank you.  (1)This is what I've been saying all along.  There is no need to discuss your misconceptions, like (2)the Holy Spirit OF God being the God it is the Holy Spirit OF.

    (3)The scriptural fact is that whoever “came down from heaven” had a different will than the One who sent him down from heaven.  (4)In order for there to be TWO wills, there have to be TWO entities.

    (5)Therefore, there were TWO entities in heaven with TWO separate wills.  (6)One of those TWO entities (Jesus) was sent down from heaven by the OTHER of those TWO entites (God).


    Hi Mike,

    1) You been saying that the HolySpirit came down from heaven too.
        Then do you agree that's what 1John 1:14 and Acts 10:38 mean?
    2) What?    …the Spirit OF Mike being the Mike it is the Spirit OF.    <– the same goes for you, please explain?

    3) Are you speaking of Christ here or the HolySpirit since you agree they both came down from heaven?
    4) That goes without saying. Yes, of course, two wills, two entities.
    5) In heaven?   …see John 14:23.
    6) John 13:16

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #295598
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Ed,

    Didn't you just say that JESUS came down from heaven?

    Since you did, we agree; meaning there is no reason for me to play the “my spirit is me” games yet again, right?

    If you agree that JESUS came down from heaven, not to do HIS will, but instead to do the will of He who sent him, then we are in agreement.

    If, on the other hand, you think it was GOD who came down from heaven, not do do HIS (God's) will, but instead to do GOD'S will, then you have been listening to Nick for too long.

    #295600
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ April 29 2012,13:28)
    4) That goes without saying. Yes, of course, two wills, two entities.


    Hallelujah! We agree again.

    Tell me who these two entities with separate wills were, one of whom was sent down from heaven by the other one.

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