- This topic has 25,959 replies, 116 voices, and was last updated 1 month, 1 week ago by Keith.
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- March 19, 2012 at 4:52 pm#286060Ed JParticipant
Quote (kerwin @ Mar. 19 2012,10:22) Quote (Ed J @ Mar. 19 2012,03:56) Quote (kerwin @ Mar. 19 2012,08:50) Mike, The Greek verbs forms do not parallel English verb forms and thus the grammar may seem awkward to some. We see the same thing occur when one that grew up speaking a foreign language learns to speak English.
The experts attempt to adjust for that using various solutions.
I seek such knowledge because I like intellectual puzzles.
Hi Kerwin,That is why 1611 English is a better fit.
Your brother
in Christ, Jesus.
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
holycitybiblecode.org
Ed J,The AKJV is not in 1611 English. They used “f” for “t” and other things to make it hard to understand. Never the less you may be correct that the grammar was closer to Greek.
March 19, 2012 at 5:24 pm#286062Ed JParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 19 2012,11:46) Quote (Nick Hassan @ Mar. 18 2012,12:46) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 19 2012,05:09) God cannot be WITH God, Nick. The Word was a god who was with THE God in the beginning. This is how John wrote it, and that is what it means.
Hi MB,
You understand this much about God??
Or this little??Put away the theology textbooks
Nick,This is the kind of response that brings out the “bile” from people like me and Pierre. What exactly did you hope to gain from that post?
It is a smart-assed way to AVOID the point in question. You do it often, and it makes YOU a fool, not us.
The POINT is that John wrote THE theos only once in 1:1. He did not write, the Word was with THE theos and was THE theos. He called only one of the two theos mentioned “THE theos”.
You are always harping about being scripturally accurate, Nick. Put your money where your mouth is. In John 1:1, one was THE God, and the other was not THE God, or John would have wrote the word “THE” before BOTH “theos”, like he wrote it before both “logos”. He wrote the definite article before only ONE of the theos for a reason, Nick.
Hi Mike,You say to be accurate to Nick, yet you are not accurate yourself. The definite article
is not used with “Theos”, it's only used with the word “Logos”; please take note!God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgMarch 20, 2012 at 12:32 am#286127mikeboll64BlockedEd,
The definite article precedes ALL THREE mentions of “logos”, and the mention of “theos” only in part b.
Transliterated, it says: “in beginning was THE logos and THE logos was with THE theos and theos was THE logos”
Notice that it doesn't say, “and THE theos was THE logos”.
This translates into, “the Word was with THE god, and the Word was a god”.
God cannot be WITH Himself. I can't believe how many people are willing to pretend that nonsense is reality to justify their flawed doctrines.
March 20, 2012 at 12:35 am#286128mikeboll64BlockedQuote (Ed J @ Mar. 19 2012,10:51) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 19 2012,05:09) God cannot be WITH God, Nick. The Word was a god who was with THE God in the beginning. This is how John wrote it, and that is what it means.
Hi Mike,Greek does not have “indefinite articles” SO JOHN COULD NOT HAVE WROTE THAT;
are you lying or misinformed? …or perhaps you just made a mistake? …which is it?
God bless
Ed J
Ed,Does your AKJV have indefinite articles?
Were the ones who translated it lying, misinformed, or made 7000 mistakes?
March 20, 2012 at 1:01 am#286135charityParticipantQuote (jammin @ Mar. 19 2012,21:00) the Word is Christ. the son of GOD verse 14.
he is truly GOD!the thread has been answered
so can we charged the book with fraud? because that the logical thing to do if you desire to stop playing in the icing an find out what sort of cakes been served.March 20, 2012 at 3:30 am#286169Ed JParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 20 2012,11:32) Ed, The definite article precedes ALL THREE mentions of “logos”, and the mention of “theos” only in part b.
Transliterated, it says: “in beginning was THE logos and THE logos was with THE theos and theos was THE logos”
Notice that it doesn't say, “and THE theos was THE logos”.
This translates into, “the Word was with THE god, and the Word was a god”.
God cannot be WITH Himself. I can't believe how many people are willing to pretend that nonsense is reality to justify their flawed doctrines.
Hi Mike,Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος
Sorry, I stand corrected. …in English it isn't necessary though.
(Google) In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God, and God was the reason.
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgMarch 20, 2012 at 3:34 am#286170Ed JParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 20 2012,11:35) Quote (Ed J @ Mar. 19 2012,10:51) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 19 2012,05:09) God cannot be WITH God, Nick. The Word was a god who was with THE God in the beginning. This is how John wrote it, and that is what it means.
Hi Mike,Greek does not have “indefinite articles” SO JOHN COULD NOT HAVE WROTE THAT;
are you lying or misinformed? …or perhaps you just made a mistake? …which is it?
God bless
Ed J
Ed,Does your AKJV have indefinite articles?
Were the ones who translated it lying, misinformed, or made 7000 mistakes?
Hi Mike,None of the above, as “it”(a)
does not belong in John 1:1!
It is YOU who is misinformed.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgMarch 20, 2012 at 3:41 am#286174jamminParticipantQuote (charity @ Mar. 20 2012,12:01) Quote (jammin @ Mar. 19 2012,21:00) the Word is Christ. the son of GOD verse 14.
he is truly GOD!the thread has been answered
so can we charged the book with fraud? because that the logical thing to do if you desire to stop playing in the icing an find out what sort of cakes been served.
that's what john says in john 1.1
why dont you read your bible.john says that the WORD IS GOD!
the WORD BECAME FLESH in verse 14.that WORD IS THE SON OF GOD! CHRIST IS CALLED THE WORD!
John 1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.14 And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth
believe it or not
March 20, 2012 at 3:47 am#286178NickHassanParticipantHi Jammin,
Yes the Word became flesh and dwelt amongst us.
The Word is OF God.March 20, 2012 at 4:30 am#286191jamminParticipantnick,
the word is the son of GOD
14 And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth
March 20, 2012 at 4:33 am#286194NickHassanParticipantHi Jammin ,
yes.
he was born of God.
Sons are not their fathers though.March 20, 2012 at 4:39 am#286203jamminParticipantyou and your father have the same nature, MAN
do you agree?
March 20, 2012 at 5:24 am#286225Ed JParticipantQuote (jammin @ Mar. 20 2012,14:41) john says that the WORD IS GOD!
the WORD BECAME FLESH in verse 14.
Hi Jammin,You finally said something Scriptural. YEAAAA!!!!!
YES, “The Word” became flesh at the Jordan river!1 Timothy 3:16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:
God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto
the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgMarch 20, 2012 at 5:28 am#286226NickHassanParticipantQuote (jammin @ Mar. 20 2012,15:39) you and your father have the same nature, MAN do you agree?
Hi Jammin,
The man Jesus was joined with the Word of God.
Jesus CHRISTMarch 20, 2012 at 5:29 am#286229jamminParticipantQuote (Ed J @ Mar. 20 2012,16:24) Quote (jammin @ Mar. 20 2012,14:41) john says that the WORD IS GOD!
the WORD BECAME FLESH in verse 14.
Hi Jammin,You finally said something Scriptural. YEAAAA!!!!!
YES,[/b] “The Word” became flesh at the Jordan river!1 Timothy 3:16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:
God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto
the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
you said: “The Word” became flesh at the Jordan river!what?????!!!!!!!! where can i read that??
ahahahahahyour doctrine is so funny!
this is what the bible says
gal 4
4 But then the right time came. God sent his Son. A woman gave birth to him. He was born under the authority of the law.GOD SENT HIS SON! the sending of his son is the first and then the woman gave birth to him! that is the incarnation. he became flesh!
do you understand the order of the sentence??
pls read that well!
March 20, 2012 at 5:32 am#286230NickHassanParticipantHi Jammin,
Yes His Son was sent into the world.
Jesus sent his brothers too.March 20, 2012 at 5:52 am#286233Ed JParticipantQuote (jammin @ Mar. 20 2012,16:29) “The Word” became flesh at the Jordan river! what?????!!!!!!!! where can i read that??
ahahahahahyour doctrine is so funny!
Hi Jammin, John 1:14, 1John 1:1-3The systems of religion and traditions of men communicate…
distortions of truth, confusion of mind, and distractions of spirit.“The Word”(Ho Logos) which ye hear is not mine, but the Father's (John 14:24)
2 Corinthians 5:19 To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them;
and hath committed unto us “The Word”(Ho Logos) of reconciliation.the glory as of the only begotten of the Father (John 1:14)
compared with the glory which shall be revealed in us. (Romans 8:18)The Word of the oath, which was since the law,
maketh the Son, who is consecrated for evermore. (Hebrews 7:28)1Pet.1:23 Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of
incorruptible, by “The Word” of God, which liveth and abideth for ever.Of his own will begat he us with “The Word” of truth,
that we should be a kind of firstfruits of his creatures. (James 1:18)God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgMarch 20, 2012 at 6:53 am#286251kerwinParticipantQuote (jammin @ Mar. 20 2012,10:39) you and your father have the same nature, MAN do you agree?
Jammin,Me and my Lord Jesus have the same physical nature, humanity.
My goal is to have the same spiritual nature as him; divine.March 20, 2012 at 9:54 am#286273charityParticipantQuote (jammin @ Mar. 20 2012,14:41) Quote (charity @ Mar. 20 2012,12:01) Quote (jammin @ Mar. 19 2012,21:00) the Word is Christ. the son of GOD verse 14.
he is truly GOD!the thread has been answered
so can we charged the book with fraud? because that the logical thing to do if you desire to stop playing in the icing an find out what sort of cakes been served.
that's what john says in john 1.1
why dont you read your bible.john says that the WORD IS GOD!
the WORD BECAME FLESH in verse 14.that WORD IS THE SON OF GOD! CHRIST IS CALLED THE WORD!
John 1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.14 And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth
believe it or not
yes I know what the bible say's
so if a book of “words” is barking up the wrong tree to big note itself from the beginning, its using a tubo, to power into the lead, hence it dose stop to bicker an destroy those that are of their father the devil, in such blatent disrespect; at the very time jesus had been preaching …all men come as you are….the words a big fat bully! that makes Jesus spit in mud an rub it in mans eye's. god doSN'T need to use piggy behaviour to use on invalids while sores an scabies are rampid.. An As if God forgot to tell his word to mention Abrahams an the twelve tribes it was down right dangerous to bred with cousins an half sisters, that would soon full the city with lame an sick of palsy…many in need of healing.March 20, 2012 at 9:58 am#286275jamminParticipantnick answer my question
you and your father have the same nature, MANdo you agree?
yes or no?
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