Is this proof that Jesus IS the Word?

[mikeboll64]

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,23:00)

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 18 2011,05:24) “Ruling with an iron sceptor”. Hi Mike, The verse that I wish to cite is Psalm 110:1-2… The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool. The LORD shall send the rod of thy strength out of Zion: rule thou in the midst of thine enemies. (Psalm 110:1-2) The Word “I” in verse 1 is JEHOVAH; is it not? Is the “HolySpirit” not the “rod of Jesus' strength”? This is the rod of iron spoken of in Rev 19:15 and Psalm 2:9. NOTICE how this phrase rod of iron is conveniently left out of Rev.17:14? So the question is: Who is making Jesus' enemies Jesus' footstool? In Revelation 19:11-21 we find it's the “HolySpirit” of God, who IS “The Word” of God and the rod of iron! God bless Ed J

Hi Ed,

I don't know of any scripture that says the Holy Spirit is the “rod of Jesus' strength”.

Instead of diverting, just address my point that the same words are said about the Lamb in Rev 17 as are said about the Word of God in Rev 19………….ie:  “Ruling with an iron sceptor”.

Do you ACCEPT and ACKNOWLEDGE this scriptural FACT? YES or NO?

[mikeboll64]

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,23:01)

Jesus overcame them in Revelation 17:14, because God's HolySpirit raised Jesus back to life. (Rom.8:11) Now he sits in the heavens laughing(Psalm 2:4), as the “HolySpirit” drills these kings. (Rev.19:11-21)

The event recorded in Rev 17 is the same event from Rev 19. Both chapters speak of a future event. In 17, the one who will be attacked by the beast and his kings is the Lamb. In 19, it is the same attack by the same beast and his same kings, but it is the Word of God who they attack. That's why I asked if there are going to be TWO battles.

And Rom 8:11 does not say Jesus was raised to life by the Holy Spirit.

[mikeboll64]

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,23:02)

Jesus (according to some) is The Word: Is the possibility that this belief may not be Biblical, not worth exploring?

Ed, many people who have a wish for Jesus to have been nothing but “exactly like them” have tried to ignore or twist the obvious in John 1:14.

But YOU are the ONLY one I've ever spoken to who doesn't accept that the Word of God in Rev 19 is Jesus. Paladin, Kerwin, Gene and Marty all agree that Jesus is the Word of God in Rev 19. What's your hangup?

[mikeboll64]

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,23:02)

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 18 2011,05:24) (1)Romans 8:11 says, ” And if the Spirit of him who raised Jesus from the dead is living in you…………”  Do you see the words “OF HIM”?  Paul speaks of the ONE who raised Jesus from the grave, (God), and the Spirit OF God living in us. (2)So please DIRECTLY address my point:  Was the Lamb of God getting overwhelmed by the beast and the kings of the earth (3)and so the Word of God had to be sent to his aid?  YES or NO?  (4)And if “YES”, then please point out the scriptures that say this happened (will happen). Hi Mike, 1) The Spirit that raised Jesus from the dead IS the “HolySpirit” that lives in all born again believers. 2) He was crucified, was he not? 3) “The Word”(HolySpirit) of God was sent as our aid. 4) This happened starting at Pentecost. (See John 14:23 and Hebrews 9:28) God bless Ed J

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,23:02)

1) The Spirit that raised Jesus from the dead IS the “HolySpirit” that lives in all born again believers.

1.  Ed, can you not even read?    Romans 8:11 says “……the Spirit OF HIM who raised Jesus……..”  It was a HIM who raised Jesus, and Paul is speaking of the Spirit OF that One in 8:11.  

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,23:02)

2) He was crucified, was he not?

Do you think the events of Rev 17 already took place when Jesus was on earth?  Read the words of Rev 1:1, Ed.  Events that SOON WILL TAKE PLACE.  John had this revelation of things that SOON WOULD TAKE PLACE way after Jesus had been crucified.

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,23:02)

3) “The Word”(HolySpirit) of God was sent as our aid.

My question was, was the Lamb in Rev 17 losing the battle against the beast and the kings of the earth, and then the Word of God had to be sent to help HIM (not US)?  If so, then where do I read about this?

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,23:02)

4) This happened starting at Pentecost. (See John 14:23 and Hebrews 9:28)

Read my second answer above.  Then show me where I can read about the Word rescuing the Lamb IN THE BOOK OF REVELATION.

[mikeboll64]

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,23:28)

Do you feel that you know more than the AKJV Bible translators; yes or no? John 1:3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

So your “PROOF” is: “The KJV translators say so!” ?

Thank you for admitting you have no proof.

[mikeboll64]

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,23:39)

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 18 2011,12:15) Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,17:39) Hi Mike, AKJV Bible (1Corinthians 8:6) works for me. All things means all things; we agree on this point. Good Ed.  (1)And it is the SAME EXACT “all things” that came FROM the Father that also came THROUGH Jesus.  (2)So if the earth is one of the “all things” that came FROM the Father, then the earth is also one of the “all things” that came THROUGH Jesus. (3)Are we STILL in agreement? Hi Mike, 1) Yes 2) Are you implying that Jesus helped do all the creating?     Or that it was through something Jesus did that God was able to do all the creating alone? 3) That depends on your answer to my question #2. God bless Ed J

Please just answer my question, Ed. If the scripture says ALL THINGS, including the earth, came FROM the Father, then that same ALL THINGS, including the earth came THROUGH Jesus – according to Paul.

My understanding of what “all things coming through Jesus” entails is not important to YOUR answer of the simple question.

[mikeboll64]

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,23:40)

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 18 2011,12:16) Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,17:39) Father, save me from this hour: but for this cause came I (from Heaven) unto this hour So then you DO agree that the PERSON Jesus came down from heaven?   Hi Mike, Yes God bless Ed J

Then WHY are we even having this discussion? If you know that the PERSON Jesus was the only begotten Son of God that God sent into the world, then why is it so hard for you to understand that he is the Word of God who was made flesh and had the glory of the only begotten Son of God that he was?

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 19 2011,14:09)

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,23:00) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 18 2011,05:24) “Ruling with an iron sceptor”. Hi Mike, The verse that I wish to cite is Psalm 110:1-2… The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool. The LORD shall send the rod of thy strength out of Zion: rule thou in the midst of thine enemies. (Psalm 110:1-2) The Word “I” in verse 1 is JEHOVAH; is it not? Is the “HolySpirit” not the “rod of Jesus' strength”? This is the rod of iron spoken of in Rev 19:15 and Psalm 2:9. NOTICE how this phrase rod of iron is conveniently left out of Rev.17:14? So the question is: Who is making Jesus' enemies Jesus' footstool? In Revelation 19:11-21 we find it's the “HolySpirit” of God, who IS “The Word” of God and the rod of iron! God bless Ed J Hi Ed, I don't know of any scripture that says the Holy Spirit is the “rod of Jesus' strength”. Instead of diverting, just address my point that the same words are said about the Lamb in Rev 17 as are said about the Word of God in Rev 19………….ie:  “Ruling with an iron sceptor”. Do you ACCEPT and ACKNOWLEDGE this scriptural FACT?  YES or NO?

Hi Mike,

“Rod of iron” is used in both Psalm 2 and Rev.19.
I explained why, but you don't seem to be interested in that
so most likely this second sentence will be “CLIPPED” form the quote.
It's a fact that the words “rod of iron” does not appear in Revelation 17, sorry.

Here is another verse for you to consider…

And he that overcometh, and keepeth my works unto the end,
to him will I give power over the nations: And he shall rule them with a rod of iron;
as the vessels of a potter shall they be broken to shivers: even as I received of my Father. (Rev 2:26-27)

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 19 2011,14:20)

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,23:02) Jesus (according to some) is The Word: Is the possibility that this belief may not be Biblical, not worth exploring? Ed, many people who have a wish for Jesus to have been nothing but “exactly like them” have tried to ignore or twist the obvious in John 1:14. But YOU are the ONLY one I've ever spoken to who doesn't accept that the Word of God in Rev 19 is Jesus.  Paladin, Kerwin, Gene and Marty all agree that Jesus is the Word of God in Rev 19.  What's your hangup?

Hi Mike,

I have researched the bible for over 40 years,
and have come to this conclusion based on The Bible.

Consider what the bible says in the verse…

Let God be true, but every man a liar; as it is written,
That thou mightest be justified in thy sayings, and
mightest overcome when thou art judged. (Rom.3:4)

And again…

No weapon that is formed against thee shall prosper;
and every tongue that shall rise against thee in judgment thou shalt condemn.
This is the heritage of the servants of the LORD, and their righteousness is of me, saith the LORD. (Isaiah 54:17)

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 19 2011,14:30)

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,23:02) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 18 2011,05:24) (1)Romans 8:11 says, ” And if the Spirit of him who raised Jesus from the dead is living in you…………”  Do you see the words “OF HIM”?  Paul speaks of the ONE who raised Jesus from the grave, (God), and the Spirit OF God living in us. (2)So please DIRECTLY address my point:  Was the Lamb of God getting overwhelmed by the beast and the kings of the earth (3)and so the Word of God had to be sent to his aid?  YES or NO?  (4)And if “YES”, then please point out the scriptures that say this happened (will happen). Hi Mike, 1) The Spirit that raised Jesus from the dead IS the “HolySpirit” that lives in all born again believers. 2) He was crucified, was he not? 3) “The Word”(HolySpirit) of God was sent as our aid. 4) This happened starting at Pentecost. (See John 14:23 and Hebrews 9:28) God bless Ed J

Hi Mike,

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 19 2011,14:30)

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,23:02) 1) The Spirit that raised Jesus from the dead IS the “HolySpirit” that lives in all born again believers. 1.  Ed, can you not even read?    Romans 8:11 says “……the Spirit OF HIM who raised Jesus……..”  It was a HIM who raised Jesus, and Paul is speaking of the Spirit OF that One in 8:11.

The “Spirit” in Romans 8:11 is the HolySpirit and Him is JEHOVAH; do you agree, Yes or No?

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 19 2011,14:30)

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,23:02) 2) He was crucified, was he not? Do you think the events of Rev 17 already took place when Jesus was on earth?  Read the words of Rev 1:1, Ed.  Events that SOON WILL TAKE PLACE.  John had this revelation of things that SOON WOULD TAKE PLACE way after Jesus had been crucified.

Write the things which thou hast seen, and the things which are, and the things which shall be hereafter. (Rev 1:19)

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 19 2011,14:30)

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,23:02) 3) “The Word”(HolySpirit) of God was sent as our aid. My question was, was the Lamb in Rev 17 losing the battle against the beast and the kings of the earth, and then the Word of God had to be sent to help HIM (not US)?  If so, then where do I read about this?

See my previous response.

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 19 2011,14:30)

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,23:02) 4) This happened starting at Pentecost. (See John 14:23 and Hebrews 9:28) Read my second answer above.  Then show me where I can read about the Word rescuing the Lamb IN THE BOOK OF REVELATION.

Your argument is based on a misunderstanding we are having.
Would you like me to give you an Exegesis explanation of Rev.17?

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 19 2011,14:32)

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,23:28) Do you feel that you know more than the AKJV Bible translators; yes or no? John 1:3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. So your “PROOF” is:  “The KJV translators say so!” ?     Thank you for admitting you have no proof.

Hi Mike,

I have been trying to offer you the proof all along,
instead of considering the points, you instead try to shoot them down.

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 19 2011,14:36)

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,23:39) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 18 2011,12:15) Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,17:39) Hi Mike, AKJV Bible (1Corinthians 8:6) works for me. All things means all things; we agree on this point. Good Ed.  (1)And it is the SAME EXACT “all things” that came FROM the Father that also came THROUGH Jesus.  (2)So if the earth is one of the “all things” that came FROM the Father, then the earth is also one of the “all things” that came THROUGH Jesus. (3)Are we STILL in agreement? Hi Mike, 1) Yes 2) Are you implying that Jesus helped do all the creating?     Or that it was through something Jesus did that God was able to do all the creating alone? 3) That depends on your answer to my question #2. God bless Ed J Please just answer my question, Ed.  If the scripture says ALL THINGS, including the earth, came FROM the Father, then that same ALL THINGS, including the earth came THROUGH Jesus – according to Paul. My understanding of what “all things coming through Jesus” entails is not important to YOUR answer of the simple question.

Hi Mike,

With the truth contained in all Scripture I agree, but with the 'spin' you put to some of it I clearly disagree.
Let me give you an example of what I see you doing that does not edify one bit, but I see as merely a bulling tactic; OK?
Instead of you answering my refining question to see where we do agree, you choose instead to attempt to bully me into submission; yes or no?

Does it not say “there is no God” in all 12 of these verses?

Deut. 32:39
1Kings 8:23
2Kings 1:16
2Kings 5:15
2Chron.6:14
Psalm 14:1
Psalm 53:1
Isaiah 44:6
Isaiah 44:8
Isaiah 45:5
Isaiah 45:14
Isaiah 45:21

We have not been in agreement!
I hope you now understand my point!
If not, all I can do is to continue to try.

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 19 2011,14:37)

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,23:40) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 18 2011,12:16) Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,17:39) Father, save me from this hour: but for this cause came I (from Heaven) unto this hour So then you DO agree that the PERSON Jesus came down from heaven?   Hi Mike, Yes God bless Ed J (1)Then WHY are we even having this discussion?  (2)If you know that the PERSON Jesus was the only begotten Son of God that God sent into the world, (3)then why is it so hard for you to understand that he is the Word of God (4)who was made flesh and had the glory of the only begotten Son of God that he was?

Hi Mike,

1) It's an attempt to resolve who “The Word” is, is it not?

2) Yes

3) That statement is false, and is the very reason we are having this discourse; is it not?

4) “The Word” was made flesh and they beheld the glory as of the only begotten of the Father. (John 1:14)
    But “The Word” is since then made flesh again and again in Christian believers. (See James 1:18, 1Peter 1:23 and Romans 8:18)

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[mikeboll64]

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 19 2011,10:27)

It's a fact that the words “rod of iron” does not appear in Revelation 17, sorry.

You are right. I got twisted up. What is said in both 17 and 19 is “Lord of lords”, not “iron sceptor”. The “iron sceptor” ties Psalm 2:9, where God says that JESUS will rule with an iron sceptor to Rev 19, where the Word of God rules with an iron sceptor.

It is the “Lord of lords” phrase that ties the Lamb in Reb 17 to the Word of God in Rev 19.

So……..both Jesus and the Word of God will rule with an iron sceptor. And both the Lamb and the Word of God are called the “Lord of lords”.

[mikeboll64]

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 19 2011,11:06)

The “Spirit” in Romans 8:11 is the HolySpirit and Him is JEHOVAH; do you agree, Yes or No?

WHY Ed?!?!  Why on earth would I agree to “Holy Spirit AND Him” when the words are “Holy Spirit OF Him”?    So, NO!  I don't agree.

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 19 2011,11:06)

Write the things which thou hast seen, and the things which are, and the things which shall be hereafter. (Rev 1:19)

This speaks of the things John had already seen through the revelation, the things he was right then seeing, and the things he was about to see through the revelation.

Ed, John's revelation was about things that were to happen IN THE FUTURE.

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 19 2011,11:06)

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 19 2011,14:30) My question was, was the Lamb in Rev 17 losing the battle against the beast and the kings of the earth, and then the Word of God had to be sent to help HIM (not US)?  If so, then where do I read about this? See my previous response.

I didn't see any LOGICAL answer to this yet in anything you've posted.  If you have an answer, then share that answer.

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 19 2011,11:06)

Your argument is based on a misunderstanding we are having.  Would you like me to give you an Exegesis explanation of Rev.17?

      That won't be necessary, Ed.  I don't need and exegesis from someone who thinks “Spirit OF God” means “Spirit God”.

Ed, nice chat but I'm done. Discussing scriptures with you is like trying to tell a stubborn and facetious kid that cows say “moo”, and he just keeps insisting that they say “ribbet”.

Your points are 99% ridiculous, 100% non-scriptural, and 100% irritating to me – because I am the one who has to spend my time separating your games from your sincere posts.

You can answer my last posts if you want. If I see anything in any of your posts that indicates I'm having a discussion with a mentally sound adult, I'll continue on. If not, then God bless.

mike

[mikeboll64]

Btw Ed,

The KJV is not “scriptural proof” of anything. It was the result of the best guesses of MEN, nothing more. It is not “inspired” of God anymore than any other translation. You yourself can see just from comparing the old KJV to the NKJV just how many changes they've made to CORRECT things they had WRONG before.

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 20 2011,12:53)

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 19 2011,10:27) It's a fact that the words “rod of iron” does not appear in Revelation 17, sorry. (1)You are right.  I got twisted up.  What is said in both 17 and 19 is “Lord of lords”, not “iron sceptor”.  (2)The “iron sceptor” ties Psalm 2:9, where God says that JESUS will rule with an iron sceptor to Rev 19, where the Word of God rules with an iron sceptor. (3)It is the “Lord of lords” phrase that ties the Lamb in Reb 17 to the Word of God in Rev 19. So……..both Jesus and the Word of God will rule with an iron sceptor.  And both the Lamb and the Word of God are called the “Lord of lords”.

Hi Mike,

1) No problem.

2) Psalm 2:9 is not speaking of Jesus, but of us, because we are the body of Christ; read carefully what Rev.2:26-27 says.
    Likewise Rev.19:11-21 is referring to the “HolySpirit” in us, ruling with a “rod of iron”: see what Psalm 110:1-2 says…

Psalm 110:1-2 The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand,
until I(JEHOVAH) make thine(Jesus') enemies thy(Jesus') footstool.
The LORD shall send “the rod of thy strength” out of Zion:
rule thou in the midst of thine enemies. (Psalms 110:1-2)

3) Also I will make him my firstborn, higher than the kings of the earth. (Psalms 89:27)
    Do you think Jesus is above JEHOVAH as his King? (See Psalm 10:16 and Psalm 29:10)
    Do you think Jesus is above JEHOVAH as his Lord? (See Deuteronomy 10:17)

    You yourself said: “King of Kings” does not mean anything definitive;
    Are you trying to make something definitive out of “Lord of Lords”?
    Those two phrases are in ALL CAPS in Rev.19 but not in Rev.17.

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[Ed J]

Hi Mike,

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 20 2011,13:01)

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 19 2011,11:06) The “Spirit” in Romans 8:11 is the HolySpirit and Him is JEHOVAH; do you agree, Yes or No? WHY Ed?!?!  Why on earth would I agree to “Holy Spirit AND Him” when the words are “Holy Spirit OF Him”?    So, NO!  I don't agree.

You misunderstood my question. I will make it two questions instead to avoid confusion.
1) Do you agree that the word “Spirit” used in Romans 8:11 is the “HolySpirit”; yes or no?
2) Do you agree that the word “Him” used in Romans 8:11 is referring to JEHOVAH; yes or no?

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 20 2011,13:01)

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 19 2011,11:06) Write the things which thou hast seen, and the things which are, and the things which shall be hereafter. (Rev 1:19) This speaks of the things John had already seen through the revelation, the things he was right then seeing, and the things he was about to see through the revelation. Ed, John's revelation was about things that were to happen IN THE FUTURE.

Revelation 1:19 seems to disagree with you.

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 20 2011,13:01)

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 19 2011,11:06) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 19 2011,14:30) My question was, was the Lamb in Rev 17 losing the battle against the beast and the kings of the earth, and then the Word of God had to be sent to help HIM (not US)?  If so, then where do I read about this? See my previous response. I didn't see any LOGICAL answer to this yet in anything you've posted.  If you have an answer, then share that answer.

Both Rev.2:26-27 and Psalm 110:1-2 refer to us ruling with the “rod of iron”.
It is the “HolySpirit” in us that is ruling in the midst of enemies.

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 20 2011,13:01)

Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 19 2011,11:06) Your argument is based on a misunderstanding we are having.  Would you like me to give you an Exegesis explanation of Rev.17?       (1)That won't be necessary, Ed.  I don't need and exegesis from someone who thinks “Spirit OF God” means “Spirit God”. (2)Ed, nice chat but I'm done.  Discussing scriptures with you is like trying to tell a stubborn and facetious kid that cows say “moo”, and he just keeps insisting that they say “ribbet”. (3)Your points are 99% ridiculous, 100% non-scriptural, and 100% irritating to me – because I am the one who has to spend my time separating your games from your sincere posts. (4)You can answer my last posts if you want.  (5)If I see anything in any of your posts that indicates I'm having a discussion with a mentally sound adult, I'll continue on.  If not, then God bless. mike

1) Your choice.

2) HA Ha ha ha!!!

3) Spin

4) I did

5) Your choice.

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 20 2011,13:36)

Btw Ed, (1)The KJV is not “scriptural proof” of anything.  It was the result of the best guesses of MEN, nothing more.  (2)It is not “inspired” of God anymore than any other translation.  (3)You yourself can see just from comparing the old KJV to the NKJV just how many changes they've made to CORRECT things they had WRONG before.

Hi Mike,

1) So then you agree with me that all other English versions have translators bias in them, right?

2) I disagree…
Psalm 12:6-7 The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.
Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them (in the AKJV Bible) from this generation for ever.
Isaiah 28:11 For with stammering lips and another tongue(that is English) will he speak to this people.

3) The NKJV bible is corrupt.

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[mikeboll64]

Revelation 17
The ten horns you saw are ten kings…………..who for one hour will receive authority as kings along with the beast…………….They will make war against the Lamb, but the Lamb will overcome them because he is Lord of lords and King of kings—and with him will be his called, chosen and faithful followers.”

Revelation 19
I saw heaven standing open and there before me was a white horse, whose rider is called Faithful and True……….and his name is the Word of God………………..Then I saw the beast and the kings of the earth and their armies gathered together to make war against the rider on the horse and his army.
Ed, in 17 we are told that the beast and the kings will make war against the Lamb of God. In 19 we are told tht the beast and the kings make war against the Word of God.

Is this a true assessement? Don't veer off into other directions just yet. Just stick with this one point, okay? Is it true that the beast and the kings are said to make war against the Lamb and are later said to make war against the Word of God?

[Author]

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