False Teachers Other Nutters

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  • #324108
    2besee
    Participant

    Quote (terraricca @ Dec. 11 2012,16:52)
    2bbe

    Quote
    This is the one God – the mind and the spirit – the Father and the Son.
    Not the Son Jesus (begotten from the dead) but the eternal Son (the eternal Spirit).

    this i do not understand ,I do not know what you want me to see or understand so help me


    Hi T.

    The Mind — is God the Father,
    the Spirit — is the “Son” and is spirit purely.
    This is the one God YHVH.

    Jesus the man was begotten while on earth (at conception) and also when dead. He had his own self and his own spirit.

    The Son which was in Him is the Spirit — the Holy Spirit. The Spirit of God.

    It is the one God. Mind and Spirit, Father and Son. who knows the mind of God but the Spirit which is in him, and who knows the Father except for the Son and whomever he wishes to reveal it to.

    #324110
    terraricca
    Participant

    Quote (2besee @ Dec. 11 2012,13:16)

    Quote (terraricca @ Dec. 11 2012,16:52)
    2bbe

    Quote
    This is the one God – the mind and the spirit – the Father and the Son.
    Not the Son Jesus (begotten from the dead) but the eternal Son (the eternal Spirit).

    this i do not understand ,I do not know what you want me to see or understand so help me


    Hi T.

    The Mind — is God the Father,
    the Spirit — is the “Son” and is spirit purely.
    This is the one God YHVH.

    Jesus the man was begotten while on earth (at conception) and also when dead. He had his own self and his own spirit.

    The Son which was in Him is the Spirit — the Holy Spirit. The Spirit of God.

    It is the one God. Mind and Spirit, Father and Son. who knows the mind of God but the Spirit which is in him, and who knows the Father except for the Son and whomever he wishes to reveal it to.


    2bb

    Thank you ,but no ,if you can show me scriptures for each of your statements I will believe them to be true,

    I do not know those scriptures that would support that,

    Looks an lot like Kerwin believes

    #324114
    2besee
    Participant

    Hi T,

    This has to be the last post that i do for the week, otherwise I will never get my work finished etc!=)

    I do not have the time right now to get you scriptures but I will leave you with this to think about for now:

    Jesus went to heaven, correct.
    Jesus also said that he would ask the Father and that the Father would send the Holy Spirit.
    Soon after that Jesus said that HE would come .
    But who was speaking. Was it Jesus?
    Well Jesus said that he was going to heaven, to the Father.
    But He said that he would ask the Father and that the Holy Spirit would be sent.
    And it was the Holy Spirit which come.
    Therefore, it was the Holy Spirit in him that was speaking when he said that HE would come to them.

    All through eternity and all through the world from the beginning has been this eternal Spirit.
    This eternal Spirit is here now and will be until it all comes to an end.
    Jesus said that he would not leave them nor forsake them but that he would be with them until the end.
    And that includes us because the end has not come yet.
    So this was the eternal spirit speaking through Jesus, the Holy Spirit.

    The Holy Spirit is a part of God, just as our Spirit is a part of us.

    Jesus was a man though he was different than us because he was conceived through the power of above through the Holy Spirit.
    He walked in obedience to God and sinned not, even though tempted.
    The Holy Spirit descended onto him like a dove and then the Holy Spirit which was in Jesus the man worked together with him; which is why Jesus said to them 'Whosoever speaks a word against the Son of Man, it shall be forgiven him: but whosoever speaks against the Holy Spirit, it shall not be forgiven him, neither in this world, nor in the world to come.'
    See there was the 'son of man' and then there was the 'son of God', though Jesus was also a son of God – the firstborn son of God (The Holy Spirit “son of God” is eternal).

    The eternal spirit is what you need to concentrate on. And remember:
    'In the beginning was the Word, the word was with God and the Word WAS God' (not a god) for he is more than that; he is the 'eternal spirit'.

    Amen.
    Goodnight.
    back soon.

    #324131
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    Quote (terraricca @ Dec. 11 2012,03:50)

    Quote (Gene Balthrop @ Dec. 10 2012,20:25)

    Quote (terraricca @ Dec. 09 2012,08:48)
    you say “NOW WE ARE SONS OF GOD ” were is that written ???


    Terricca………….1 John 3:1….> Behold, what manner of love the Father has bestowed upon us, that we should be called the “sons” of God; therefroe the world knows us not, because it knew him not

    Verse 2….> Beloved, now” we “are” the sons of God

    peace and love to you and yours……………………………..gene


    G

    1Jn 2:25 And this is what he promised us—even eternal life.
    1Jn 2:26 I am writing these things to you about those who are trying to lead you astray.
    1Jn 2:27 As for you, the anointing you received from him remains in you, and you do not need anyone to teach you. But as his anointing teaches you about all things and as that anointing is real, not counterfeit—just as it has taught you, remain in him.

    1Jn 2:28 And now, dear children, continue in him, so that when he appears we may be confident and unashamed before him at his coming.
    1Jn 2:29 If you know that he is righteous, you know that everyone who does what is right has been born of him.
    1Jn 3:1 How great is the love the Father has lavished on us, that we should be called children of God! And that is what we are! The reason the world does not know us is that it did not know him.
    1Jn 3:2 Dear friends, now we are children of God, and what we will be has not yet been made known. But we know that when he appears, we shall be like him, for we shall see him as he is.
    1Jn 3:3 Everyone who has this hope in him purifies himself, just as he is pure.
    1Jn 3:4 Everyone who sins breaks the law; in fact, sin is lawlessness.
    1Jn 3:5 But you know that he appeared so that he might take away our sins. And in him is no sin.
    1Jn 3:6 No one who lives in him keeps on sinning. No one who continues to sin has either seen him or known him.
    1Jn 3:7 Dear children, do not let anyone lead you astray. He who does what is right is righteous, just as he is righteous.
    1Jn 3:8 He who does what is sinful is of the devil, because the devil has been sinning from the beginning. The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the devil’s work.
    1Jn 3:9 No one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God’s seed remains in him; he cannot go on sinning, because he has been born of God.
    1Jn 3:10 This is how we know who the children of God are and who the children of the devil are: Anyone who does not do what is right is not a child of God; nor is anyone who does not love his brother.

    nothing in those scriptures supports your view all is conditional to our faithfullness so we are not sons untill the end


    Terricca……….So now i see where you get you wrong and distorted views from , My KJV clearly say Sons of GOD. But even if you were to use “your” version , Childern of God would also mean Sons or Daughters of God. It amazes me how far you people will go to destort the words of God.  Adam was called a Son of God Clearly in scriptures Now show us how you can destort that also like you do other scriptures.

    peace and love to you and yours…………………………..gene

    #324134
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    Quote (2besee @ Dec. 11 2012,08:53)
    Gene, they don't want to say that God was in the world. They don't want to believe in an eternal spirit which is God. They want to say that the word was a god. They want to make God two instead of one!


    2besee…………indeed they are workers of iniquities and don't even know how they are. They do not understand the word (WAS) God,  who is Spirit and indwelt Jesus . God and His Spirit and Words are one and the same.  

    They say they don't change words but they certanily do change words , I have ask them over and over to show me the Word Jesus written in John 1:1 , they arn't even smart enought to reason, that if John wanted to mean Jesus there he simply would have written Jesus instead of Word there.

    It is simply a case of the blind leading the blind IMO

    I am glad atleast a few see the truth about our Heavenly Father and that he and he “ALONE” created everything that exists and he did not do it through any one else either. That he was “IN” Jesus reconciling the World unto himslef by his eternal Spirit.

    peace and love to you and yours……………………………..gene

    #324138
    terraricca
    Participant

    Quote (Gene Balthrop @ Dec. 11 2012,20:46)

    Quote (terraricca @ Dec. 11 2012,03:50)

    Quote (Gene Balthrop @ Dec. 10 2012,20:25)

    Quote (terraricca @ Dec. 09 2012,08:48)
    you say “NOW WE ARE SONS OF GOD ” were is that written ???


    Terricca………….1 John 3:1….> Behold, what manner of love the Father has bestowed upon us, that we should be called the “sons” of God; therefroe the world knows us not, because it knew him not

    Verse 2….> Beloved, now” we “are” the sons of God

    peace and love to you and yours……………………………..gene


    G

    1Jn 2:25 And this is what he promised us—even eternal life.
    1Jn 2:26 I am writing these things to you about those who are trying to lead you astray.
    1Jn 2:27 As for you, the anointing you received from him remains in you, and you do not need anyone to teach you. But as his anointing teaches you about all things and as that anointing is real, not counterfeit—just as it has taught you, remain in him.

    1Jn 2:28 And now, dear children, continue in him, so that when he appears we may be confident and unashamed before him at his coming.
    1Jn 2:29 If you know that he is righteous, you know that everyone who does what is right has been born of him.
    1Jn 3:1 How great is the love the Father has lavished on us, that we should be called children of God! And that is what we are! The reason the world does not know us is that it did not know him.
    1Jn 3:2 Dear friends, now we are children of God, and what we will be has not yet been made known. But we know that when he appears, we shall be like him, for we shall see him as he is.
    1Jn 3:3 Everyone who has this hope in him purifies himself, just as he is pure.
    1Jn 3:4 Everyone who sins breaks the law; in fact, sin is lawlessness.
    1Jn 3:5 But you know that he appeared so that he might take away our sins. And in him is no sin.
    1Jn 3:6 No one who lives in him keeps on sinning. No one who continues to sin has either seen him or known him.
    1Jn 3:7 Dear children, do not let anyone lead you astray. He who does what is right is righteous, just as he is righteous.
    1Jn 3:8 He who does what is sinful is of the devil, because the devil has been sinning from the beginning. The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the devil’s work.
    1Jn 3:9 No one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God’s seed remains in him; he cannot go on sinning, because he has been born of God.
    1Jn 3:10 This is how we know who the children of God are and who the children of the devil are: Anyone who does not do what is right is not a child of God; nor is anyone who does not love his brother.

    nothing in those scriptures supports your view all is conditional to our faithfullness so we are not sons untill the end


    Terricca……….So now i see where you get you wrong and distorted views from , My KJV clearly say Sons of GOD. But even if you were to use “your” version , Childern of God would also mean Sons or Daughters of God. It amazes me how far you people will go to destort the words of God.  Adam was called a Son of God Clearly in scriptures Now show us how you can destort that also like you do other scriptures.

    peace and love to you and yours…………………………..gene


    Gene

    Adam was the son of God but sold himself to the opposition ,

    so to gain back that claim of son ship it as to be through Christ but it will be a live long struggle for any of us ,and then we are also judge for our motifs in our heart ,and even then it is up to God final decision ,so how could you claim the price ???

    this his false teaching, only the faithful,righteous,and those who have believe in the written word of God and called ones are to be come sons of God,

    you do not believe in Christ words so why bother with becoming a son of God ???

    #324158
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Lightenup @ Dec. 09 2012,21:10)
    Mike,
    I looked at Romans 5:12. I don't know enough Greek to understand why there is an indirect neuter pronoun used at all.


    But you acknowledge that a SINGULAR relative pronoun is used with a PLURAL noun and a PLURAL verb?

    #324159
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Gene Balthrop @ Dec. 10 2012,09:21)
    Mike………The word “With” can imply a Plan or thought………….


    How in the world does, “Jesus was WITH God before the world began” imply a plan or a thought?

    #324160
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Gene Balthrop @ Dec. 10 2012,09:28)
    T8……….Problem is when you reword a text you are not keeping the meaning in tact as you falsely assume you are brother.


    You mean like when YOU add the word “IN” into John 1:14?

    Gene, “alongside” IS one of the many translations of the Greek word “para”. Nobody is making anything up here.

    #324161
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (t8 @ Dec. 10 2012,14:12)
    If you had of said that it can ONLY mean Plan, then you could say that we distort given your own thought process, (you would still be wrong though), but the fact that you said IMPLY, means that the primary meaning WITH is also very possible.


    Excellent point, t8.

    #324163
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (2besee @ Dec. 10 2012,15:46)
    I was just looking at this verse:

    'And now glorify me you Father with yourself with the glory which I had before the world was with you'

    The word 'tē' has been translated as 'with the' when it should be simply 'the',

    And 'eichon' which was transated as 'I had' should be 'I have',

    And 'einai' was translated as 'was' when it should have been 'I am',


    2B,

    It is great you are looking into these things, and checking how the Greek was translated in various English Bibles.

    You have more to learn though, as do we all.  For example, the word “eichon” was written in the imperfect tense.  Here is some help from the NETNotes scholars about the imperfect tense:

    The imperfect tense generally represents continual or repeated action. Where the present tense might indicate “they are asking,” the imperfect would indicate “they kept on asking.”

    It means that Jesus literally said, “the glory I WAS HAVING.

    As for “einai”, it doesn't refer to a person- therefore, “I am” is out of the question.  The verb means “to be”, or “to exist”.  When speaking of a person, it could mean “I am”, or “I exist”.  When speaking of the world, as it is in John 17:5, it could either mean “(the world) exists”, or “(the world) existed”.

    It is written in the Greek present tense, which would literally read in English, “before the world exists”.  But that statement makes no sense to us in English.

    More pointers from NETNotes:

    The present tense represents a simple statement of fact or reality viewed as occurring in actual time. In most cases this corresponds directly with the English present tense. 'Some phrases which might be rendered as past tense in English will often occur in the present tense in Greek. These are termed “historical presents”………..

    A good example of this is John 14:9……..

    Jesus answered: “Don’t you know me, Philip, even after I have been among you such a long time?”

    The bolded words above are the PRESENT TENSE “ego eimi”.  If translated into English LITERALLY, it would say, “even after I AM among you such a long time”.

    But we don't speak that way in English.  If we are talking about an amount of time we HAVE BEEN with someone, we say “HAVE BEEN”, not “AM”.  So this is a case of an “historical present” – a phrase that is written in the present Greek tense, but obviously refers to a past tense amount of time Jesus HAD BEEN with Philip.

    It is the same with 17:5.  The phrase “the glory I WAS HAVING before the world exists” does not fit into the English language – which is why we count it as an historical present, and translate it as “the glory I was having before the world EXISTED”.

    I hope this helps you out.

    #324164
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (2besee @ Dec. 10 2012,18:21)
    The Holy Spirit came here and was in the annointed man Jesus.


    There goes your added word “IN” again, 2B. :)

    1:14 says the Word BECAME flesh.

    It does NOT say the Word came to be IN someone who was already flesh.

    You're changing the teaching.

    #324165
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Oh, and when the Word became flesh, whose glory did he have?

    #324201
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 12 2012,12:06)
    Oh, and when the Word became flesh, whose glory did he have?


    Hi Mike,

    The same glory(77) that we too will get when “The Word” is birthed in us.
    These next few verses should help put the pieces together as I see them.

    the glory as of the only begotten of the Father (John 1:14) com-
    pared
    with the glory which shall be revealed in us
    . (Romans 8:18)

    The Word of the oath, which was since the law,
    maketh the Son, who is consecrated for evermore. (Hebrews 7:28)

    1Pet.1:23 Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of
    incorruptible, by “The Word” of God, which liveth and abideth for ever.

    Of his own will begat he us with “The Word” of truth,
    that we should be a kind of firstfruits of his creatures. (James 1:18)

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #324224
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    Mike………..Look up the meaning of (became) and you will find it means “came to be”, now what came to be in the flesh man Jesus at the Jordan river?, was it not the spirit of God, and we all know the father was (IN) Jesus he said it over and over and over, Now how was he (In) him was it not by the Anointing Spirit.?  

    How was God reconciling the world unto “himself” if not by the Holy Spirit in the “flesh” man Jesus and now in others?,  and Jesus plainly said He could do nothing by himself but the father “in” him did the works, You continue try to find some excuse to not admit the obvious truth Mike.

    You people are like a person who sifts out a gnat and swallows a Camel.  You can't even seem to put the obvious together no matter how many times it is explained to you.

    I and Glad God has sent “again” someone who clearly understands the Truth “2besee”, maybe he can help you all to see correctly and come out of you preconcieved religious stance into the Glorious liberty of the Sons of God, I hope and Pray you all will.

    peace and love to you and yours…………………………………………..gene

    #324227
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 12 2012,16:12)

    Quote (Mikel @ Dec. 12 2012,12:06)
    Oh, and when the Word became flesh, whose glory did he have?


    Hi Mike,

    The same glory(77) that we too will get when “The Word” is birthed in us.
    These next few verses should help put the pieces together as I see them.

    the glory as of the only begotten of the Father (John 1:14) com-
    pared
    with the glory which shall be revealed in us
    . (Romans 8:18)

    The Word of the oath, which was since the law,
    maketh the Son, who is consecrated for evermore. (Hebrews 7:28)

    1Pet.1:23 Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of
    incorruptible, by “The Word” of God, which liveth and abideth for ever.

    Of his own will begat he us with “The Word” of truth,
    that we should be a kind of firstfruits of his creatures. (James 1:18)

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    EDJ……….Well put brother, For indeed the Spirit of God and his words are one and the same. Jesus said the “words' i am telling you “ARE” Spirit and are LIFE he also said those words weren't his words. Indeed God and his word are one and the same thing they are Spirit Life, that abides “IN” Jesus and can also abide in Us. When that happens we are all united as one< one God in all and through all Just as it says.

    peace and love to you and yours………………………….gene

    #324229
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 12 2012,16:12)

    Quote (Mikel @ Dec. 12 2012,12:06)
    Oh, and when the Word became flesh, whose glory did he have?


    Hi Mike,

    The same glory(77) that we too will get when “The Word” is birthed in us.
    These next few verses should help put the pieces together as I see them.

    the glory as of the only begotten of the Father (John 1:14) com-
    pared
    with the glory which shall be revealed in us
    . (Romans 8:18)

    The Word of the oath, which was since the law,
    maketh the Son, who is consecrated for evermore. (Hebrews 7:28)

    1Pet.1:23 Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of
    incorruptible, by “The Word” of God, which liveth and abideth for ever.

    Of his own will begat he us with “The Word” of truth,
    that we should be a kind of firstfruits of his creatures. (James 1:18)

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    EDJ……….Well put brother, For indeed the Spirit of God and his words are one and the same. Jesus said the “words' i am telling you “ARE” Spirit and are LIFE he also said those words weren't his words. Indeed God and his word are one and the same thing they are Spirit Life, that abides “IN” Jesus and can also abide in Us. When that happens we are all united as one< one God in all and through all Just as it says.

    peace and love to you and yours………………………….gene

    #324230
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    To all Sorry for the double post………………………gene

    #324254
    kerwin
    Participant

    Quote (terraricca @ Dec. 11 2012,13:12)

    Quote (kerwin @ Dec. 11 2012,12:34)
    T,

    Quote
    THERE IS NOT ONE SINGLE HUMAN THAT CAN STAND UP AND SAY I AM LIKE CHRIST ,HE WOULD BE A LIAR,

    Those humans that are made perfect in Christ are like Christ.

    Colossians 1:28
    King James Version (KJV)

    28 Whom we preach, warning every man, and teaching every man in all wisdom; that we may present every man perfect in Christ Jesus:


    K

    Why are you twisting the scriptures ,It does not say LIKE Christ but IN. Christ ,this mean that whatever is missing Christ compansate for it,


    T,

    What do you think “perfect” means?

    1 John 3:6
    King James Version (KJV)

    6 Whosoever abideth in him sinneth not: whosoever sinneth hath not seen him, neither known him.

    #324262
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Gene Balthrop @ Dec. 12 2012,08:50)
    Mike………..Look up the meaning of (became) and you will find it means “came to be”………………….


    Yes Gene,

    I agree that “became” can also be worded “came to be”.

    Quote (Gene Balthrop @ Dec. 12 2012,08:50)
    …….now what came to be in the flesh man Jesus at the Jordan river?  


    Oops, there it goes again……… that pesky little word “IN”, that you guys must ADD into John 1:14 to make the scriptures come out your own way.

    Do you see it, Gene?  “Became” can be worded “came to be” – but it CAN'T be worded “came to be IN“.

    “Came to be IN” does NOT mean the same thing as “became”, or “came to be”.

    In fact, it means a COMPLETELY DIFFERENT thing.  So by adding that little word into 1:14, you are effectively changing the meaning of John's words – not just a little bit, but giving them a COMPLETELY DIFFERENT meaning.

    Try reading “The Word became flesh” – WITHOUT adding your own word “IN”.  Then think real hard about what John could have possibly meant by those words.  Then add to those thoughts the fact that this particular Word, when he did become flesh, dwelled on earth with the glory of Jesus.

    After that, it shouldn't be that hard.

    Peace to you and yours, Gene.

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