@ DT

The figure in Isaiah 53 was innocent. But was Israel?
Huh?

@Berean,

If the expression “his death” was in the plural, the expression “his grave” would ALSO be in the plural.

How many “graves” can one person be buried in? Why are you shooting the messenger, I’m reading the original text!! The text your OT is based upon! Jump back to 43:10 “Ye are my witnesses, saith the Lord, and my servant whom I have ch…[Read more]

@Danny Dabbs,

@Proclaimer,

Does nobody read for comprehension anymore!?!? Is there anyone who will verify what I am saying?? What I am finding is why I walked away from christianity. I began asking questions I was apparently NOT suppose to be asking and at one point was told by a pastor I shouldn’t study so much and pray more. What was he a…[Read more]

@ DT

If the expression “his death” was in the plural, the expression “his grave” would ALSO be in the plural.
But that’s not the case.
It is indeed one person and not several.

9] And he made his grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death; because he had done no violence, neither was any deceit in his mouth

And they made His grave…[Read more]

A fairly literal reading of Isaiah 53:9 is:

“His grave was with the wicked, and with a rich man in his death, though he had done no violence, and there was no deceit in his mouth.”

A modern Jewish translation, the 2023 JPS Tanakh, says something very similar:

“His grave was set among the wicked, and with the rich, in his death … though he had d…[Read more]

@Berean,

You keep wanting this to be about the Jesus and it simply isn’t so. The passage you question (vs9) is yet another mistranslation of the Hebrew. The Hebrew for “in his death” is בְּמוֹתוֹ and is the singular form. What is written is בְּמוֹתָיו (verify on biblehub) and is in the plural “in his deaths”, so the passage should read: “An…[Read more]

@DT

You did not answer the question in verse 53:9

He was assigned 👉 a grave with the wicked, and with the rich in 👉 his death, 👈though he had committed no violence and there was no deceit in his mouth.

In what way could this verse apply to Israel?

@Danny Dobbs,

@Berean,

This is NOT difficult! I never said Israel was sinless and most certainly NOT blameless in their actions against G-d, this is the reason the Israelite’s are in exile!!! This is the reason G-d sent the prophets, to warn them of what was coming if they didn’t change and turn back to G-d. Are we reading from the same tex…[Read more]

Dr. Arnold G. Fruchtenbaum

The Paradox
Anyone who sets out to discover what the Old Testament says about the coming of the Messiah will quickly encounter paradoxical elements. At times, it may even seem like a mass of contradictions, for the Jewish prophets painted two distinct portraits of the coming Messiah.

On one hand, the researcher will…[Read more]

@ DT

He was assigned a grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death, though he had committed no violence and there was no deceit in his mouth.

In what way could this verse apply to Israel?

What Danny Dabbs told you about this is correct:

#948241

So!?

@Danny Dabbs,

I see you ran directly to accusations verses answering questions or proving your stance. Please tell me what my sin is and have need to cleanse myself for.

I stumbled across a verse (Amos 3:7) and have mentioned it a few time now and have been met with complete silence, it confirms the Jesus is NOT the true Messiah. According to…[Read more]

@Danny Dabbs,

It describes the servant as innocent.

Go back a few post where I showed how “innocent” the Jesus was; he was violent, deceitful, was desired, and he wasn’t so hideous that people avoided him. For most of it I gave NT passages showing who the Jesus really was. So your the Jesus doesn’t fit Isaiah 53 either.

The general christi…[Read more]

@Berean,

You were told it was a singular person; now prove it. I can prove the nation Israel was referred to the singular many times, so to say this passage specifically refers to a singular person (the Jesus) means nothing without evidence. To “believe”/“trust”/“have faith” that this passage is referring to the Jesus also means nothing, as…[Read more]

You see clearly that it is a person, this particular servant.

5] But HE was wounded 👉for our transgressions, HE was bruised 👉for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was 👉UPON HIM; and with HIS stripes we are healed.

@Berean,

If it’s about a person then you DON’T want it to be about the Jesus because he failed in every instance! You still haven’t proved 53 is speaking of the Jesus; where as I have gone thru the first part of the chapter compared it to the NT and have found fault after fault AND gave you sources for verification. Now who is being stubb…[Read more]