Did Jesus pre-exist before his birth on Earth?

Where did Jesus come from?

John 6:38-40
For I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will, but the will of him who sent me; and this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise it up at the last day. For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who sees the Son and believes in him should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.

The first verse suggests that Jesus came down from Heaven. This seems to contradict that belief which suggests he first existed as a man when he was born into this world. For if Jesus came into existence for the first time when he was conceived through Mary, how could he come down from Heaven? We (Man) came into existence when we are born into this world, but would it be correct to say that we came down from Heaven too? If a verse said that we came down from Heaven, would you think that we pre-existed in Heaven? If so, then why not Jesus?

John 3:17 is another verse that provides support that Jesus came down from Heaven or was sent rather than created.

For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.

The word ‘send’ is the Greek word ‘apostello’.

apostello {ap-os-tel’-lo}
1) to order (one) to go to a place appointed
2) to send away, dismiss
2a) to allow one to depart, that he may be in a state of liberty
2b) to order one to depart, send off
2c) to drive away

To be sent surely implies existence otherwise you would just say born or created. In fact this word (sent) is similar in meaning and sound to the word Apostle (apostolos), which means “one sent forth with orders”. To be sent forth with order, you must exist.

John 6:62
What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?

Jesus is clearly stating here that he came from above since he eventually ascended into Heaven to be at the right-hand of God.

How old is Jesus?

John 1:15
15 John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.‘ “

John the Baptist was six months older than Jesus Christ. So it is physically impossible for Christ to be before him in age. If this verse is referencing age, then it shows preexistence. Jesus existed before  John the Baptist in the least.

John 8:58
“I tell you the truth,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!

Jesus claimed to exist before Abraham, the father of the Jews. The words ‘I am’ mean ‘I exist’. So Jesus claimed existence before Abraham. We can see that Jesus is getting older as we explore the scriptures. But how old?

Jude 1:25
to the only God our Savior be glory, majesty, power and authority, through Jesus Christ our Lord, before all ages, now and forevermore! Amen.

Here we can see that majesty, power, and authority through Jesus Christ is before all ages (all worlds) and forever more into the future. This strongly implies that Jesus existed even before all things. But can we substantiate this?

Did Jesus exist before all creation?

Colossians 1:17
He is before all things, and in him all things hold together.

Colossians answers the question outright. It states that “He is before all things“.  But are there other verses that support this idea?

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus being there. This verse alone answers the question because the universe, angels, and men were made and Jesus was present when they were created according to these verses. In case that is not enough to convince you, I also add another clear verse that says the same thing.

Hebrews 1:1-2
1 In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways,
2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe.

Is Jesus the Word of God?

But some say that this is talking about the Word and not all believe that Jesus is the Word of God. They argue that Jesus came from the Word, but is not the Word itself that was with God in John 1:1. If you believe this, then please explain the next two verses within their wider context:

Revelation 19:13
He is dressed in a robe dipped in blood, and his name is the Word of God.

Colossians 1:15-18
The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him. He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. And he is the head of the body, the church; he is the beginning and the firstborn from among the dead, so that in everything he might have the supremacy.

Okay, if you are honest, this is a closed case. God created all things through the Word. Jesus is called the Word of God and also the son of God. We are also told that God created all things through the son of God. Even if you do not believe that Jesus is the Word, then you still have to believe that Jesus pre-existed on account of him being the son of God. But what we know from scripture is that Jesus existed as the Word of God before he came as a man called Jesus. We know that the Word became flesh.

More proof verses

If Jesus pre-existed, then you might expect that even though the above verses are clear, there would be more verses that teach or at least imply that he pre-existed. So let’s see if this is the case.

Revelation 22:16
“I, Jesus, have sent my angel to give you this testimony for the churches. I am the Root and the Offspring of David, and the bright Morning Star.”

Here we see that Jesus is the offspring of David, yet he is also the root of David, which at appears to show existence before King David. He also claims to be the bright Morning Star and we read in Job how the Morning Stars were present when God created the Earth.

Job 38:6-7
“On what were its bases sunk? Or who laid its cornerstone, When the morning stars sang together And all the sons of God shouted for joy? 

Luke 10:18
He replied, “I saw Satan fall like lightning from heaven.

Comparing Luke 10:18 with Revelation 12:1-10, some say that Satan and his angels fell to the earth before the birth of Christ as a man. If this was the case, then Jesus saw an event that took place before he was born as a man. However, others argue that Satan hasn’t fallen to the Earth yet, or that he has, but Jesus saw this in a vision. Regardless, it certainly doesn’t contradict that Jesus pre-existed.

Micah 5:2
“But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, though you are small among the clans of Judah, out of you will come for me one who will be ruler over Israel, whose origins are from of old, from ancient times.”

The above verse talks about someone who will rule Israel and whose origin is from ancient times. Who but Jesus could fit that description?

John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God/Divine.

John 1:14
The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only,[ 1:14 Or the Only Begotten] who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Clearly, Jesus was with God in the beginning as the Word of God. This places his existence as before all things and thus comes as no surprise that he was there when God created all things.

The Angel of YHWH

We know from certain scriptures that Jesus is Lord of the Sabbath and many assume that Jesus gave the Law of God. We are told in Acts:7:30-39 for instance that an Angel of the Lord appeared to Moses through whom God spoke and this is the same Angel who spoke to Moses on Mount Sinai and passed on the living words (The Law) to Moses.

30 “After forty years had passed, an angel appeared to Moses in the flames of a burning bush in the desert near Mount Sinai.
31 When he saw this, he was amazed at the sight. As he went over to look more closely, he heard the Lord’s voice:
32 ‘I am the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.’Moses trembled with fear and did not dare to look.
33 “Then the Lord said to him, ‘Take off your sandals; the place where you are standing is holy ground.
34 I have indeed seen the oppression of my people in Egypt. I have heard their groaning and have come down to set them free. Now come, I will send you back to Egypt.’
35 “This is the same Moses whom they had rejected with the words, ‘Who made you ruler and judge?’ He was sent to be their ruler and deliverer by God himself, through the angel who appeared to him in the bush.
36 He led them out of Egypt and did wonders and miraculous signs in Egypt, at the Red Sea and for forty years in the desert.
37 “This is that Moses who told the Israelites, ‘God will send you a prophet like me from your own people.’
38 He was in the assembly in the desert, with the angel who spoke to him on Mount Sinai, and with our fathers; and he received living words to pass on to us.
39 “But our fathers refused to obey him. Instead, they rejected him and in their hearts turned back to Egypt.

So is this Angel of the Lord, Jesus? Well it seems possible. Perhaps the correct model to look at is the one mentioned in Revelation 1:1

The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,

Here we can see that the order of the Revelation started with the Originator which is God. He then passed the message to Jesus Christ who in turn sent it to his Angel and then to John. So perhaps it is possible that the angel in Revelation is the same angel mentioned in Acts:7:30-39.

But the Angel of YHWH or Angel of the LORD is described as one like the son of gods.

Daniel 3:24-25
Then Nebuchadnezzar the king was astounded and stood up in haste; he said to his high officials, “Was it not three men we cast bound into the midst of the fire?” They replied to the king, “Certainly, O king.” He said, “Look! I see four men loosed and walking about in the midst of the fire without harm, and the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods!”

The idea that a preincarnate Jesus was this Angel of the LORD is a popular one. We know that this Angel of the LORD is never mentioned while Jesus is walking the earth which supports this idea. But it could also be a coincidence. One connection that can be made with Jesus being this messenger is found in Judges 13:18.

Manoah said to the angel of the LORD, “What is your name, so that when your words come to pass, we may honor you?” But the angel of the LORD said to him, “Why do you ask my name, seeing it is wonderful?”

Now read what Isaiah prophesied in Isaiah 9:6 .

For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

Clearly, Isaiah was speaking of Jesus Christ and note that he was called Wonderful Counselor. Is there a connection here? Perhaps. What we do know is the word ‘angel’ is the same word messenger in the Old Testament, and while it is held that Jesus is not an angel in kind, we know he certainly was a messenger of YHWH and would be fair to say even ‘The Messenger of YHWH’.

So the idea that he may be this angel is not that far fetched. Some vehemently oppose this idea, but they are not aware that both Jesus and John are called angels in the messenger sense.

More to come here……

More proof that Jesus pre-existed

Rev 3:14
And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God.

Moving on we read the following in Philippians 2:5-11
5 Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus:
6 Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,
7 but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.
8 And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to death even death on a cross!
9 Therefore God exalted him to the highest place and gave him the name that is above every name,
10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

Surely the above verses assumes preexistence.  Look at verse 7: ‘but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness’. This verse points out that Jesus humbled himself to become a (or like a) human and also a servant. So this suggests to us that he preexisted in a higher state because to humble oneself is to become lower. If he started life in this humbled state, then it would be incorrect to say that he humbled himself. Further, he “found himself in appearance as a man” is a weird statement to make if he first existed as a human baby.

This verse is often used in support of the trinity doctrine because of the word ‘equal’. But if you are equal to something it means that you are not that thing, rather you are like that thing. This scripture is also very clear about the following: The Father is God and Jesus is Lord and that God exalted Jesus to the highest place.

A closer look at verse 9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: Now I am not sure if Jesus was exalted higher than he was before he came to this world or whether he was exalted to the exact position that he had before. But if we look at John 17:5 again we can see that Jesus asked to return to his former glory.

John 17:5
And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began.

The above verse is clear about Christ’s pre-existence in glory before the world began. Just to prove this is not an isolated scripture here is a similar verse:

John 16:28
I came from the Father and entered the world; now I am leaving the world and going back to the Father.”

The next verse also confirms that Jesus pre-existed in Heaven.

John 3:12-15
12 I have spoken to you of earthly things and you do not believe; how then will you believe if I speak of heavenly things?
13 No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven, the Son of Man.
14 Just as Moses lifted up the snake in the desert, so the Son of Man must be lifted up,
15 that everyone who believes in him may have eternal life.

Ezekiel 8:1-3
1 In the sixth year, in the sixth month on the fifth day, while I was sitting in my house and the elders of Judah were sitting before me, the hand of the Sovereign LORD came upon me there.
2 I looked, and I saw a figure like that of a man. From what appeared to be his waist down he was like fire, and from there up his appearance was as bright as glowing metal.
3 He stretched out what looked like a hand and took me by the hair of my head. The Spirit lifted me up between earth and heaven and in visions of God he took me to Jerusalem, to the entrance to the north gate of the inner court, where the idol that provokes to jealousy stood.

This verse is interesting in the sense that the description is very similar to the description of Jesus Christ in Revelation 1:12-18,

12 I turned around to see the voice that was speaking to me. And when I turned I saw seven golden lampstands,
13 and among the lampstands was someone “like a son of man,” dressed in a robe reaching down to his feet and with a golden sash around his chest.
14 His head and hair were white like wool, as white as snow, and his eyes were like blazing fire.
15 His feet were like bronze glowing in a furnace, and his voice was like the sound of rushing waters.
16 In his right hand he held seven stars, and out of his mouth came a sharp double-edged sword. His face was like the sun shining in all its brilliance.
17 When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. Then he placed his right hand on me and said: “Do not be afraid. I am the First and the Last.
18 I am the Living One; I was dead, and behold I am alive for ever and ever! And I hold the keys of death and Hades.

Have a look at the next verse. 1 Corinthians 11:3 (English-NIV)
Now I want you to realize that the head of every man is Christ, and the head of the woman is man, and the head of Christ is God.

Now the word head in the Greek is ‘kephale’ which can mean head, source or master. Now if we notice the order in a time sense, we have to admit that God is the first as he is the only one who has existed for all eternity with no beginning. We also know from scripture that the man came first and the woman came from the man. So that part is correct if we use a timeline. That just leaves Christ. Did he come between God and Man. I think so, as I believe that all things came from him and this opinion does fit perfectly into this model in a time sense at least. Anyway the word Christ here is ‘Christos’ which means “anointed”. So the anointed is the head of Man.
God > Christ > Man > Woman

If God created all things for his Son and his Son was the channel for that creation to come into being, then we can only assume that Christ existed at this point. As Genesis says: Let us make Man in our image. God was talking to Christ at this point and we know that Christ is the image of God and we are the image of Christ. Therefore the image of the image of God (man) is still the image of God. But Christ is the original and first image and we can only assume again that that image existed before the image of the image. A bit like a mirror that reflects a mirror, the original mirror has to exist in order to reflect the second mirror.

So we know that Christ preexisted before creation and now we will look at some more scriptures that show that he was born before creation itself?

Colossians 1:15-16
15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.
16 For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him.

The above verse is quite clear that ALL things were created by or through Jesus.

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So again, there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus/The Word being there. Only the Father and Son were not made. God has always existed and the Son was born from God before the creation of the universe, before anything was made. The next verse describes clearly who/what was the first of God’s works.

Proverbs 8:22-30
22 “The LORD brought me forth as the first of his works, {[22] Or ; or } {[22] Or ; or } before his deeds of old;
23 I was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
24 When there were no oceans, I was given birth, when there were no springs abounding with water;
25 before the mountains were settled in place, before the hills, I was given birth,
26 before he made the earth or its fields or any of the dust of the world.
27 I was there when he set the heavens in place, when he marked out the horizon on the face of the deep,
28 when he established the clouds above and fixed securely the fountains of the deep,
29 when he gave the sea its boundary so the waters would not overstep his command, and when he marked out the foundations of the earth.
30 Then I was the craftsman at his side. I was filled with delight day after day, rejoicing always in his presence,

This verse is talking about Wisdom, whom many believe is Christ. This scriptures compliments other scriptures that that teach that Jesus was given birth by God and then created all THINGS though him.

So from this verse we can see the following points.

Wisdom was brought forth as the first of Gods works.
Wisdom was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
Wisdom was given birth before creation.
Wisdom was the craftsman at his side and rejoiced in his presence before creation.
Some say that Wisdom isn’t Christ, rather this is just wisdom in a conceptual sense and it is true that wisdom is being spoken of in that way. But from verse 22 onward it changes tempo. With terms like I was given birth, I was the craftsman at his side and I was filled with delight, we have to admit that it seems to be talking about a person. Now have a look at the following verses:

1 Corinthians 1:24 (English-NIV)
but to those whom God has called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God.

1 Corinthians 1:30 (English-NIV)
It is because of him that you are in Christ Jesus, who has become for us wisdom from God–that is, our righteousness, holiness and redemption.

Let’s look at some other concepts that Jesus personifies:

Jesus is the Truth. Yet truth is also a concept.
Jesus is the Way. Yet the way is also a concept.
Jesus is the Life. Yet life can also be a concept.
Now look at the following mystery:

1 Corinthians 2:6-9
6 We do, however, speak a message of wisdom among the mature, but not the wisdom of this age or of the rulers of this age, who are coming to nothing.
7 No, we speak of God’s secret wisdom, a wisdom that has been hidden and that God destined for our glory before time began.
8 None of the rulers of this age understood it, for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.
9 However, as it is written:
“No eye has seen,
no ear has heard,
no mind has conceived
what God has prepared for those who love him”

Ephesians 3:8-10
8 Although I am less than the least of all God’s people, this grace was given me: to preach to the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ,
9 and to make plain to everyone the administration of this mystery, which for ages past was kept hidden in God, who created all things.
10 His intent was that now, through the church, the manifold wisdom of God should be made known to the rulers and authorities in the heavenly realms,

Perhaps another scripture alluding to Jesus being the Wisdom of God.

Finally I leave you with the following OT scripture that suggests that God had a Son before the birth Of Jesus Christ on earth.

Proverbs 30:4
Who has gone up to heaven and come down? Who has gathered up the wind in the hollow of his hands? Who has wrapped up the waters in his cloak? Who has established all the ends of the earth? What is his name, and the name of his son? Tell me if you know!


Discussion

Viewing 20 posts - 14,921 through 14,940 (of 19,165 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • #300608
    terraricca
    Participant

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ June 03 2012,15:10)
    Hi MB,
    Why would you mock scripture?


    N

    :D :D :D :D

    each time you miss quote and interpreting scriptures you mock the word of God

    MB did only a presentation of how it should be understood,

    but you did not have that ability,

    #300611
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi T,
    Yap yap

    #300617
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (t8 @ June 02 2012,10:33)
    Origen was hypothesising by the sound of it.
    I also have to admit that it is possible, because we are not taught that we our souls definitely did not exist with the Father beforehand.

    If scripture is not definate on a subject, then it remains open to speculation and hypothesis. And the fact that it is not definite probably means that it is not important for us to know the truth about that matter now.

    Of course there may well be scripture that proves this point is true or not. Not aware of such at this minute.


    Hi T8,

    Excellent post!

    Your brother
    in Christ, Jesus.
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    holycitybiblecode.org

    #300619
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 03 2012,12:42)
    I don't know to what you refer, but even the Trinitarians Keith and Jack speak the scriptural truth some of the time, right?

    Right now I'm trying to show you how senseless it is to believe that the Word was with the same God it was.

    It seems that you're whole “concept that came to you one night” stems from your blatant misunderstanding of John 1:1.

    Re-read my sample sentences again.  Tell me which one of them makes any sense.


    Hi Mike,

    Are you saying that Scripture, as written in John 1:1, does not make sense to you?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #300630
    terraricca
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ June 03 2012,23:02)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 03 2012,12:42)
    I don't know to what you refer, but even the Trinitarians Keith and Jack speak the scriptural truth some of the time, right?

    Right now I'm trying to show you how senseless it is to believe that the Word was with the same God it was.

    It seems that you're whole “concept that came to you one night” stems from your blatant misunderstanding of John 1:1.

    Re-read my sample sentences again.  Tell me which one of them makes any sense.


    Hi Mike,

    Are you saying that Scripture, as written in John 1:1, does not make sense to you?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    edj

    it seems that you talk like someone who does know please show it ,

    side by side ;I mean the scripture John 1;1 and then your identification of all the participants in it ;

    and then we see if you understand it rightly

    #300646
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi T,
    Are you sure you are in the right position to judge such things?

    #300649
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (terraricca @ June 03 2012,16:33)

    Quote (Ed J @ June 03 2012,23:02)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 03 2012,12:42)
    I don't know to what you refer, but even the Trinitarians Keith and Jack speak the scriptural truth some of the time, right?

    Right now I'm trying to show you how senseless it is to believe that the Word was with the same God it was.

    It seems that you're whole “concept that came to you one night” stems from your blatant misunderstanding of John 1:1.

    Re-read my sample sentences again.  Tell me which one of them makes any sense.


    Hi Mike,

    Are you saying that Scripture, as written in John 1:1, does not make sense to you?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    edj

    it seems that you talk like someone who does know please show it ,

    side by side ;I mean the scripture John 1;1 and then your identification of all the participants in it ;

    and then we see if you understand it rightly


    Hi Pierre,

    In the beginning was the HolySpirit,
    and the HolySpirit was with God,
    and the HolySpirit was God.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #300681
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ June 02 2012,23:02)
    Hi Mike,

    Are you saying that Scripture, as written in John 1:1, does not make sense to you?

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ June 02 2012,20:02)
    You would correct scripture so it makes sense to you?


    Ed and Nick,

    Is there only ONE possible translation of John 1:1c?  MUST the Greek words be translated as “the Word was THE God?

    From the 25 Trinitarian scholars of NETNotes:
    Colwell’s Rule is often invoked to support the translation of θεός (qeos) as definite (“God”) rather than indefinite (“a god”) here. However, Colwell’s Rule merely permits, but does not demand, that a predicate nominative ahead of an equative verb be translated as definite rather than indefinite. Furthermore, Colwell’s Rule did not deal with a third possibility, that the anarthrous predicate noun may have more of a qualitative nuance when placed ahead of the verb.

    Are you guys able to understand that there are THREE different, faithful ways to translate 1:1c?  Here are the three ways:

    1.  the god – meaning that God was with Himself and later became flesh  ???

    2.  a god – meaning that the Word was also a mighty being, but not THE god he was with

    3.  god qualitatively – which would be similar to saying, In the beginning, Cain was with THE adam (the man), and Cain was adam (of mankind).

    (A fourth option of “the Word was divine”, or “the Word was God-like”, is ruled out by Kittel's Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, which says:  The noun form is here used, not the adjectival theios, which would be required to simply classify the Word as “god-like.”)

    And of the three remaining possibilities, there is only ONE of these possible translations that the 25 NETNotes scholars eliminate:
    The construction in John 1:1c does not equate the Word with the person of God (this is ruled out by 1:1b, “the Word was with God”)

    Can you guys grasp this simple point they made?  Are you able to understand that God cannot possibly be said to be with God?  You have grown up reading and believing “the Word was God”.  It is now so hard set in your psyches that it is hard for you to let it go.  And because of your insistence upon this flawed and illogical translation of 1:1c, you have gone to great and even more illogical steps to iron out your doctrines.

    Here is some more information for your consideration:
    Murray J. Harris has written: “Accordingly, from the point of view of grammar alone, [QEOS HN hO LOGOS] could be rendered “the Word was a god,….” -Jesus As God, 1992, p. 60.

    C. H. Dodd says: “If a translation were a matter of substituting words, a possible translation of [QEOS EN hO LOGOS]; would be, “The Word was a god”. As a word-for-word translation it cannot be faulted.”

    Harris and Dodd are two more TRINITARIAN Greek experts who acknowledge the possible translation of “a god”.

    Origen of Alexandria, a teacher in Greek grammar of the third century, wrote about the use of the definite article:

    We next notice John's use of the article in these sentences. He does not write without care in this respect, nor is he unfamiliar with the niceties of the Greek tongue. In some cases he uses the article, and in some he omits it. He adds the article to the Logos, but to the name of God he adds it sometimes only. He uses the article, when the name of God refers to the uncreated cause of all things, and omits it when the Logos is named God…. The true God, then, is The God (ho theos).”

    Origen is saying that John knew exactly what he was doing by preceding only ONE of the theos mentioned with the definite article “the”.  Had John wanted to teach that the Word was with THE god and was THE god, he would have written it that way.

    At issue is whether Colwell's rule applies to John 1:1 and if it is a reliable standard by which grammatical constructions of this type should be measured. It has been pointed out that Colwell's rule does not help by determining definiteness.  Rodney J. Decker stated, “it has often been misused by well-intentioned defenders of the deity of Christ.”

    In case you forgot, Colwell's Rule is the one that says we can add the definite article in 1:1c, causing a translation of “THE god”, or “God”.  Are you able to see that the only reason “the Word was God” is even in our English Bibles is because this rule “has often been misused by well-intentioned defenders of the deity of Christ”?  It is there because the majority of English translators were Trinitarians, and wanted to FORCE this scripture to teach that Jesus was God Himself – despite the illogical consequence of 1:1b, which would say that God was with God.  Refer back to the first NETNotes info I quoted above, and you'll see that Colwell's rule “merely permits, but does not demand, that a predicate nominative ahead of an equative verb be translated as definite rather than indefinite.”

    The rendering as “a god” is justified by some non-trinitarians by comparing it with Acts 28:6 which they claim has a similar grammatical construction.  “The people expected him to swell up or suddenly fall dead; but after waiting a long time and seeing nothing unusual happen to him, they changed their minds and said he was a god.”  

    Are you able to see that in the similar construction of Acts 28:6, all English Bibles render “a god” instead of “THE god”, or “God”?  So why do so many people fault an “a god” translation of 1:1c, but readily accept “a god” in 28:6? ???

    Listen guys, there is MUCH more information I could post on this subject, such as the first language into which the Greek scriptures were translated, that used indefinite articles like we do, was the Coptic language.  And in the Coptic translation of 1:1c, it reads “a god”.  But I list this very small bit of information in an effort to get you guys to at least acknowledge the possibility of “the Word was a god”.

    Will you do that honest thing?  Or will you ignore the FACTS of the matter, and continue to INSIST upon “the Word was God” – despite the facts of the matter?

    #300686
    Ed J
    Participant

    Hi Mike,

    “For in the multitude of dreams and many words
    there are also divers vanities: but fear thou God.” (Eccl 5:7)

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #300688
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Hi Ed,

    Will you honor my request?  Will your pride allow you to acknowledge the grammatical possibility of “the Word was a god”?

    Or will you bury your head in the sand and just continue to pretend that “a god” is acceptable for Acts 28:6, but not for John 1:1?

    (Note:  I'm not asking you to change your preference – but only to acknowledge the FACT that “a god” is one of the three faithful possibilities of 1:1c.  Will you do that?)

    #300690
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 04 2012,02:45)
    Hi Ed,

    Will you honor my request?  Will your pride allow you to acknowledge the grammatical possibility of “the Word was a god”?

    Or will you bury your head in the sand and just continue to pretend that “a god” is acceptable for Acts 28:6, but not for John 1:1?

    (Note:  I'm not asking you to change your preference – but only to acknowledge the FACT that “a god” is one of the three faithful possibilities of 1:1c.  Will you do that?)


    Hi Mike,

    Isaiah 44:8 discounts 'a god' as a possibility.
    Sorry, but I cannot agree with you on that.

    It is only because you have been taught
    incorrectly, that you miss the fact that
    “The Word” refers to God's HolySpirit.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #300691
    Ed J
    Participant

    Hi Mike,

    The people on the island of Melita were superstitious
    and they 'thought' Paul to be a god; but we
    both know he wasn't, right Mike?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #300700
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Ah, but was it the people on the island of Malta who wrote the book of Acts? Or was it the apostle Luke who conveyed to us that the islanders thought Paul was a god?

    #300701
    Ed J
    Participant

    Hi Mike,

    I believe it was Luke the wrote the book of Acts.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #300702
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ June 03 2012,09:51)
    Hi Mike,

    Isaiah 44:8 discounts 'a god' as a possibility.
    Sorry, but I cannot agree with you on that


    Doesn't that scripture also discount Jehovah from being “the God of gods”, or “the Most High God”?  Yet He is those things, right?  :)

    Quote (Ed J @ June 03 2012,09:51)
    It is only because you have been taught
    incorrectly, that you miss the fact that
    “The Word” refers to God's HolySpirit.


    Actually Ed, I was taught “the Word was God” just like you.  But since that never aligned with the rest of the scriptures, I did my own research into this one little verse, and have learned the truth of the matter.

    But I understand that what you were taught feels comfortable to you, like a broken in pair of shoes.  I understand that you prefer that comfort over the truth of the matter.

    #300714
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi MB,
    But you are far from the truth.
    You have only satisfied greek logic which reigns for you.

    It produces mindless fluff.

    #300728
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Nick,

    The question was: Do you acknowledge “a god” as a grammatically possible translation of John 1:1c? YES or NO?

    #300739
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi MB,
    Would that be consistent with 1 Jn?

    #300740
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi MB,
    It is not our job to justify your speculations is it?

    #300760
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Nick,

    The information is all right there before your very eyes.  The FACT is that in Acts 28:6 (and hundreds of other scriptures), English translators have a choice of translating “God”, or “a god”.

    The FACT is that they have that very same choice in John 1:1.

    Do you acknowledge this FACT?  Or do you prefer to keep playing games?

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