Did Jesus pre-exist before his birth on Earth?

Where did Jesus come from?

John 6:38-40
For I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will, but the will of him who sent me; and this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise it up at the last day. For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who sees the Son and believes in him should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.

The first verse suggests that Jesus came down from Heaven. This seems to contradict that belief which suggests he first existed as a man when he was born into this world. For if Jesus came into existence for the first time when he was conceived through Mary, how could he come down from Heaven? We (Man) came into existence when we are born into this world, but would it be correct to say that we came down from Heaven too? If a verse said that we came down from Heaven, would you think that we pre-existed in Heaven? If so, then why not Jesus?

John 3:17 is another verse that provides support that Jesus came down from Heaven or was sent rather than created.

For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.

The word ‘send’ is the Greek word ‘apostello’.

apostello {ap-os-tel’-lo}
1) to order (one) to go to a place appointed
2) to send away, dismiss
2a) to allow one to depart, that he may be in a state of liberty
2b) to order one to depart, send off
2c) to drive away

To be sent surely implies existence otherwise you would just say born or created. In fact this word (sent) is similar in meaning and sound to the word Apostle (apostolos), which means “one sent forth with orders”. To be sent forth with order, you must exist.

John 6:62
What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?

Jesus is clearly stating here that he came from above since he eventually ascended into Heaven to be at the right-hand of God.

How old is Jesus?

John 1:15
15 John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.‘ “

John the Baptist was six months older than Jesus Christ. So it is physically impossible for Christ to be before him in age. If this verse is referencing age, then it shows preexistence. Jesus existed before  John the Baptist in the least.

John 8:58
“I tell you the truth,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!

Jesus claimed to exist before Abraham, the father of the Jews. The words ‘I am’ mean ‘I exist’. So Jesus claimed existence before Abraham. We can see that Jesus is getting older as we explore the scriptures. But how old?

Jude 1:25
to the only God our Savior be glory, majesty, power and authority, through Jesus Christ our Lord, before all ages, now and forevermore! Amen.

Here we can see that majesty, power, and authority through Jesus Christ is before all ages (all worlds) and forever more into the future. This strongly implies that Jesus existed even before all things. But can we substantiate this?

Did Jesus exist before all creation?

Colossians 1:17
He is before all things, and in him all things hold together.

Colossians answers the question outright. It states that “He is before all things“.  But are there other verses that support this idea?

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus being there. This verse alone answers the question because the universe, angels, and men were made and Jesus was present when they were created according to these verses. In case that is not enough to convince you, I also add another clear verse that says the same thing.

Hebrews 1:1-2
1 In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways,
2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe.

Is Jesus the Word of God?

But some say that this is talking about the Word and not all believe that Jesus is the Word of God. They argue that Jesus came from the Word, but is not the Word itself that was with God in John 1:1. If you believe this, then please explain the next two verses within their wider context:

Revelation 19:13
He is dressed in a robe dipped in blood, and his name is the Word of God.

Colossians 1:15-18
The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him. He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. And he is the head of the body, the church; he is the beginning and the firstborn from among the dead, so that in everything he might have the supremacy.

Okay, if you are honest, this is a closed case. God created all things through the Word. Jesus is called the Word of God and also the son of God. We are also told that God created all things through the son of God. Even if you do not believe that Jesus is the Word, then you still have to believe that Jesus pre-existed on account of him being the son of God. But what we know from scripture is that Jesus existed as the Word of God before he came as a man called Jesus. We know that the Word became flesh.

More proof verses

If Jesus pre-existed, then you might expect that even though the above verses are clear, there would be more verses that teach or at least imply that he pre-existed. So let’s see if this is the case.

Revelation 22:16
“I, Jesus, have sent my angel to give you this testimony for the churches. I am the Root and the Offspring of David, and the bright Morning Star.”

Here we see that Jesus is the offspring of David, yet he is also the root of David, which at appears to show existence before King David. He also claims to be the bright Morning Star and we read in Job how the Morning Stars were present when God created the Earth.

Job 38:6-7
“On what were its bases sunk? Or who laid its cornerstone, When the morning stars sang together And all the sons of God shouted for joy? 

Luke 10:18
He replied, “I saw Satan fall like lightning from heaven.

Comparing Luke 10:18 with Revelation 12:1-10, some say that Satan and his angels fell to the earth before the birth of Christ as a man. If this was the case, then Jesus saw an event that took place before he was born as a man. However, others argue that Satan hasn’t fallen to the Earth yet, or that he has, but Jesus saw this in a vision. Regardless, it certainly doesn’t contradict that Jesus pre-existed.

Micah 5:2
“But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, though you are small among the clans of Judah, out of you will come for me one who will be ruler over Israel, whose origins are from of old, from ancient times.”

The above verse talks about someone who will rule Israel and whose origin is from ancient times. Who but Jesus could fit that description?

John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God/Divine.

John 1:14
The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only,[ 1:14 Or the Only Begotten] who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Clearly, Jesus was with God in the beginning as the Word of God. This places his existence as before all things and thus comes as no surprise that he was there when God created all things.

The Angel of YHWH

We know from certain scriptures that Jesus is Lord of the Sabbath and many assume that Jesus gave the Law of God. We are told in Acts:7:30-39 for instance that an Angel of the Lord appeared to Moses through whom God spoke and this is the same Angel who spoke to Moses on Mount Sinai and passed on the living words (The Law) to Moses.

30 “After forty years had passed, an angel appeared to Moses in the flames of a burning bush in the desert near Mount Sinai.
31 When he saw this, he was amazed at the sight. As he went over to look more closely, he heard the Lord’s voice:
32 ‘I am the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.’Moses trembled with fear and did not dare to look.
33 “Then the Lord said to him, ‘Take off your sandals; the place where you are standing is holy ground.
34 I have indeed seen the oppression of my people in Egypt. I have heard their groaning and have come down to set them free. Now come, I will send you back to Egypt.’
35 “This is the same Moses whom they had rejected with the words, ‘Who made you ruler and judge?’ He was sent to be their ruler and deliverer by God himself, through the angel who appeared to him in the bush.
36 He led them out of Egypt and did wonders and miraculous signs in Egypt, at the Red Sea and for forty years in the desert.
37 “This is that Moses who told the Israelites, ‘God will send you a prophet like me from your own people.’
38 He was in the assembly in the desert, with the angel who spoke to him on Mount Sinai, and with our fathers; and he received living words to pass on to us.
39 “But our fathers refused to obey him. Instead, they rejected him and in their hearts turned back to Egypt.

So is this Angel of the Lord, Jesus? Well it seems possible. Perhaps the correct model to look at is the one mentioned in Revelation 1:1

The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,

Here we can see that the order of the Revelation started with the Originator which is God. He then passed the message to Jesus Christ who in turn sent it to his Angel and then to John. So perhaps it is possible that the angel in Revelation is the same angel mentioned in Acts:7:30-39.

But the Angel of YHWH or Angel of the LORD is described as one like the son of gods.

Daniel 3:24-25
Then Nebuchadnezzar the king was astounded and stood up in haste; he said to his high officials, “Was it not three men we cast bound into the midst of the fire?” They replied to the king, “Certainly, O king.” He said, “Look! I see four men loosed and walking about in the midst of the fire without harm, and the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods!”

The idea that a preincarnate Jesus was this Angel of the LORD is a popular one. We know that this Angel of the LORD is never mentioned while Jesus is walking the earth which supports this idea. But it could also be a coincidence. One connection that can be made with Jesus being this messenger is found in Judges 13:18.

Manoah said to the angel of the LORD, “What is your name, so that when your words come to pass, we may honor you?” But the angel of the LORD said to him, “Why do you ask my name, seeing it is wonderful?”

Now read what Isaiah prophesied in Isaiah 9:6 .

For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

Clearly, Isaiah was speaking of Jesus Christ and note that he was called Wonderful Counselor. Is there a connection here? Perhaps. What we do know is the word ‘angel’ is the same word messenger in the Old Testament, and while it is held that Jesus is not an angel in kind, we know he certainly was a messenger of YHWH and would be fair to say even ‘The Messenger of YHWH’.

So the idea that he may be this angel is not that far fetched. Some vehemently oppose this idea, but they are not aware that both Jesus and John are called angels in the messenger sense.

More to come here……

More proof that Jesus pre-existed

Rev 3:14
And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God.

Moving on we read the following in Philippians 2:5-11
5 Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus:
6 Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,
7 but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.
8 And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to death even death on a cross!
9 Therefore God exalted him to the highest place and gave him the name that is above every name,
10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

Surely the above verses assumes preexistence.  Look at verse 7: ‘but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness’. This verse points out that Jesus humbled himself to become a (or like a) human and also a servant. So this suggests to us that he preexisted in a higher state because to humble oneself is to become lower. If he started life in this humbled state, then it would be incorrect to say that he humbled himself. Further, he “found himself in appearance as a man” is a weird statement to make if he first existed as a human baby.

This verse is often used in support of the trinity doctrine because of the word ‘equal’. But if you are equal to something it means that you are not that thing, rather you are like that thing. This scripture is also very clear about the following: The Father is God and Jesus is Lord and that God exalted Jesus to the highest place.

A closer look at verse 9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: Now I am not sure if Jesus was exalted higher than he was before he came to this world or whether he was exalted to the exact position that he had before. But if we look at John 17:5 again we can see that Jesus asked to return to his former glory.

John 17:5
And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began.

The above verse is clear about Christ’s pre-existence in glory before the world began. Just to prove this is not an isolated scripture here is a similar verse:

John 16:28
I came from the Father and entered the world; now I am leaving the world and going back to the Father.”

The next verse also confirms that Jesus pre-existed in Heaven.

John 3:12-15
12 I have spoken to you of earthly things and you do not believe; how then will you believe if I speak of heavenly things?
13 No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven, the Son of Man.
14 Just as Moses lifted up the snake in the desert, so the Son of Man must be lifted up,
15 that everyone who believes in him may have eternal life.

Ezekiel 8:1-3
1 In the sixth year, in the sixth month on the fifth day, while I was sitting in my house and the elders of Judah were sitting before me, the hand of the Sovereign LORD came upon me there.
2 I looked, and I saw a figure like that of a man. From what appeared to be his waist down he was like fire, and from there up his appearance was as bright as glowing metal.
3 He stretched out what looked like a hand and took me by the hair of my head. The Spirit lifted me up between earth and heaven and in visions of God he took me to Jerusalem, to the entrance to the north gate of the inner court, where the idol that provokes to jealousy stood.

This verse is interesting in the sense that the description is very similar to the description of Jesus Christ in Revelation 1:12-18,

12 I turned around to see the voice that was speaking to me. And when I turned I saw seven golden lampstands,
13 and among the lampstands was someone “like a son of man,” dressed in a robe reaching down to his feet and with a golden sash around his chest.
14 His head and hair were white like wool, as white as snow, and his eyes were like blazing fire.
15 His feet were like bronze glowing in a furnace, and his voice was like the sound of rushing waters.
16 In his right hand he held seven stars, and out of his mouth came a sharp double-edged sword. His face was like the sun shining in all its brilliance.
17 When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. Then he placed his right hand on me and said: “Do not be afraid. I am the First and the Last.
18 I am the Living One; I was dead, and behold I am alive for ever and ever! And I hold the keys of death and Hades.

Have a look at the next verse. 1 Corinthians 11:3 (English-NIV)
Now I want you to realize that the head of every man is Christ, and the head of the woman is man, and the head of Christ is God.

Now the word head in the Greek is ‘kephale’ which can mean head, source or master. Now if we notice the order in a time sense, we have to admit that God is the first as he is the only one who has existed for all eternity with no beginning. We also know from scripture that the man came first and the woman came from the man. So that part is correct if we use a timeline. That just leaves Christ. Did he come between God and Man. I think so, as I believe that all things came from him and this opinion does fit perfectly into this model in a time sense at least. Anyway the word Christ here is ‘Christos’ which means “anointed”. So the anointed is the head of Man.
God > Christ > Man > Woman

If God created all things for his Son and his Son was the channel for that creation to come into being, then we can only assume that Christ existed at this point. As Genesis says: Let us make Man in our image. God was talking to Christ at this point and we know that Christ is the image of God and we are the image of Christ. Therefore the image of the image of God (man) is still the image of God. But Christ is the original and first image and we can only assume again that that image existed before the image of the image. A bit like a mirror that reflects a mirror, the original mirror has to exist in order to reflect the second mirror.

So we know that Christ preexisted before creation and now we will look at some more scriptures that show that he was born before creation itself?

Colossians 1:15-16
15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.
16 For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him.

The above verse is quite clear that ALL things were created by or through Jesus.

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So again, there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus/The Word being there. Only the Father and Son were not made. God has always existed and the Son was born from God before the creation of the universe, before anything was made. The next verse describes clearly who/what was the first of God’s works.

Proverbs 8:22-30
22 “The LORD brought me forth as the first of his works, {[22] Or ; or } {[22] Or ; or } before his deeds of old;
23 I was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
24 When there were no oceans, I was given birth, when there were no springs abounding with water;
25 before the mountains were settled in place, before the hills, I was given birth,
26 before he made the earth or its fields or any of the dust of the world.
27 I was there when he set the heavens in place, when he marked out the horizon on the face of the deep,
28 when he established the clouds above and fixed securely the fountains of the deep,
29 when he gave the sea its boundary so the waters would not overstep his command, and when he marked out the foundations of the earth.
30 Then I was the craftsman at his side. I was filled with delight day after day, rejoicing always in his presence,

This verse is talking about Wisdom, whom many believe is Christ. This scriptures compliments other scriptures that that teach that Jesus was given birth by God and then created all THINGS though him.

So from this verse we can see the following points.

Wisdom was brought forth as the first of Gods works.
Wisdom was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
Wisdom was given birth before creation.
Wisdom was the craftsman at his side and rejoiced in his presence before creation.
Some say that Wisdom isn’t Christ, rather this is just wisdom in a conceptual sense and it is true that wisdom is being spoken of in that way. But from verse 22 onward it changes tempo. With terms like I was given birth, I was the craftsman at his side and I was filled with delight, we have to admit that it seems to be talking about a person. Now have a look at the following verses:

1 Corinthians 1:24 (English-NIV)
but to those whom God has called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God.

1 Corinthians 1:30 (English-NIV)
It is because of him that you are in Christ Jesus, who has become for us wisdom from God–that is, our righteousness, holiness and redemption.

Let’s look at some other concepts that Jesus personifies:

Jesus is the Truth. Yet truth is also a concept.
Jesus is the Way. Yet the way is also a concept.
Jesus is the Life. Yet life can also be a concept.
Now look at the following mystery:

1 Corinthians 2:6-9
6 We do, however, speak a message of wisdom among the mature, but not the wisdom of this age or of the rulers of this age, who are coming to nothing.
7 No, we speak of God’s secret wisdom, a wisdom that has been hidden and that God destined for our glory before time began.
8 None of the rulers of this age understood it, for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.
9 However, as it is written:
“No eye has seen,
no ear has heard,
no mind has conceived
what God has prepared for those who love him”

Ephesians 3:8-10
8 Although I am less than the least of all God’s people, this grace was given me: to preach to the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ,
9 and to make plain to everyone the administration of this mystery, which for ages past was kept hidden in God, who created all things.
10 His intent was that now, through the church, the manifold wisdom of God should be made known to the rulers and authorities in the heavenly realms,

Perhaps another scripture alluding to Jesus being the Wisdom of God.

Finally I leave you with the following OT scripture that suggests that God had a Son before the birth Of Jesus Christ on earth.

Proverbs 30:4
Who has gone up to heaven and come down? Who has gathered up the wind in the hollow of his hands? Who has wrapped up the waters in his cloak? Who has established all the ends of the earth? What is his name, and the name of his son? Tell me if you know!


Discussion

Viewing 20 posts - 5,821 through 5,840 (of 19,165 total)
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  • #162718
    martian
    Participant

    Irene,
    You say –
    Tell me Gene does God need a reason to do anything? Not in my book. Did you ever consider maybe He wanted some one like Him, only to go into the world to save mankind.

    Reply –
    I agree that God wants someone like Him. That is the purpose of all of creation. Mankind was created to develop and mature into beings in which can have fellowship with Him. Jesus as the second Adam completed that mission and set an example for us to follow. To whatever degree you change Christ from a normal human being to the same degree you lessen his example for us.

    God has revealed himself and His nature to us by virtue of his functions. Even His names indicate function not just identity. Read the names below and notice they all are descriptions of God’s function and purpose. When you ask the question does God need a reason for doing what He does. I can only say that He has shown many reason/purposes in his plan. He does this so that we might better understand his nature. Your concept of not knowing why God has a preexistent Christ always ends in a mystery just like the Trinitarians doctrine.
    You don’t know what Christ was before the Earthly birth.
    You do not know what happened to that Christ after the birth.
    You don’t know how much advantage Christ had because of his preexistance.

    All of these things muddle and confuse the pure example of Christ as the one we should follow.

    1. God (Heb. Elohim): often regarded the plural of majesty for God in the OT, the name signifies speaks of his role as the transcendent Creator of all that exists (Gen. 1:2). One key understanding of the Hebrew language is that a plural noun does not mean literally plural but is used to show an over abundance of the function of the noun in question. The majesty of God is then emphasized.

    2. God Most High (Heb. El-Elyon): This name indicates Gods’ superior position above all the other gods of the nations (Gen. 14:18-20).

    3. LORD (Heb. YHWH or Yahweh or Jehovah): The “I AM” God of the burning bush episode in Moses’ call to deliver Israel from slavery in Egypt (Exod. 3:14-15). The name signified God would be an inexhaustible resource for accomplishing all that he had charged Moses to do. The name is also associated with God’s covenant with Israel and speaks to the personal and relational nature of his character.

    4. Lord (Heb. Adonai): Revealed God as owner and master of all his creation (Josh. 3:11).

    5. God Almighty (Heb. El-Shaddai): The name recalls God’s power in creating and sustaining all life (Gen. 17:1). The name literally means “God of the mountains” and later it became associated with the awesome display of divine might at Mt. Sinai (Exod. 19).

    6. God Everlasting (Heb. El-Olam): This name emphasizes God’s immensity and eternality (Gen. 21:33).

    7. God, the One Who Sees (Heb. El-Roeh): The name reveals God’s beneficent omniscience, a God who sees the needs of his people and cares enough to respond with help and deliverance (Gen. 16:13).

    8. God of the Covenant (Heb. El-Berith): A reminder of God’s immanence as a covenant maker with humanity, his faithfulness as a covenant keeper, and the security found in relationship with God (Judg. 9:46).

    9. God, the God of Israel (Heb. El-Elohe-Israel): The names attests God’s sovereignty and providential watch and care over Israel as his elect people (Gen. 33:19-20).

    10. The LORD our Provision (Heb. YHWH/Yahweh-Yireh or Jehovah Jireh): A name that witnesses God’s ability to sustain the faithful in trial and testing (Gen. 22:13-14).

    11. The LORD Heals (Heb. YHWH/Yahweh-Rapha): A name revealing God’s potent curative powers to overcome sin and disease in the fallen creation (Exod. 15:26).

    12. The LORD our Banner (Heb. YWWH/Yahweh-Nissi): A reminder that God himself goes before his people in battle and in all of life (Exod. 17:15).

    13. The LORD is Peace (Heb. YHWH/Yahweh-Shalom): The righteous may rest secure in God (Judg. 6:24).

    14. The LORD our Shepherd (Heb. YHWH/Yahweh-Ra’ah): The most poignant of all the divine names—God tends to his people like a shepherd for his sheep (Ps. 23:1).

    15. The LORD our Righteousness (Heb. YHWH/Yahweh-Tsidkenu): The name exalts the perfection and impeccable character of God (Jer. 23:6).

    16. The LORD is Present (Heb. YHWH/Yahweh-Shammah): The name affirms the omnipresence of God as the personal Creator and Redeemer of the world and all people (Ezek. 48:35).

    17.The LORD of Hosts (Heb. YHWH/Yahweh-Sabaoth): The name designates God as the creator and leader of the angel armies of heaven (1 Sam. 17:45).

    #162722
    KangarooJack
    Participant

    Quote (kerwin @ Dec. 06 2009,08:52)
    thethinker wrote:

    Quote

    But the prophets were not sent into the world FROM HEAVEN.

    I do not believe you stated that.  I assure you the one who sent the true prophets is in heaven.  In other words since they were sent from God they were sent from heaven.


    Kerwin,
    The prophets did not come down from heaven. Come on! Paul was a prophet. Show where he likened his apostleship and his calling to being sent from heaven.

    thinker

    #162723
    KangarooJack
    Participant

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Dec. 07 2009,05:24)
    Trinitarians make Yeshua HaMoshiach into a “Golden Calf”.

    :cool:


    Explain 2 Peter 3:18:

    (Young's Literal Translation)
    “…and increase ye in grace, and in the knowledge of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ; to him [is] the glory both now, and to the day of the age! Amen.”

    Are you prepared to charge Peter with making a golden calf out of Jesus? By your logic this is what Peter did by attributing the glory to Jesus Christ. Then he said, “Amen.” Come on Con. Say “amen” with Peter.

    Peter is an idolater also for saying that Jesus Christ is the Savior. Either Peter is an idolater or you are disobedient. You know what I think.

    thinker

    #162728

    Quote (martian @ Dec. 06 2009,12:37)
    Frankly I am a little sick of those that accuse me of ignoring clear scripture and accuse me of being unsaved because I do not follow their particular interpretation of scripture.


    This is laughable! Why? Because it is you and every other ‘Arian” and “Unitarian” here that is ignoring clear scriptures and the Greek structure of their text.

    Since you and others by your statements and doctrines claim to know more than the Greek and Hebrew Scholars, those who translated the English versions for us, then please humor us and explain why they are not correct.

    Tell us why didn’t the Translators translate a scripture like “I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will…“, to say something like…“the Fathers plan has come down from heaven, to do the Fathers will”. The translators could have done that if the Greek text would have allowed for it.

    But it is not translated that way because that is not what Jesus said nor is it what he meant. But it is pure inference by you and others that change Jesus clear meaning!

    So Martian since you are so right then why don’t you break it down for us and explain why we should change the meaning of the Greek text which proves the Preexistence of Jesus?

    Come on mister, show us how the experts are wrong and address the following post which is proof that the text cannot be read the way the Unitarians read it.

    See if you can do this rather than just plaster the pages with a bunch of apologetics as a means of diversion!  

    John 6:38-40
    For “I have come down (katabainō) from heaven, not to do my own will“, but the will of him who sent me; and this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise it up at the last day. For this is the will of my Father, that every one who sees the Son and believes in him should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.

    It is obvious what Jesus meant, but men who know nothing of the construction of the Greek have set out to make themselves greater than the truth by misinterpreting the clear meaning of the text in which the authors intended and which the translators translated.

    The Greek construction of the text concerning the preexistence of Jesus does not allow for a “Unitarian” interpretation.

    The Greek for “I have come” is Strong's G2597 – katabainō which is defined…

    1) to go down, come down, descend
    a) the place from which one has come down from
    b) to come down

    In every place the word is used it is referring to a literal action by a person and not an abstract “thought or plan”“.

    katabainō  is in the “perfect” tense, and the “active voice” and the “indicative” mood!

    The perfect tense” in Greek corresponds to the perfect tense in English, and describes “an action” which is viewed as having been completed in the past, once and for all, not needing to be repeated.

    Jesus' last cry from the cross, TETELESTAI (“It is finished!”) is a good example of the perfect tense used in this sense, namely “It [the atonement] has been accomplished, completely, once and for all time.”

    Certain antiquated verb forms in Greek, such as those related to seeing (eidw) or knowing (oida) will use the perfect tense in a manner equivalent to the normal past tense. These few cases are exception to the normal rule and do not alter the normal connotation of the perfect tense stated above.

    The active voice” represents the subject as the doer or performer of the action. e.g., in the sentence, “The boy hit the ball,” the boy performs the action.

    The indicative mood” is a simple statement of fact. If an action really occurs or has occurred or will occur, it will be rendered in the indicative mood.

    For I came down (katabainō) from heaven”, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me. John 6:38

    The same word is used here…

    And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God “descending (katabainō,)” like a dove, and lighting upon him: Matt 3:16

    And here…

    And, behold, there was a great earthquake: for the angel of the Lord “(descended (katabainō )” from heaven, and came and rolled back the stone from the door, and sat upon it. Matt 28:2

    Was the Holy Spirit and the Angel a “thought or plan” come down from heaven? Or did they really descend from  heaven?

    Jesus said plainly that he came “From God” and “went to God”.

    Jesus knowing that the Father had given all things into his hands, and that “he was come from God, and went to God“; John 13:3

    Again the Greek word come is in the “active voice” meaning Jesus did the action, and it is the indicative mood which means “the action really occurred”.

    When Jesus ascended to heaven., it was Jesus that did the ascending! The scriptures do not tell us the Father took him to heaven!

    Jesus words were clear, for he never said or even in the slightest way implied that he was or came from a plan or thought of the Father!

    Jesus puts the nail in the coffin for those who questioned what he was saying by the following words…

    What and if ye shall see the Son of man “ascend up where he was before”? John 6:62

    Again the word “Ascend” is in the present tense and active voice which means that Jesus is doing the action.

    Jesus is going to “WHERE HE WAS BEFORE”!

    Was he returning to a “plan or thought” or was he returning to the Father in heaven from where he came from and to the Glory that he had with the Father before the foundation of the world.

    John 17:5
    And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with “the glory which I had with thee before the world was“.

    The Greek word for “I had” is Strong's G2192 – echō which is defined as…

    1) to have, i.e. to hold

    a) to have (hold) in the hand, in the sense of wearing, to have (hold) possession of the mind (refers to alarm, agitating emotions, etc.), to hold fast keep, to have or comprise or involve, to regard or consider or hold as 2) to have i.e. own, possess

    Again “I had” is in the “imperfect tense”, the “active voice”, and the “indicative mood”, so there is no way Jesus was saying “I shared his glory because I was in his thought and plan”!

    To deny the preexistence of Jesus is to deny the simple truths of the scriptures that tell us that Jesus was with the Father in the beginning of all of creation!

    The Jews mumured among themselves because Jesus said he was the Bread of Life that came down from heaven and many turned back because it was a hard pill they could not swallow!

    John 6:61, 62
    When Jesus knew in himself that his disciples murmured at it, he said unto them, Doth this offend you? What and if ye shall see the Son of man “ascend up where he was before“?

    WJ

    #162730

    Quote (thethinker @ Dec. 07 2009,11:07)

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Dec. 07 2009,05:24)
    Trinitarians make Yeshua HaMoshiach into a “Golden Calf”.

    :cool:


    Explain 2 Peter 3:18:

    (Young's Literal Translation)
    “…and increase ye in grace, and in the knowledge of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ; to him [is] the glory both now, and to the day of the age! Amen.”

    Are you prepared to charge Peter with making a golden calf out of Jesus? By your logic this is what Peter did by attributing the glory to Jesus Christ. Then he said, “Amen.” Come on Con. Say “amen” with Peter.

    Peter is an idolater also for saying that Jesus Christ is the Savior. Either Peter is an idolater or you are disobedient. You know what I think.

    thinker


    Jack

    True.

    He accuses us of giving to much honor and glory to Jesus, yet Jesus said we are to give him the same honor as we do the Father.

    They accuse us of seeing Jesus as an idol, yet it seems that they see him as a worm.

    WJ

    #162735
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    WJ…………Why go to the Greeks to learn, why not let the Spirit of GOD TEACH YOU the TRUTH> “Brethern you have (NO) need of a teacher , for the Spirit (ITSELF) shall teach you all things”. The Spirit (intellect) to recognize truth is the guiding light. Surely not the Greeks and your 200 scholars who run you around a thousand rabbit trails and causing you to ever learn but never coming into the true Knowledge of GOD. IMO

    peace and love to you and yours……………..gene

    #162736

    Quote (Gene @ Dec. 07 2009,12:07)
    WJ…………Why go to the Greeks to learn, why not let the Spirit of GOD TEACH YOU the TRUTH> “Brethern you have (NO) need of a teacher , for the Spirit (ITSELF) shall teach you all things”. The Spirit (intellect) to recognize truth is the guiding light.  Surely not the Greeks and your 200 scholars who run you around a thousand rabbit trails and causing you to ever learn but never coming into the true Knowledge of GOD. IMO

    peace and love to you and yours……………..gene


    Gene

    But you assume that the Scholars did not have the Spirit!

    You also assume that the Holy Spirit will contradict the Greek text!

    You take an English Tranlsation and infer your own meaning to them, and in so doing you make the word of God of none effect!

    WJ

    #162738
    banana
    Participant

    Quote (martian @ Dec. 07 2009,04:44)
    SORRY TYPO ERROR
    SOME do not want Jesus to be a normal human because it sets the standard for perfected humanity very high.


    Did you even read Philippians 2:5-8
    Why O why that is all I can say to you again and again Scriptures get put in front of you and you still insist otherwise. I am sitting here and shaking my head. In a way I understand you, cause I was like you long ago, but I don't think I argued with the person that told us about Jesus preexisting. Then long ago we went to the Catholic Church too. We never read the Bible then, either. Jesus emptied Himself and became obedient to the point of death on the cross. Was Jesus an ordinary man, No. If He would have been He would have sinned just like an ordinary man. All have fallen short of the glory of God. Have you ever seen a 12 year old boy go into any Church or Temple and preach? No. He knew where He came from. How else could He have said what He did in John 17:5.
    Irene
    Irene

    #162739
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    How sad for you! Being sooooo blind. when scriptures show you who our Lord God is. He even tells us; why do you say show us the Father? When you see me you see the Father. And blessed are those who dont see and still believe. Scripture tell us he is KING OF KINGS AND LORD OF LORDS, and the Almighty! Also tells us he is our only SAVIOR, He is our LORD, He is the CREATOR! he will judge us, He is who we will spend eternity with. You all say trinitarians believe in three Gods and that is not so There is one Lord God who came in the flesh,(its in scripture) and ascended back to heaven and sends us the Holy Spirit! ONe GOD, yet you are trying to worship GOD, and obey Jesus's words, to gain the holy Spirit when they are ONE! except you set Jesus much lower. You need to read threw all the new testament again and see who Jesus really is and how much you truly need him. ITS ALL ABOUT JESUS!! And all that God is in the Old Testament is the same of Jesus in the new. WHAT A AWESOME GOD!

    #162748
    KangarooJack
    Participant

    Quote (Gene @ Dec. 08 2009,04:07)
    WJ…………Why go to the Greeks to learn, why not let the Spirit of GOD TEACH YOU the TRUTH> “Brethern you have (NO) need of a teacher , for the Spirit (ITSELF) shall teach you all things”. The Spirit (intellect) to recognize truth is the guiding light.  Surely not the Greeks and your 200 scholars who run you around a thousand rabbit trails and causing you to ever learn but never coming into the true Knowledge of GOD. IMO

    peace and love to you and yours……………..gene


    Uh Gene,
    It is your man Martian who goes to the Greeks to learn. Martian believes that the Logos means “speech.” This was the view of Plato a Greek philosopher. Plato taught that the Logos of John 1:1 was “verbal expression or thought.” So it is you and Martian who “go to the Greeks to learn.”

    Plato 's views were based in a mixture of mystery religions. Yet you guys acccuse trinitarians of believing in a mystery religion.

    Take the log out of your own eye Gene!

    thinker

    #162751
    KangarooJack
    Participant

    WorshippingJesus said to Martian:

    Quote
    And here…

    And, behold, there was a great earthquake: for the angel of the Lord “(descended (katabainō )” from heaven, and came and rolled back the stone from the door, and sat upon it. Matt 28:2

    Was the Holy Spirit and the Angel a “thought or plan” come down from heaven? Or did they really descend from  heaven?


    Ladies and Gentleman….

    May I please have your attention….

    The winner and still the undisputed champion by a knock out is….

    WORSHIPPINGJESUS!!  

    ——————–

    #162767
    martian
    Participant

    Quote (thethinker @ Dec. 08 2009,05:00)

    Quote (Gene @ Dec. 08 2009,04:07)
    WJ…………Why go to the Greeks to learn, why not let the Spirit of GOD TEACH YOU the TRUTH> “Brethern you have (NO) need of a teacher , for the Spirit (ITSELF) shall teach you all things”. The Spirit (intellect) to recognize truth is the guiding light.  Surely not the Greeks and your 200 scholars who run you around a thousand rabbit trails and causing you to ever learn but never coming into the true Knowledge of GOD. IMO

    peace and love to you and yours……………..gene


    Uh Gene,
    It is your man Martian who goes to the Greeks to learn. Martian believes that the Logos means “speech.” This was the view of Plato a Greek philosopher. Plato taught that the Logos of John 1:1 was “verbal expression or thought.” So it is you and Martian who “go to the Greeks to learn.”

    Plato 's views were based in a mixture of mystery religions. Yet you guys acccuse trinitarians of believing in a mystery religion.

    Take the log out of your own eye Gene!

    thinker


    Yep I went to the greek language as explained in Bible dictionaries. just like WJ does.

    #162768
    martian
    Participant

    I previously posted this definition. Which shows that the words heaven and God are often used interchangeably in the NT.
    Word of the Month – שמים Heaven
    By: Jeff A. Benner

    The Hebrew word for “heaven” is שמים shamayim. There is some debate over the origins and meanings of this word but, there are a few common theories.

1. Derived from the unused root שמה shamah possibly meaning lofty. The plural form of this word would be שמים shamayim. 
2. Derived from the root שמם shamam meaning Desolate, in the sense of a dry wind blowing over the land drying it out. The plural form of this word would also be shamayim.
3. The word shamayim may be the Hebrew word מים mayim, meaning water, and the prefix ש sh meaning like. Combined, the word שמים shamayim would mean “like water.”

Aside from the debate over the origins of the word it is clear that the word is commonly used in the Biblical text for “sky.” It is frequently used in conjuction with the word ארץ erets, meaning land (see Gen 1:1, 2:1 and 14:19), representing the whole of creation and the domain of God. 

In the New Testament this word was used as a Euphamism (one word used in place of another) for God. This can be seen in some of the parables where the book of Luke (written for Gentiles) uses the phrase “Kingdom of God” whereas Matthew (written to Jews) uses “Kingdom of Heaven.” In this context, heaven is meant to represent God, not a place.

    Whether the scripture is written in Greek or Hebrew the authors are all Hebrew and thought with a Hebrew mindset. They did not perceive “heaven” as some transcendental place separate from the natural realm. Jesus said the Kingdom of God/heaven is here – not over there or up there.

    I have already posted the reality of figurative and literal language used in your context.
    Here is an article that illustrates that truth.

    “The bread of God is he which comes down from heaven, and gives life unto the world…I came down from heaven” (Jn. 6:33,38).
    These words, and others like them, are misused to support the wrong idea that Jesus existed in Heaven before his birth. The following points, however, must be noted.
    1. Trinitarians take these words as literal in order to prove their point. However, if we are to take them literally, then this means that somehow Jesus literally came down as a person. Not only is the Bible totally silent about this, but the language of Jesus being conceived as a baby in Mary’s womb is made meaningless. Jn.6:60 describes the teaching about the manna as a saying “hard to take in” (Moffatt’s Translation); i.e. we need to understand that it is figurative language being used.
2. In Jn. 6, Jesus is explaining how the manna was a type of himself. The manna was sent from God in the sense that it was God who was responsible for creating it on the earth; it did not physically float down from the throne of God in Heaven. Thus Christ’s coming from Heaven is to be understood likewise; he was created on earth, by the Holy Spirit acting upon the womb of Mary (Lk.1:35).
3. Jesus says that “the bread that I will give is my flesh” (Jn.6:51). Trinitarians claim that it was the ‘God’ part of Jesus which came down from Heaven. But Jesus says that it was his “flesh” which was the bread which came down from Heaven. Likewise Jesus associates the bread from Heaven with himself as the “Son of man” (Jn. 6:62), not ‘God the Son’.
4. In this same passage in Jn. 6 there is abundant evidence that Jesus was not equal to God. “The living Father has sent me” (Jn. 6:57) shows that Jesus and God do not share co-equality; and the fact that “I live by the Father” (Jn. 6:57) is hardly the ‘co-eternity’ of which Trinitarians speak.
5. It must be asked, When and how did Jesus ‘come down’ from Heaven? Trinitarians use these verses in Jn. 6 to ‘prove’ that Jesus came down from Heaven at his birth. But Jesus speaks of himself as “he which cometh down from heaven” (v.33,50), as if it is an ongoing process. Speaking of God’s gift of Jesus, Christ said “My Father is giving you the bread” from Heaven (v.32 Weymouth). At the time Jesus was speaking these words, he had already ‘come down’ in a certain sense, in that he had been sent by God. Because of this, he could also speak in the past tense: “I am the living bread which came down from Heaven” (v.51). But he also speaks about ‘coming down’ as the bread from Heaven in the form of his death on the cross: “The bread that I will give is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world” (v.51). So we have Jesus speaking here of having already come down from Heaven, being in the process of ‘coming down’, and still having to ‘come down’ in his death on the cross. This fact alone should prove that ‘coming down’ refers to God manifesting Himself, rather than only referring to Christ’s birth. This is conclusively proved by all the Old Testament references to God ‘coming down’ having just this same meaning. Thus God saw the affliction of His people in Egypt, and ‘came down’ to save them through Moses. He has seen our bondage to sin, and has ‘come down’ or manifested Himself, by sending Jesus as the equivalent to Moses to lead us out of bondage.

    #162769
    martian
    Participant

    WJ and thethinker,
    A question if you will.
    Do you believe that Heaven (the heaven that Christ “came down from”) is a literal separate place then our realm?

    #162773
    martian
    Participant

    I need to say something aside from doctrine.
    I have seen something creeping up in the posts to me AND FROM ME. An antagonism and confrontational attitude that does not speak well of being in Christ example. Smart-alik comments and saying people are not saved because of their doctrine is a sad condition for us to find ourselves in.
    I know that there may be some that believe they are expressing “righteous anger” as Christ did when he over turned the money lenders, but that action by Christ was certainly not the norm on how he handled people.
    I remember somewhere that we are to speak the truth in love, but I do not see that in some of the posts on here.
    It is God’s right to decide who is saved and who is not and none of our abilities are so finely tuned that we can ascertain from a forum who is in that group.
    It was posted some time back that I left in a “tantrum”. The truth is I found the way in which we were all using the forum as an unhealthy thing. I found myself being adversarial in other aspects of my life and losing sleep upset over some of the things that were said.
    I do not wish to be an adversarial person. The members of my church used to call me passion fruit because the music I wrote carried a passion for the love of Jesus and his relationship with his bride. I look in the mirror after a period of time in this adversarial atmosphere and wonder if that person is still here.
    I said all of that to say this. I may disagree with your doctrines, but I have had no right to make it personal against you. For that I repent and ask the boards forgiveness.
    I returned to this forum because I found a few that I could actually agree with. I really wish there was a forum for all involved in which we could express ourselves with ONLY those that agree with us. Unfortunately I have found myself and others seeming to want the confrontation. We seem to thrive (at least for a while) on the adversarial atmosphere. We seem so intent on pushing our own doctrine on others that we lose the attitude of Christ. I cannot speak for anyone else but for me that is not acceptable.
    There are probably those that live in an illusion that this may not apply to them. If history proves anything it is that those are probably the ones that should be the most careful about it.

    I may choose to leave again. Some will say it is because I cannot prove my doctrine. If that spells victory for you it is a small thing. If I do leave it will be because I do not wish to drink of the anger and antagonism any more.

    Enough said. Take it as you will

    #162802

    Quote (martian @ Dec. 07 2009,14:09)
    I previously posted this definition. Which shows that the words heaven and God are often used interchangeably in the NT.
    Word of the Month – שמים Heaven
    By: Jeff A. Benner


    Martian

    Yes, of course “Benner” the lonely supposed Greek and Hebrew scholar with his “Mechanical” translation which is based on taking single words in the Hebrew and translating them the same regardless of context or the fact that Hebrew and Greek words like any other language may have different meanings.

    I have asked this of Gene without any success. Do you have any more information on this guy?

    Thats OK, I just found some.

    He has a  “Honorary Doctor of Ministry degree in Hebrew Language Studies, Georgetown Wesleyan University of the Americas (2008)”.  Thats It? ???

    Gene has been saying this guy was a Greek and Hebrew scholar for years here and now I see he just got an “Honorary” degree for Hebrew studies last year.

    Which is Ironic since the Wesleyans are Trinitarians.

    Do you have anymore information to support his claims seeing that his Degree is an “Honorary” degree in Hebrew studies and not the Greek and simply means he didn't attend College for his degree?

    And as I thought you did not address the post or the Greek language, tenses, voice, or mood Etc, which of course Brenner ignores apparantly!

    WJ

    #162811

    Quote (martian @ Dec. 07 2009,14:09)
    I previously posted this definition. Which shows that the words heaven and God are often used interchangeably in the NT.
    Word of the Month – שמים Heaven
    By: Jeff A. Benner

    The Hebrew word for “heaven” is שמים shamayim. There is some debate over the origins and meanings of this word but, there are a few common theories.

1. Derived from the unused root שמה shamah possibly meaning lofty. The plural form of this word would be שמים shamayim. 
2. Derived from the root שמם shamam meaning Desolate, in the sense of a dry wind blowing over the land drying it out. The plural form of this word would also be shamayim.
3. The word shamayim may be the Hebrew word מים mayim, meaning water, and the prefix ש sh meaning like. Combined, the word שמים shamayim would mean “like water.”

Aside from the debate over the origins of the word it is clear that the word is commonly used in the Biblical text for “sky.” It is frequently used in conjuction with the word ארץ erets, meaning land (see Gen 1:1, 2:1 and 14:19), representing the whole of creation and the domain of God. 

In the New Testament this word was used as a Euphamism (one word used in place of another) for God. This can be seen in some of the parables where the book of Luke (written for Gentiles) uses the phrase “Kingdom of God” whereas Matthew (written to Jews) uses “Kingdom of Heaven.” In this context, heaven is meant to represent God, not a place.

    Whether the scripture is written in Greek or Hebrew the authors are all Hebrew and thought with a Hebrew mindset. They did not perceive “heaven” as some transcendental place separate from the natural realm. Jesus said the Kingdom of God/heaven is here – not over there or up there.

    I have already posted the reality of figurative and literal language used in your context.
    Here is an article that illustrates that truth.

    “The bread of God is he which comes down from heaven, and gives life unto the world…I came down from heaven” (Jn. 6:33,38).
    These words, and others like them, are misused to support the wrong idea that Jesus existed in Heaven before his birth. The following points, however, must be noted.
    1. Trinitarians take these words as literal in order to prove their point. However, if we are to take them literally, then this means that somehow Jesus literally came down as a person. Not only is the Bible totally silent about this, but the language of Jesus being conceived as a baby in Mary’s womb is made meaningless. Jn.6:60 describes the teaching about the manna as a saying “hard to take in” (Moffatt’s Translation); i.e. we need to understand that it is figurative language being used.
2. In Jn. 6, Jesus is explaining how the manna was a type of himself. The manna was sent from God in the sense that it was God who was responsible for creating it on the earth; it did not physically float down from the throne of God in Heaven. Thus Christ’s coming from Heaven is to be understood likewise; he was created on earth, by the Holy Spirit acting upon the womb of Mary (Lk.1:35).
3. Jesus says that “the bread that I will give is my flesh” (Jn.6:51). Trinitarians claim that it was the ‘God’ part of Jesus which came down from Heaven. But Jesus says that it was his “flesh” which was the bread which came down from Heaven. Likewise Jesus associates the bread from Heaven with himself as the “Son of man” (Jn. 6:62), not ‘God the Son’.
4. In this same passage in Jn. 6 there is abundant evidence that Jesus was not equal to God. “The living Father has sent me” (Jn. 6:57) shows that Jesus and God do not share co-equality; and the fact that “I live by the Father” (Jn. 6:57) is hardly the ‘co-eternity’ of which Trinitarians speak.
5. It must be asked, When and how did Jesus ‘come down’ from Heaven? Trinitarians use these verses in Jn. 6 to ‘prove’ that Jesus came down from Heaven at his birth. But Jesus speaks of himself as “he which cometh down from heaven” (v.33,50), as if it is an ongoing process. Speaking of God’s gift of Jesus, Christ said “My Father is giving you the bread” from Heaven (v.32 Weymouth). At the time Jesus was speaking these words, he had already ‘come down’ in a certain sense, in that he had been sent by God. Because of this, he could also speak in the past tense: “I am the living bread which came down from Heaven” (v.51). But he also speaks about ‘coming down’ as the bread from Heaven in the form of his death on the cross: “The bread that I will give is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world” (v.51). So we have Jesus speaking here of having already come down from Heaven, being in the process of ‘coming down’, and still having to ‘come down’ in his death on the cross. This fact alone should prove that ‘coming down’ refers to God manifesting Himself, rather than only referring to Christ’s birth. This is conclusively proved by all the Old Testament references to God ‘coming down’ having just this same meaning. Thus God saw the affliction of His people in Egypt, and ‘came down’ to save them through Moses. He has seen our bondage to sin, and has ‘come down’ or manifested Himself, by sending Jesus as the equivalent to Moses to lead us out of bondage.


    Martian

    If Jesus was not litterally meaning that he came down from heaven then why did he say this…?

    Jesus puts the nail in the coffin for those who questioned what he was saying by the following words…

    What and if ye shall see the Son of man “ascend up where he was before”? John 6:62

    Again the word “Ascend” is in the present tense and active voice which means that Jesus is doing the action.

    Jesus is going to “WHERE HE WAS BEFORE”!

    Was he returning to a “plan or thought” or was he returning to the Father in heaven from where he came from and to the Glory that he had with the Father before the foundation of the world.

    John 17:5
    And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with “the glory which I had with thee before the world was“.

    The Greek word for “I had” is Strong's G2192 – echō which is defined as…

    1) to have, i.e. to hold

    a) to have (hold) in the hand, in the sense of wearing, to have (hold) possession of the mind (refers to alarm, agitating emotions, etc.), to hold fast keep, to have or comprise or involve, to regard or consider or hold as 2) to have i.e. own, possess

    Again “I had” is in the “imperfect tense”, the “active voice”, and the “indicative mood”, so there is no way Jesus was saying “I shared his glory because I was in his thought and plan”!

    To deny the preexistence of Jesus is to deny the simple truths of the scriptures that tell us that Jesus was with the Father in the beginning of all of creation!

    The Jews mumured among themselves because Jesus said he was the Bread of Life that came down from heaven and many turned back because it was a hard pill they could not swallow!

    John 6:61, 62
    When Jesus knew in himself that his disciples murmured at it, he said unto them, Doth this offend you? What and if ye shall see the Son of man “ascend up where he was before“?

    Please address these points and stop with the diversions.

    WJ

    #162830
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    WJ………..Is Greek and Hebrew Scholarship replaced the Spirit of the LIVING GOD NOW. Does it not say “Brethren you have (NO NEED) of a teacher for the Spirit (ITSELF) will teach you (ALL THINGS)”. Tell us what degrees of Greek and Hebrew did the apostles have or Jesus for that matter. Is your religion based on you 200 scholars , then who in you flock is qualified are you. Scholars my friend have been proven wrong many, many, many times because of the Biases in their teachings. Jesus said to me and all, “know you Not you shall (ALL) be taught (BY) GOD. I just stay with that, lest i put my trust in man and wind up stumbling. The Greatest Teacher is the (REVELATION) of GOD in the minds and Heart of HIs Childern, NO SCHOLAR GREEK OR HEBREW, can compare to that. IMO

    peace and love to you and yours……………….gene

    #162868
    banana
    Participant

    Quote (Gene @ Dec. 08 2009,11:25)
    WJ………..Is Greek and Hebrew Scholarship replaced the Spirit of the LIVING GOD NOW. Does it not say “Brethren you have (NO NEED) of a teacher for the Spirit (ITSELF) will teach you (ALL THINGS)”. Tell us what degrees of Greek and Hebrew did the apostles have or Jesus for that matter. Is your religion based on you 200 scholars , then who in you flock is qualified are you. Scholars my friend have been proven wrong many, many, many times because of the Biases in their teachings. Jesus said to me and all, “know you Not you shall (ALL) be taught (BY) GOD. I just stay with that, lest i put my trust in man and wind up stumbling. The Greatest Teacher is the (REVELATION) of GOD in the minds and Heart of HIs Childern, NO SCHOLAR GREEK OR HEBREW, can compare to that. IMO

    peace and love to you and yours……………….gene


    Scripture is Scriptures the word of God, the Bible. Whether a learned Scholar or any of us, if the Holy Spirit is leading us, that would be truth. So what are the Scriptures that W.J. and I have given to prove the preexisting of Jesus? Look above in W.J. Post and then these
    Col. 1:15-17
    Rev. 3:14
    John1:1
    Proverbs 8:22-30
    And by Jesus own word in
    John 17:5
    If these Scriptures would not be in the Bible I would say that you have a case. But they are and therefore you are wrong.
    And truthfully I can't believe that you are still saying no, He did not exist. And tell me Gene what in your opinion are these Scriptures talking about? What does it mean when it says firstborn of all creation?
    And what glory was it that He had with the Father before the world was? All in the plan of God? Or intellect? No my friend.
    Irene

    #162870
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    Irene………..I have ask you to produce (ONE) Scripture that says Jesus (PREEXISTED HIS BERTH ) NOT A SCRIPTURE YOU CAN MAKE IT SAY THAT, why did not Peter say Jesus (PREEXISTED) when he committed on HIM, surely he would have known. I ask for any reason GOD would take a preexistence Being of some kind and Kill him and rebirth him in Mary and have Him die again, you have never produced any answer to these questions the reason is you can't and no one else can either, Why did GOD say when He was Baptized (THIS DAY I HAVE BEGOTTEN YOU), seeing as you think he preexisted his berth, to many scriptures disagree with the doctrine of preexistence not to mention is Just does not make any since for GOD to do it that way,it would have no purpose. What would it prove to anyone. You have never answered any of these questions, because fact is you just can't and no one else seem to be able to either.

    peace and love to you and Georg……………………gene

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