Did Jesus pre-exist before his birth on Earth?

Where did Jesus come from?

John 6:38-40
For I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will, but the will of him who sent me; and this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise it up at the last day. For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who sees the Son and believes in him should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.

The first verse suggests that Jesus came down from Heaven. This seems to contradict that belief which suggests he first existed as a man when he was born into this world. For if Jesus came into existence for the first time when he was conceived through Mary, how could he come down from Heaven? We (Man) came into existence when we are born into this world, but would it be correct to say that we came down from Heaven too? If a verse said that we came down from Heaven, would you think that we pre-existed in Heaven? If so, then why not Jesus?

John 3:17 is another verse that provides support that Jesus came down from Heaven or was sent rather than created.

For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.

The word ‘send’ is the Greek word ‘apostello’.

apostello {ap-os-tel’-lo}
1) to order (one) to go to a place appointed
2) to send away, dismiss
2a) to allow one to depart, that he may be in a state of liberty
2b) to order one to depart, send off
2c) to drive away

To be sent surely implies existence otherwise you would just say born or created. In fact this word (sent) is similar in meaning and sound to the word Apostle (apostolos), which means “one sent forth with orders”. To be sent forth with order, you must exist.

John 6:62
What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?

Jesus is clearly stating here that he came from above since he eventually ascended into Heaven to be at the right-hand of God.

How old is Jesus?

John 1:15
15 John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.‘ “

John the Baptist was six months older than Jesus Christ. So it is physically impossible for Christ to be before him in age. If this verse is referencing age, then it shows preexistence. Jesus existed before  John the Baptist in the least.

John 8:58
“I tell you the truth,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!

Jesus claimed to exist before Abraham, the father of the Jews. The words ‘I am’ mean ‘I exist’. So Jesus claimed existence before Abraham. We can see that Jesus is getting older as we explore the scriptures. But how old?

Jude 1:25
to the only God our Savior be glory, majesty, power and authority, through Jesus Christ our Lord, before all ages, now and forevermore! Amen.

Here we can see that majesty, power, and authority through Jesus Christ is before all ages (all worlds) and forever more into the future. This strongly implies that Jesus existed even before all things. But can we substantiate this?

Did Jesus exist before all creation?

Colossians 1:17
He is before all things, and in him all things hold together.

Colossians answers the question outright. It states that “He is before all things“.  But are there other verses that support this idea?

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus being there. This verse alone answers the question because the universe, angels, and men were made and Jesus was present when they were created according to these verses. In case that is not enough to convince you, I also add another clear verse that says the same thing.

Hebrews 1:1-2
1 In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways,
2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe.

Is Jesus the Word of God?

But some say that this is talking about the Word and not all believe that Jesus is the Word of God. They argue that Jesus came from the Word, but is not the Word itself that was with God in John 1:1. If you believe this, then please explain the next two verses within their wider context:

Revelation 19:13
He is dressed in a robe dipped in blood, and his name is the Word of God.

Colossians 1:15-18
The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him. He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. And he is the head of the body, the church; he is the beginning and the firstborn from among the dead, so that in everything he might have the supremacy.

Okay, if you are honest, this is a closed case. God created all things through the Word. Jesus is called the Word of God and also the son of God. We are also told that God created all things through the son of God. Even if you do not believe that Jesus is the Word, then you still have to believe that Jesus pre-existed on account of him being the son of God. But what we know from scripture is that Jesus existed as the Word of God before he came as a man called Jesus. We know that the Word became flesh.

More proof verses

If Jesus pre-existed, then you might expect that even though the above verses are clear, there would be more verses that teach or at least imply that he pre-existed. So let’s see if this is the case.

Revelation 22:16
“I, Jesus, have sent my angel to give you this testimony for the churches. I am the Root and the Offspring of David, and the bright Morning Star.”

Here we see that Jesus is the offspring of David, yet he is also the root of David, which at appears to show existence before King David. He also claims to be the bright Morning Star and we read in Job how the Morning Stars were present when God created the Earth.

Job 38:6-7
“On what were its bases sunk? Or who laid its cornerstone, When the morning stars sang together And all the sons of God shouted for joy? 

Luke 10:18
He replied, “I saw Satan fall like lightning from heaven.

Comparing Luke 10:18 with Revelation 12:1-10, some say that Satan and his angels fell to the earth before the birth of Christ as a man. If this was the case, then Jesus saw an event that took place before he was born as a man. However, others argue that Satan hasn’t fallen to the Earth yet, or that he has, but Jesus saw this in a vision. Regardless, it certainly doesn’t contradict that Jesus pre-existed.

Micah 5:2
“But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, though you are small among the clans of Judah, out of you will come for me one who will be ruler over Israel, whose origins are from of old, from ancient times.”

The above verse talks about someone who will rule Israel and whose origin is from ancient times. Who but Jesus could fit that description?

John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God/Divine.

John 1:14
The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only,[ 1:14 Or the Only Begotten] who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Clearly, Jesus was with God in the beginning as the Word of God. This places his existence as before all things and thus comes as no surprise that he was there when God created all things.

The Angel of YHWH

We know from certain scriptures that Jesus is Lord of the Sabbath and many assume that Jesus gave the Law of God. We are told in Acts:7:30-39 for instance that an Angel of the Lord appeared to Moses through whom God spoke and this is the same Angel who spoke to Moses on Mount Sinai and passed on the living words (The Law) to Moses.

30 “After forty years had passed, an angel appeared to Moses in the flames of a burning bush in the desert near Mount Sinai.
31 When he saw this, he was amazed at the sight. As he went over to look more closely, he heard the Lord’s voice:
32 ‘I am the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.’Moses trembled with fear and did not dare to look.
33 “Then the Lord said to him, ‘Take off your sandals; the place where you are standing is holy ground.
34 I have indeed seen the oppression of my people in Egypt. I have heard their groaning and have come down to set them free. Now come, I will send you back to Egypt.’
35 “This is the same Moses whom they had rejected with the words, ‘Who made you ruler and judge?’ He was sent to be their ruler and deliverer by God himself, through the angel who appeared to him in the bush.
36 He led them out of Egypt and did wonders and miraculous signs in Egypt, at the Red Sea and for forty years in the desert.
37 “This is that Moses who told the Israelites, ‘God will send you a prophet like me from your own people.’
38 He was in the assembly in the desert, with the angel who spoke to him on Mount Sinai, and with our fathers; and he received living words to pass on to us.
39 “But our fathers refused to obey him. Instead, they rejected him and in their hearts turned back to Egypt.

So is this Angel of the Lord, Jesus? Well it seems possible. Perhaps the correct model to look at is the one mentioned in Revelation 1:1

The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,

Here we can see that the order of the Revelation started with the Originator which is God. He then passed the message to Jesus Christ who in turn sent it to his Angel and then to John. So perhaps it is possible that the angel in Revelation is the same angel mentioned in Acts:7:30-39.

But the Angel of YHWH or Angel of the LORD is described as one like the son of gods.

Daniel 3:24-25
Then Nebuchadnezzar the king was astounded and stood up in haste; he said to his high officials, “Was it not three men we cast bound into the midst of the fire?” They replied to the king, “Certainly, O king.” He said, “Look! I see four men loosed and walking about in the midst of the fire without harm, and the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods!”

The idea that a preincarnate Jesus was this Angel of the LORD is a popular one. We know that this Angel of the LORD is never mentioned while Jesus is walking the earth which supports this idea. But it could also be a coincidence. One connection that can be made with Jesus being this messenger is found in Judges 13:18.

Manoah said to the angel of the LORD, “What is your name, so that when your words come to pass, we may honor you?” But the angel of the LORD said to him, “Why do you ask my name, seeing it is wonderful?”

Now read what Isaiah prophesied in Isaiah 9:6 .

For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

Clearly, Isaiah was speaking of Jesus Christ and note that he was called Wonderful Counselor. Is there a connection here? Perhaps. What we do know is the word ‘angel’ is the same word messenger in the Old Testament, and while it is held that Jesus is not an angel in kind, we know he certainly was a messenger of YHWH and would be fair to say even ‘The Messenger of YHWH’.

So the idea that he may be this angel is not that far fetched. Some vehemently oppose this idea, but they are not aware that both Jesus and John are called angels in the messenger sense.

More to come here……

More proof that Jesus pre-existed

Rev 3:14
And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God.

Moving on we read the following in Philippians 2:5-11
5 Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus:
6 Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,
7 but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.
8 And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to death even death on a cross!
9 Therefore God exalted him to the highest place and gave him the name that is above every name,
10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

Surely the above verses assumes preexistence.  Look at verse 7: ‘but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness’. This verse points out that Jesus humbled himself to become a (or like a) human and also a servant. So this suggests to us that he preexisted in a higher state because to humble oneself is to become lower. If he started life in this humbled state, then it would be incorrect to say that he humbled himself. Further, he “found himself in appearance as a man” is a weird statement to make if he first existed as a human baby.

This verse is often used in support of the trinity doctrine because of the word ‘equal’. But if you are equal to something it means that you are not that thing, rather you are like that thing. This scripture is also very clear about the following: The Father is God and Jesus is Lord and that God exalted Jesus to the highest place.

A closer look at verse 9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: Now I am not sure if Jesus was exalted higher than he was before he came to this world or whether he was exalted to the exact position that he had before. But if we look at John 17:5 again we can see that Jesus asked to return to his former glory.

John 17:5
And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began.

The above verse is clear about Christ’s pre-existence in glory before the world began. Just to prove this is not an isolated scripture here is a similar verse:

John 16:28
I came from the Father and entered the world; now I am leaving the world and going back to the Father.”

The next verse also confirms that Jesus pre-existed in Heaven.

John 3:12-15
12 I have spoken to you of earthly things and you do not believe; how then will you believe if I speak of heavenly things?
13 No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven, the Son of Man.
14 Just as Moses lifted up the snake in the desert, so the Son of Man must be lifted up,
15 that everyone who believes in him may have eternal life.

Ezekiel 8:1-3
1 In the sixth year, in the sixth month on the fifth day, while I was sitting in my house and the elders of Judah were sitting before me, the hand of the Sovereign LORD came upon me there.
2 I looked, and I saw a figure like that of a man. From what appeared to be his waist down he was like fire, and from there up his appearance was as bright as glowing metal.
3 He stretched out what looked like a hand and took me by the hair of my head. The Spirit lifted me up between earth and heaven and in visions of God he took me to Jerusalem, to the entrance to the north gate of the inner court, where the idol that provokes to jealousy stood.

This verse is interesting in the sense that the description is very similar to the description of Jesus Christ in Revelation 1:12-18,

12 I turned around to see the voice that was speaking to me. And when I turned I saw seven golden lampstands,
13 and among the lampstands was someone “like a son of man,” dressed in a robe reaching down to his feet and with a golden sash around his chest.
14 His head and hair were white like wool, as white as snow, and his eyes were like blazing fire.
15 His feet were like bronze glowing in a furnace, and his voice was like the sound of rushing waters.
16 In his right hand he held seven stars, and out of his mouth came a sharp double-edged sword. His face was like the sun shining in all its brilliance.
17 When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. Then he placed his right hand on me and said: “Do not be afraid. I am the First and the Last.
18 I am the Living One; I was dead, and behold I am alive for ever and ever! And I hold the keys of death and Hades.

Have a look at the next verse. 1 Corinthians 11:3 (English-NIV)
Now I want you to realize that the head of every man is Christ, and the head of the woman is man, and the head of Christ is God.

Now the word head in the Greek is ‘kephale’ which can mean head, source or master. Now if we notice the order in a time sense, we have to admit that God is the first as he is the only one who has existed for all eternity with no beginning. We also know from scripture that the man came first and the woman came from the man. So that part is correct if we use a timeline. That just leaves Christ. Did he come between God and Man. I think so, as I believe that all things came from him and this opinion does fit perfectly into this model in a time sense at least. Anyway the word Christ here is ‘Christos’ which means “anointed”. So the anointed is the head of Man.
God > Christ > Man > Woman

If God created all things for his Son and his Son was the channel for that creation to come into being, then we can only assume that Christ existed at this point. As Genesis says: Let us make Man in our image. God was talking to Christ at this point and we know that Christ is the image of God and we are the image of Christ. Therefore the image of the image of God (man) is still the image of God. But Christ is the original and first image and we can only assume again that that image existed before the image of the image. A bit like a mirror that reflects a mirror, the original mirror has to exist in order to reflect the second mirror.

So we know that Christ preexisted before creation and now we will look at some more scriptures that show that he was born before creation itself?

Colossians 1:15-16
15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.
16 For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him.

The above verse is quite clear that ALL things were created by or through Jesus.

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So again, there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus/The Word being there. Only the Father and Son were not made. God has always existed and the Son was born from God before the creation of the universe, before anything was made. The next verse describes clearly who/what was the first of God’s works.

Proverbs 8:22-30
22 “The LORD brought me forth as the first of his works, {[22] Or ; or } {[22] Or ; or } before his deeds of old;
23 I was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
24 When there were no oceans, I was given birth, when there were no springs abounding with water;
25 before the mountains were settled in place, before the hills, I was given birth,
26 before he made the earth or its fields or any of the dust of the world.
27 I was there when he set the heavens in place, when he marked out the horizon on the face of the deep,
28 when he established the clouds above and fixed securely the fountains of the deep,
29 when he gave the sea its boundary so the waters would not overstep his command, and when he marked out the foundations of the earth.
30 Then I was the craftsman at his side. I was filled with delight day after day, rejoicing always in his presence,

This verse is talking about Wisdom, whom many believe is Christ. This scriptures compliments other scriptures that that teach that Jesus was given birth by God and then created all THINGS though him.

So from this verse we can see the following points.

Wisdom was brought forth as the first of Gods works.
Wisdom was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
Wisdom was given birth before creation.
Wisdom was the craftsman at his side and rejoiced in his presence before creation.
Some say that Wisdom isn’t Christ, rather this is just wisdom in a conceptual sense and it is true that wisdom is being spoken of in that way. But from verse 22 onward it changes tempo. With terms like I was given birth, I was the craftsman at his side and I was filled with delight, we have to admit that it seems to be talking about a person. Now have a look at the following verses:

1 Corinthians 1:24 (English-NIV)
but to those whom God has called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God.

1 Corinthians 1:30 (English-NIV)
It is because of him that you are in Christ Jesus, who has become for us wisdom from God–that is, our righteousness, holiness and redemption.

Let’s look at some other concepts that Jesus personifies:

Jesus is the Truth. Yet truth is also a concept.
Jesus is the Way. Yet the way is also a concept.
Jesus is the Life. Yet life can also be a concept.
Now look at the following mystery:

1 Corinthians 2:6-9
6 We do, however, speak a message of wisdom among the mature, but not the wisdom of this age or of the rulers of this age, who are coming to nothing.
7 No, we speak of God’s secret wisdom, a wisdom that has been hidden and that God destined for our glory before time began.
8 None of the rulers of this age understood it, for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.
9 However, as it is written:
“No eye has seen,
no ear has heard,
no mind has conceived
what God has prepared for those who love him”

Ephesians 3:8-10
8 Although I am less than the least of all God’s people, this grace was given me: to preach to the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ,
9 and to make plain to everyone the administration of this mystery, which for ages past was kept hidden in God, who created all things.
10 His intent was that now, through the church, the manifold wisdom of God should be made known to the rulers and authorities in the heavenly realms,

Perhaps another scripture alluding to Jesus being the Wisdom of God.

Finally I leave you with the following OT scripture that suggests that God had a Son before the birth Of Jesus Christ on earth.

Proverbs 30:4
Who has gone up to heaven and come down? Who has gathered up the wind in the hollow of his hands? Who has wrapped up the waters in his cloak? Who has established all the ends of the earth? What is his name, and the name of his son? Tell me if you know!


Discussion

Viewing 20 posts - 4,561 through 4,580 (of 19,165 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • #109852
    david
    Participant

    Quote (gollamudi @ Oct. 02 2008,16:32)
    You are wrong in estimating me Sis Kathi. I never twisted your post but countered it.

    Pleease take care
    Adam


    Hi Golli.

    You “countered” it by ignoring the actual agrument, and then simply stating what you believe.
    Could you address the actual argument?

    #109866
    david
    Participant

    Quote
    Hi Sis Kathi,
    The very purpose of our Messiah is to be born as human and die on the cross once for all for the redemption of our sins. This does not require any preexistent being at all. He has to be a human like the first man Adam who chose to disobey God but our Lord and Messiah Jesus chose to obey God and gave himself as a living sacrifice for all the mankind. I don't see any preexistence here to fulfill the scriptures you quoted above. Please see the greatness of our heavenly Father God who has given authority to men to be called as sons and daughters of God including our Lord Jesus. Jesus was a man and remains to be a man-mediator between One God and men in this universe(1 Tim 2:5). He is not another God or begotten God as you and others often claim. If he is our God he can not be our example because we are human beings.

    golli, you are right in several things in this post. But, instead of addressing the actual scripture in question, the closest you come to it is to say: “I don't see any preexistence here to fulfill the scriptures you quoted above.”

    Heb 9:24-28
    Christ did not enter a holy place made with hands, a mere copy of the true one, but into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us; 25 nor was it that He would offer Himself often, as the high priest enters the holy place year by year with blood that is not his own. 26 Otherwise, He would have needed to suffer often since the foundation of the world; but now once at the consummation of the ages He has been manifested to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself. 27 And inasmuch as it is appointed for men to die once and after this comes judgment, 28 so Christ also, having been offered once to bear the sins of many, will appear a second time for salvation without reference to sin, to those who eagerly await Him.
    NASU

    For a certainty, the “founding of the world” wherever you time it, was way before the birth of Jesus.
    In saying “He would have needed to suffer often since the foundation of the world” we understand that a “he” had to exist from the founding of the world, or this whole idea would have been bizarre.

    Quote
    He would have done this several times since the foundation of the world. He must have existed since the foundation of the world for that thought to have even made sense.

    Golli, you say many things, but none of them touch upon the verse in question. Why?

    #109867
    david
    Participant

    Quote
    Hmmm, yes, this is a good point.

    I'm going to look at various translations and see if it's worded any other way as to give another view?

    Thanks for this, Kathi.

    Love,
    Mandy

    And if it isn't, what will that mean, Mandy?

    #109874
    gollamudi
    Participant

    Quote (david @ Oct. 06 2008,18:18)

    Quote
    Hi Sis Kathi,
    The very purpose of our Messiah is to be born as human and die on the cross once for all for the redemption of our sins. This does not require any preexistent being at all. He has to be a human like the first man Adam who chose to disobey God but our Lord and Messiah Jesus chose to obey God and gave himself as a living sacrifice for all the mankind. I don't see any preexistence here to fulfill the scriptures you quoted above. Please see the greatness of our heavenly Father God who has given authority to men to be called as sons and daughters of God including our Lord Jesus. Jesus was a man and remains to be a man-mediator between One God and men in this universe(1 Tim 2:5). He is not another God or begotten God as you and others often claim. If he is our God he can not be our example because we are human beings.

    golli, you are right in several things in this post.  But, instead of addressing the actual scripture in question, the closest you come to it is to say: “I don't see any preexistence here to fulfill the scriptures you quoted above.”

    Heb 9:24-28
    Christ did not enter a holy place made with hands, a mere copy of the true one, but into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us; 25 nor was it that He would offer Himself often, as the high priest enters the holy place year by year with blood that is not his own. 26 Otherwise, He would have needed to suffer often since the foundation of the world; but now once at the consummation of the ages He has been manifested to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself. 27 And inasmuch as it is appointed for men to die once and after this comes judgment, 28 so Christ also, having been offered once to bear the sins of many, will appear a second time for salvation without reference to sin, to those who eagerly await Him.
    NASU

    For a certainty, the “founding of the world” wherever you time it, was way before the birth of Jesus.
    In saying “He would have needed to suffer often since the foundation of the world” we understand that a “he” had to exist from the founding of the world, or this whole idea would have been bizarre.  

    Quote
    He would have done this several times since the foundation of the world.  He must have existed since the foundation of the world for that thought to have even made sense.

    Golli, you say many things, but none of them touch upon the verse in question.  Why?


    Hi brother David,
    Thanks for your response to my post to LU. I know you people are oriented towards the great Arianism which believes Henotheism.

    Please show where is it written that Jesus has to exist from the foundations of the world to be the sacrificial Lamb and High priest ?

    Don't you read Jesus has been revealed when the fullness of times had come as per Paul's words in Gal 4:4. Infact he was revealed only by the birth as a man through a woman. You people are ignoring such words which say Jesus' existence through normal conception which means his genesis or origin at his birth. The verse you quoted in Hebrews nowhere it infers any preexistence requirement. It is because of sin Jesus the High priest has to offer his precious blood once for all. Jesus has to offer this sacrifice after the first man's sin and not before that. He is the second Adam (man) after the first Adam as per Paul's words in 1 Cor15:47. God is the sole predestainer of all activities of Jesus He foresaw every thing in His plan right from the foundations of the world. He fixed a time frame for Jesus coming into existence at 2000 years ago. Don't you know Jesus was a man like you and me and he remains to be man even in his glorified status ?

    Please take care
    Adam

    #109888
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi GM,
    You say
    “Thanks for your response to my post to LU. I know you people are oriented towards the great Arianism which believes Henotheism. “

    Why do you need labels to judge people by?

    #109913
    david
    Participant

    Quote (gollamudi @ Oct. 06 2008,22:01)

    Quote (david @ Oct. 06 2008,18:18)

    Quote
    Hi Sis Kathi,
    The very purpose of our Messiah is to be born as human and die on the cross once for all for the redemption of our sins. This does not require any preexistent being at all. He has to be a human like the first man Adam who chose to disobey God but our Lord and Messiah Jesus chose to obey God and gave himself as a living sacrifice for all the mankind. I don't see any preexistence here to fulfill the scriptures you quoted above. Please see the greatness of our heavenly Father God who has given authority to men to be called as sons and daughters of God including our Lord Jesus. Jesus was a man and remains to be a man-mediator between One God and men in this universe(1 Tim 2:5). He is not another God or begotten God as you and others often claim. If he is our God he can not be our example because we are human beings.

    golli, you are right in several things in this post.  But, instead of addressing the actual scripture in question, the closest you come to it is to say: “I don't see any preexistence here to fulfill the scriptures you quoted above.”

    Heb 9:24-28
    Christ did not enter a holy place made with hands, a mere copy of the true one, but into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us; 25 nor was it that He would offer Himself often, as the high priest enters the holy place year by year with blood that is not his own. 26 Otherwise, He would have needed to suffer often since the foundation of the world; but now once at the consummation of the ages He has been manifested to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself. 27 And inasmuch as it is appointed for men to die once and after this comes judgment, 28 so Christ also, having been offered once to bear the sins of many, will appear a second time for salvation without reference to sin, to those who eagerly await Him.
    NASU

    For a certainty, the “founding of the world” wherever you time it, was way before the birth of Jesus.
    In saying “He would have needed to suffer often since the foundation of the world” we understand that a “he” had to exist from the founding of the world, or this whole idea would have been bizarre.  

    Quote
    He would have done this several times since the foundation of the world.  He must have existed since the foundation of the world for that thought to have even made sense.

    Golli, you say many things, but none of them touch upon the verse in question.  Why?


    Hi brother David,
    Thanks for your response to my post to LU. I know you people are oriented towards the great Arianism which believes Henotheism.

    Please show where is it written that Jesus has to exist from the foundations of the world to be the sacrificial Lamb and High priest ?

    Don't you read Jesus has been revealed when the fullness of times had come as per Paul's words in Gal 4:4. Infact he was revealed only by the birth as a man through a woman. You people are ignoring such words which say Jesus' existence through normal conception which means his genesis or origin at his birth. The verse you quoted in Hebrews nowhere it infers any preexistence requirement. It is because of sin Jesus the High priest has to offer his precious blood once for all. Jesus has to offer this sacrifice after the first man's sin and not before that. He is the second Adam (man) after the first Adam as per Paul's words in 1 Cor15:47. God is the sole predestainer of all activities of Jesus He foresaw every thing in His plan right from the foundations of the world. He fixed a time frame for Jesus coming into existence at 2000 years ago. Don't you know Jesus was a man like you and me and he remains to be man even in his glorified status ?

    Please take care
    Adam


    once again:

    Golli, you say many things, but none of them touch upon the verse in question. Why?

    #109938
    Tiffany
    Participant

    Yes, David and those Scriptures that I find so clear to indicate that Jesus preexisted His birth as a Man.
    Adam answer
    Rev. 3:14
    Col. 1:15-16-17
    what do they mean to you, explain them to me.
    Irene

    #109943
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Yeah gollamudi, an answer on that particular verse would be helpful in explaining why you believe and teach that Yeshua had no previous existence before coming in the flesh.

    If you can't answer it, then perhaps an honest acknowledgment that this is a difficult verse for your theology.

    #109950
    gollamudi
    Participant

    Quote (david @ Oct. 07 2008,12:47)
    [/quote]
    Hi brother David,
    Thanks for your response to my post to LU. I know you people are oriented towards the great Arianism which believes Henotheism.

    Please show where is it written that Jesus has to exist from the foundations of the world to be the sacrificial Lamb and High priest ?

    Don't you read Jesus has been revealed when the fullness of times had come as per Paul's words in Gal 4:4. Infact he was revealed only by the birth as a man through a woman. You people are ignoring such words which say Jesus' existence through normal conception which means his genesis or origin at his birth. The verse you quoted in Hebrews nowhere it infers any preexistence requirement. It is because of sin Jesus the High priest has to offer his precious blood once for all. Jesus has to offer this sacrifice after the first man's sin and not before that. He is the second Adam (man) after the first Adam as per Paul's words in 1 Cor15:47. God is the sole predestainer of all activities of Jesus He foresaw every thing in His plan right from the foundations of the world. He fixed a time frame for Jesus coming into existence at 2000 years ago. Don't you know Jesus was a man like you and me and he remains to be man even in his glorified status ?

    Please take care
    Adam

    Hi brother David,

    once again: You say

    “Golli, you say many things, but none of them touch upon the verse in question.  Why? “

    So you choose to ignore what I have quoted above. Infact my sayings interpret the same verses you quoted from Hebrews. Jesus the high priest has been destined to come into existence at the consummation of times not just as imagined preexistent being as you all believe. Know for sure that he is the second Adam(man) who came to become as the sacrificial lamb of God. If you want I can interpret the passage in Hebrews verse by verse. Here it goes;
    Heb 9:23-28

    “(23) It was therefore necessary that the patterns of things in the heavens should be purified with these; but the heavenly things themselves with better sacrifices than these.”

    My interpretation: I think this verse is simple to understand in a way to say that Jesus' sacrifice is superior to animal sacrifice which was being carried out by the priests of Israel during the 1 & 2 Temple period.

    “(24) For Christ is not entered into the holy places made with hands, which are the figures of the true; but into heaven itself, now to APPEAR in the presence of God for us”

    My interpretation: I hope this verse also not difficult to understand and requires no preexistence of Jesus because he is appearing for the first time before throne of God with his own blood.

    “(25) Nor yet that he should offer himself often, as the high priest entereth into the holy place every year with blood of others;”

    My interpretation: Here he is compared with any Human high priest who enters the holy place of the Temple. Christ did it for the first and the last time once for all. No ambiguity here I hope.

    “(26) For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once in the end of the world (age, r.m.) hath he APPEARED to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself.”

    My interpretation: Yes if his sacrifice was temporary like that of animals and birds he had to come into existence from the very foundations of the world and suffer many times for every year and offer his blood every time. But the miracle here is that he need not exist from the foundations of the world and offer himself many times as the author of Hebrews rightly told. Since God had fixed a time frame for Jesus to come into existence and offer his blood once for all for the sins of all the mankind right from the first man Adam. I wonder where you peole are visualizing this requirement of preexistence at all. Infact the author of Hebrews negates such requirement since Jesus had to offer this sacrifice only once at the fixed time set by God.

    “(27) And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment: (28) So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he APPEAR the second time without sin unto salvation.”

    My interpretation:These verses clarify that Jesus appeared only once in this universe so far and he is going to appear second time to save those who are redeemed by his blood from the judgment.

    I hope this will clear all the doubts of T8 and others also.

    Peace to all
    Adam

    #109957
    Tiffany
    Participant

    yOU DID NOT ANSWER MY SCRIPTURES AT ALL To me it tells of a preexsisting Son of God.
    AGAIN

    Rev. 3:14

    Col. 1:15-16-17
    explain to me how you see these?
    Adam you have never answered these question and this time I will let all know, that you do not answer question, and only say what you want to.
    That is not right. Please explain them to me.

    Irene

    #109974
    Adam Pastor
    Participant

    Quote (gollamudi @ Oct. 07 2008,10:21)
    “(24) For Christ is not entered into the holy places made with hands, which are the figures of the true; but into heaven itself, now to APPEAR in the presence of God for us”

    My interpretation: I hope this verse also not difficult to understand and requires no preexistence of Jesus because he is appearing for the first time before throne of God with his own blood.

    “(25) Nor yet that he should offer himself often, as the high priest entereth into the holy place every year with blood of others;”

    My interpretation: Here he is compared with any Human high priest who enters the holy place of the Temple. Christ did it for the first and the last time once for all. No ambiguity here I hope.

    “(26) For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once in the end of the world (age, r.m.) hath he APPEARED to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself.”

    My interpretation: Yes if his sacrifice was temporary like that of animals and birds he had to come into existence from the very foundations of the world and suffer many times for every year and offer his blood every time. But the miracle here is that he need not exist from the foundations of the world and offer himself many times as the author of Hebrews rightly told. Since God had fixed a time frame for Jesus to come into existence and offer his blood once for all for the sins of all the mankind right from the first man Adam.


    Excellent Adam … absolutely excellent!!

    Heb 9.26 as you so rightly pointed out, simply means;
    If Jesus had not a better offering to present i.e. “himself”; then indeed he would have had to suffer for every sin  from the timing of mankind's first sin
    i.e.  from the foundation of the world.

    But praise be to GOD! Christ's sacrifice was sufficient for the sins of the whole world.

    Therefore, according to GOD Almighty's purpose & timing, GOD sent His Son to be a sacrifice & propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world. [1 John 2.2]

    You see, Adam; I couldn't explain it any better than you!
    :D
    You clearly bring out the sense of these verses;
    Christ needed only to appear once and be offered once as a sacrifice for sins.

    Thanks again Adam, for your clear explanation.

    #109991
    Not3in1
    Participant

    Quote (Adam Pastor @ Oct. 08 2008,10:50)

    Quote (gollamudi @ Oct. 07 2008,10:21)
    “(24) For Christ is not entered into the holy places made with hands, which are the figures of the true; but into heaven itself, now to APPEAR in the presence of God for us”

    My interpretation: I hope this verse also not difficult to understand and requires no preexistence of Jesus because he is appearing for the first time before throne of God with his own blood.

    “(25) Nor yet that he should offer himself often, as the high priest entereth into the holy place every year with blood of others;”

    My interpretation: Here he is compared with any Human high priest who enters the holy place of the Temple. Christ did it for the first and the last time once for all. No ambiguity here I hope.

    “(26) For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once in the end of the world (age, r.m.) hath he APPEARED to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself.”

    My interpretation: Yes if his sacrifice was temporary like that of animals and birds he had to come into existence from the very foundations of the world and suffer many times for every year and offer his blood every time. But the miracle here is that he need not exist from the foundations of the world and offer himself many times as the author of Hebrews rightly told. Since God had fixed a time frame for Jesus to come into existence and offer his blood once for all for the sins of all the mankind right from the first man Adam.


    Excellent Adam … absolutely excellent!!

    Heb 9.26 as you so rightly pointed out, simply means;
    If Jesus had not a better offering to present i.e. “himself”; then indeed he would have had to suffer for every sin  from the timing of mankind's first sin
    i.e.  from the foundation of the world.

    But praise be to GOD! Christ's sacrifice was sufficient for the sins of the whole world.

    Therefore, according to GOD Almighty's purpose & timing, GOD sent His Son to be a sacrifice & propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world. [1 John 2.2]

    You see, Adam; I couldn't explain it any better than you!
    :D
    You clearly bring out the sense of these verses;
    Christ needed only to appear once and be offered once as a sacrifice for sins.

    Thanks again Adam, for your clear explanation.


    Good stuff, guys.

    Thank you!
    Mandy

    #109994
    Lightenup
    Participant

    Quote (Not3in1 @ Oct. 07 2008,21:50)

    Quote (Adam Pastor @ Oct. 08 2008,10:50)

    Quote (gollamudi @ Oct. 07 2008,10:21)
    “(24) For Christ is not entered into the holy places made with hands, which are the figures of the true; but into heaven itself, now to APPEAR in the presence of God for us”

    My interpretation: I hope this verse also not difficult to understand and requires no preexistence of Jesus because he is appearing for the first time before throne of God with his own blood.

    “(25) Nor yet that he should offer himself often, as the high priest entereth into the holy place every year with blood of others;”

    My interpretation: Here he is compared with any Human high priest who enters the holy place of the Temple. Christ did it for the first and the last time once for all. No ambiguity here I hope.

    “(26) For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once in the end of the world (age, r.m.) hath he APPEARED to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself.”

    My interpretation: Yes if his sacrifice was temporary like that of animals and birds he had to come into existence from the very foundations of the world and suffer many times for every year and offer his blood every time. But the miracle here is that he need not exist from the foundations of the world and offer himself many times as the author of Hebrews rightly told. Since God had fixed a time frame for Jesus to come into existence and offer his blood once for all for the sins of all the mankind right from the first man Adam.


    Excellent Adam … absolutely excellent!!

    Heb 9.26 as you so rightly pointed out, simply means;
    If Jesus had not a better offering to present i.e. “himself”; then indeed he would have had to suffer for every sin  from the timing of mankind's first sin
    i.e.  from the foundation of the world.

    But praise be to GOD! Christ's sacrifice was sufficient for the sins of the whole world.

    Therefore, according to GOD Almighty's purpose & timing, GOD sent His Son to be a sacrifice & propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world. [1 John 2.2]

    You see, Adam; I couldn't explain it any better than you!
    :D
    You clearly bring out the sense of these verses;
    Christ needed only to appear once and be offered once as a sacrifice for sins.

    Thanks again Adam, for your clear explanation.


    Good stuff, guys.

    Thank you!
    Mandy


    Hi Golla, AP, Mandy,
    I think that we all agree that Christ's one time sacrifice was all that was needed. No one is contending that.

    What I was pointing out is that if Christ was just a man, He could only have shed his blood once for it is appointed for a man once to die. Why did the writer even suggest that He could shed blood and die over and over and over since the foundation of the world if He was just a man? It might have said that there would have been a need for a third Adam, a fourth Adam, a fifth Adam etc. but not the same person if that person was merely a man. Get my point?

    So, I believe He was much more than a man like us.

    LU

    #109996
    gollamudi
    Participant

    Quote (Adam Pastor @ Oct. 08 2008,10:50)

    Quote (gollamudi @ Oct. 07 2008,10:21)
    “(24) For Christ is not entered into the holy places made with hands, which are the figures of the true; but into heaven itself, now to APPEAR in the presence of God for us”

    My interpretation: I hope this verse also not difficult to understand and requires no preexistence of Jesus because he is appearing for the first time before throne of God with his own blood.

    “(25) Nor yet that he should offer himself often, as the high priest entereth into the holy place every year with blood of others;”

    My interpretation: Here he is compared with any Human high priest who enters the holy place of the Temple. Christ did it for the first and the last time once for all. No ambiguity here I hope.

    “(26) For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once in the end of the world (age, r.m.) hath he APPEARED to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself.”

    My interpretation: Yes if his sacrifice was temporary like that of animals and birds he had to come into existence from the very foundations of the world and suffer many times for every year and offer his blood every time. But the miracle here is that he need not exist from the foundations of the world and offer himself many times as the author of Hebrews rightly told. Since God had fixed a time frame for Jesus to come into existence and offer his blood once for all for the sins of all the mankind right from the first man Adam.


    Excellent Adam … absolutely excellent!!

    Heb 9.26 as you so rightly pointed out, simply means;
    If Jesus had not a better offering to present i.e. “himself”; then indeed he would have had to suffer for every sin  from the timing of mankind's first sin
    i.e.  from the foundation of the world.

    But praise be to GOD! Christ's sacrifice was sufficient for the sins of the whole world.

    Therefore, according to GOD Almighty's purpose & timing, GOD sent His Son to be a sacrifice & propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world. [1 John 2.2]

    You see, Adam; I couldn't explain it any better than you!
    :D
    You clearly bring out the sense of these verses;
    Christ needed only to appear once and be offered once as a sacrifice for sins.

    Thanks again Adam, for your clear explanation.


    Hi brother Adam,
    I thank you for that appreciation of my post. Infact You are my source of encouragement in knowing God and Jesus in this forum since beginning along with brother Gene and Sis Mandy.Your site “Adoni Messiah” is also my favourite site in knowing the “Real Christ” of the Bible.

    Thanks and love to you
    Adam

    #109997
    gollamudi
    Participant

    Quote (Tiffany @ Oct. 08 2008,01:02)
    yOU DID NOT ANSWER MY SCRIPTURES AT ALL To me it tells of a preexsisting Son of God.
    AGAIN

    Rev. 3:14

    Col. 1:15-16-17
    explain to me how you see these?
    Adam you have never answered these question and this time I will let all know, that you do not answer question, and only say what you want to.
    That is not right. Please explain them to me.

    Irene


    I'm sorry Sis Irene,
    For choosing not to interpret those verses you quoted. Infact I was concentrating on the posts of Sis LU and bro David. Certainly I will reply your post in due time. But let us not deviate from this debate on Heb 9:23-28 for time being. You are free to interpret this passage the way you understand. It may be helpful to all.

    Thanks and love to you
    Adam

    #110007
    Tiffany
    Participant

    Adam deviate from the debate in Hebrew 9:23-28 excuses. excuses. i do not interpret Scriptures, I take them like they are written. Straight out of the Bible. You get into trouble when you interprete to fit you.
    Irene

    #110026
    Not3in1
    Participant

    Quote (Lightenup @ Oct. 08 2008,15:40)

    Quote (Not3in1 @ Oct. 07 2008,21:50)

    Quote (Adam Pastor @ Oct. 08 2008,10:50)

    Quote (gollamudi @ Oct. 07 2008,10:21)
    “(24) For Christ is not entered into the holy places made with hands, which are the figures of the true; but into heaven itself, now to APPEAR in the presence of God for us”

    My interpretation: I hope this verse also not difficult to understand and requires no preexistence of Jesus because he is appearing for the first time before throne of God with his own blood.

    “(25) Nor yet that he should offer himself often, as the high priest entereth into the holy place every year with blood of others;”

    My interpretation: Here he is compared with any Human high priest who enters the holy place of the Temple. Christ did it for the first and the last time once for all. No ambiguity here I hope.

    “(26) For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once in the end of the world (age, r.m.) hath he APPEARED to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself.”

    My interpretation: Yes if his sacrifice was temporary like that of animals and birds he had to come into existence from the very foundations of the world and suffer many times for every year and offer his blood every time. But the miracle here is that he need not exist from the foundations of the world and offer himself many times as the author of Hebrews rightly told. Since God had fixed a time frame for Jesus to come into existence and offer his blood once for all for the sins of all the mankind right from the first man Adam.


    Excellent Adam … absolutely excellent!!

    Heb 9.26 as you so rightly pointed out, simply means;
    If Jesus had not a better offering to present i.e. “himself”; then indeed he would have had to suffer for every sin  from the timing of mankind's first sin
    i.e.  from the foundation of the world.

    But praise be to GOD! Christ's sacrifice was sufficient for the sins of the whole world.

    Therefore, according to GOD Almighty's purpose & timing, GOD sent His Son to be a sacrifice & propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world. [1 John 2.2]

    You see, Adam; I couldn't explain it any better than you!
    :D
    You clearly bring out the sense of these verses;
    Christ needed only to appear once and be offered once as a sacrifice for sins.

    Thanks again Adam, for your clear explanation.


    Good stuff, guys.

    Thank you!
    Mandy


    Hi Golla, AP, Mandy,
    I think that we all agree that Christ's one time sacrifice was all that was needed.  No one is contending that.

    What I was pointing out is that if Christ was just a man, He could only have shed his blood once for it is appointed for a man once to die.  Why did the writer even suggest that He could shed blood and die over and over and over since the foundation of the world if He was just a man?  It might have said that there would have been a need for a third Adam, a fourth Adam, a fifth Adam etc. but not the same person if that person was merely a man.  Get my point?

    So, I believe He was much more than a man like us.

    LU


    Hi Kathi,

    My take – for what it is worth:

    Christ was presented once.  Once in time and space.  He was announced by the angel to Mary and then conceived of God's holy Spirit.  He was born.  He lived.  He died.  The debt was satisfied once and for all.

    Because of who and what he was…there was no need for him to be presented more than once.

    Hebrews is saying that if he was not the perfect high priest, he would have had to keep presenting himself over and over again since the beginning of time for everyone!

    If this were true and he did need to present himself since the foundations…..God would have presented him earlier (i.e., perhaps Eve would have bore the Son of God).  But as such, there was no need.  God's timing was perfect.

    Saying that Jesus preexisted simply because of an interpretation of this scripture is not solid.  It's a guess based on an interpretation, but it is not clear evidence in my opinion.

    Thanks,
    Mandy

    #110028
    Not3in1
    Participant

    Another thought – “…since the foundation….” could be a figure of speech as well? Haven't you ever heard someone say, “Well it's been done this way since the beginning of time!” Has it really been done like that from eternity to now OR were they just trying to figuratively point out it's been a LONG time?

    ???

    #110050
    gollamudi
    Participant

    Quote (Not3in1 @ Oct. 09 2008,06:50)
    [quote=Lightenup,Oct. 08 2008,15:40][quote=Not3in1,Oct. 07 2008,21:50]
    Hi Kathi,

    My take – for what it is worth:

    Christ was presented once.  Once in time and space.  He was announced by the angel to Mary and then conceived of God's holy Spirit.  He was born.  He lived.  He died.  The debt was satisfied once and for all.

    Because of who and what he was…there was no need for him to be presented more than once.

    Hebrews is saying that if he was not the perfect high priest, he would have had to keep presenting himself over and over again since the beginning of time for everyone!

    If this were true and he did need to present himself since the foundations…..God would have presented him earlier (i.e., perhaps Eve would have bore the Son of God).  But as such, there was no need.  God's timing was perfect.

    Saying that Jesus preexisted simply because of an interpretation of this scripture is not solid.  It's a guess based on an interpretation, but it is not clear evidence in my opinion.

    Thanks,
    Mandy


    Hi Mandy,
    Thanks for your helping hand in replying our Sis Kathi. Since Jesus was and is a man (even in his glorified status) could die only once. That is the logic behind arguing that there can not be any preexistence for him prior to his birth on this earth like the first Adam. You have rightly told that God had timed his birth and death perfectly at the fullness of times, 2000 years ago. Infact some Biblical scholars say that this timing is know as the Meridian of times(center point of times). Assumption of any preexistence creates the origin of Jesus as mystery and a myth like any Pagan origin. No Jew accepts this logic of preexistence. I read many articles on Judaism, all of them negate the interpretation of Jesus being God or Godly being. Their Messiah has to be a human born from the tribe of Judah. He should be a prophet like Moses as foretold in Deut 18:18.

    Thanks and love to you
    Adam

    #110123
    Lightenup
    Participant

    Quote (Not3in1 @ Oct. 08 2008,14:50)

    Quote (Lightenup @ Oct. 08 2008,15:40)

    Quote (Not3in1 @ Oct. 07 2008,21:50)

    Quote (Adam Pastor @ Oct. 08 2008,10:50)

    Quote (gollamudi @ Oct. 07 2008,10:21)
    “(24) For Christ is not entered into the holy places made with hands, which are the figures of the true; but into heaven itself, now to APPEAR in the presence of God for us”

    My interpretation: I hope this verse also not difficult to understand and requires no preexistence of Jesus because he is appearing for the first time before throne of God with his own blood.

    “(25) Nor yet that he should offer himself often, as the high priest entereth into the holy place every year with blood of others;”

    My interpretation: Here he is compared with any Human high priest who enters the holy place of the Temple. Christ did it for the first and the last time once for all. No ambiguity here I hope.

    “(26) For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once in the end of the world (age, r.m.) hath he APPEARED to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself.”

    My interpretation: Yes if his sacrifice was temporary like that of animals and birds he had to come into existence from the very foundations of the world and suffer many times for every year and offer his blood every time. But the miracle here is that he need not exist from the foundations of the world and offer himself many times as the author of Hebrews rightly told. Since God had fixed a time frame for Jesus to come into existence and offer his blood once for all for the sins of all the mankind right from the first man Adam.


    Excellent Adam … absolutely excellent!!

    Heb 9.26 as you so rightly pointed out, simply means;
    If Jesus had not a better offering to present i.e. “himself”; then indeed he would have had to suffer for every sin  from the timing of mankind's first sin
    i.e.  from the foundation of the world.

    But praise be to GOD! Christ's sacrifice was sufficient for the sins of the whole world.

    Therefore, according to GOD Almighty's purpose & timing, GOD sent His Son to be a sacrifice & propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world. [1 John 2.2]

    You see, Adam; I couldn't explain it any better than you!
    :D
    You clearly bring out the sense of these verses;
    Christ needed only to appear once and be offered once as a sacrifice for sins.

    Thanks again Adam, for your clear explanation.


    Good stuff, guys.

    Thank you!
    Mandy


    Hi Golla, AP, Mandy,
    I think that we all agree that Christ's one time sacrifice was all that was needed.  No one is contending that.

    What I was pointing out is that if Christ was just a man, He could only have shed his blood once for it is appointed for a man once to die.  Why did the writer even suggest that He could shed blood and die over and over and over since the foundation of the world if He was just a man?  It might have said that there would have been a need for a third Adam, a fourth Adam, a fifth Adam etc. but not the same person if that person was merely a man.  Get my point?

    So, I believe He was much more than a man like us.

    LU


    Hi Kathi,

    My take – for what it is worth:

    Christ was presented once.  Once in time and space.  He was announced by the angel to Mary and then conceived of God's holy Spirit.  He was born.  He lived.  He died.  The debt was satisfied once and for all.

    Because of who and what he was…there was no need for him to be presented more than once.

    Hebrews is saying that if he was not the perfect high priest, he would have had to keep presenting himself over and over again since the beginning of time for everyone!

    If this were true and he did need to present himself since the foundations…..God would have presented him earlier (i.e., perhaps Eve would have bore the Son of God).  But as such, there was no need.  God's timing was perfect.

    Saying that Jesus preexisted simply because of an interpretation of this scripture is not solid.  It's a guess based on an interpretation, but it is not clear evidence in my opinion.

    Thanks,
    Mandy


    Hi Mandy,
    Yes, Jesus Christ, the Messiah only needed to be presented once, you are right. Hi was the perfect once for all sacrifice. I wonder why God waited and didn't send Him through Eve? I suppose that is says why but I'm just being lazy. I think that it was to set the stage for law to reign and demonstrate to man the impossibility of man to be perfect in fulfilling the law and then definetly needing a savior to fulfill the law and redeem us back to God.

    If that was the only role that the Son of God was to do then He did not need to pre-exist, you are right. I believe however that the Bible speaks of the Son of God in other roles though and for those, He did need to pre-exist the role of Messiah. I will show you this by using only one passage.

    Heb 1:2-3
    …His Son, whom He appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the world. 3 And He is the radiance of His glory and the exact representation of His nature, and upholds all things by the word of His power. When He had made purification of sins…
    NASU

    Notice the order in which these roles are listed.

    Some more roles of the Son:
    To be heir of all things

    to be the one through (not for only but through) whom God made the world

    to represent God's nature exactly (the Son was God's nature exactly and He didn't get that nature when He came through Mary for that would have given Him either a nature of man only like Adam and Eve or half man and half God nature. I do not believe that the Bible says that He had the “nature” of man. Correct me if I'm wrong here.) I believe that He had the nature of God before He was conceived in Mary and that which was conceived was a body prepared for that nature to exist in so that the one with the exact nature of God could shed blood for us.

    to uphold things by the word of God's power

    to make purification of sins

    Making purification of sins is listed after all the other roles not before.

    Love,
    Kathi

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