Did Jesus pre-exist before his birth on Earth?

Where did Jesus come from?

John 6:38-40
For I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will, but the will of him who sent me; and this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise it up at the last day. For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who sees the Son and believes in him should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.

The first verse suggests that Jesus came down from Heaven. This seems to contradict that belief which suggests he first existed as a man when he was born into this world. For if Jesus came into existence for the first time when he was conceived through Mary, how could he come down from Heaven? We (Man) came into existence when we are born into this world, but would it be correct to say that we came down from Heaven too? If a verse said that we came down from Heaven, would you think that we pre-existed in Heaven? If so, then why not Jesus?

John 3:17 is another verse that provides support that Jesus came down from Heaven or was sent rather than created.

For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.

The word ‘send’ is the Greek word ‘apostello’.

apostello {ap-os-tel’-lo}
1) to order (one) to go to a place appointed
2) to send away, dismiss
2a) to allow one to depart, that he may be in a state of liberty
2b) to order one to depart, send off
2c) to drive away

To be sent surely implies existence otherwise you would just say born or created. In fact this word (sent) is similar in meaning and sound to the word Apostle (apostolos), which means “one sent forth with orders”. To be sent forth with order, you must exist.

John 6:62
What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?

Jesus is clearly stating here that he came from above since he eventually ascended into Heaven to be at the right-hand of God.

How old is Jesus?

John 1:15
15 John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.‘ “

John the Baptist was six months older than Jesus Christ. So it is physically impossible for Christ to be before him in age. If this verse is referencing age, then it shows preexistence. Jesus existed before  John the Baptist in the least.

John 8:58
“I tell you the truth,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!

Jesus claimed to exist before Abraham, the father of the Jews. The words ‘I am’ mean ‘I exist’. So Jesus claimed existence before Abraham. We can see that Jesus is getting older as we explore the scriptures. But how old?

Jude 1:25
to the only God our Savior be glory, majesty, power and authority, through Jesus Christ our Lord, before all ages, now and forevermore! Amen.

Here we can see that majesty, power, and authority through Jesus Christ is before all ages (all worlds) and forever more into the future. This strongly implies that Jesus existed even before all things. But can we substantiate this?

Did Jesus exist before all creation?

Colossians 1:17
He is before all things, and in him all things hold together.

Colossians answers the question outright. It states that “He is before all things“.  But are there other verses that support this idea?

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus being there. This verse alone answers the question because the universe, angels, and men were made and Jesus was present when they were created according to these verses. In case that is not enough to convince you, I also add another clear verse that says the same thing.

Hebrews 1:1-2
1 In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways,
2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe.

Is Jesus the Word of God?

But some say that this is talking about the Word and not all believe that Jesus is the Word of God. They argue that Jesus came from the Word, but is not the Word itself that was with God in John 1:1. If you believe this, then please explain the next two verses within their wider context:

Revelation 19:13
He is dressed in a robe dipped in blood, and his name is the Word of God.

Colossians 1:15-18
The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him. He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. And he is the head of the body, the church; he is the beginning and the firstborn from among the dead, so that in everything he might have the supremacy.

Okay, if you are honest, this is a closed case. God created all things through the Word. Jesus is called the Word of God and also the son of God. We are also told that God created all things through the son of God. Even if you do not believe that Jesus is the Word, then you still have to believe that Jesus pre-existed on account of him being the son of God. But what we know from scripture is that Jesus existed as the Word of God before he came as a man called Jesus. We know that the Word became flesh.

More proof verses

If Jesus pre-existed, then you might expect that even though the above verses are clear, there would be more verses that teach or at least imply that he pre-existed. So let’s see if this is the case.

Revelation 22:16
“I, Jesus, have sent my angel to give you this testimony for the churches. I am the Root and the Offspring of David, and the bright Morning Star.”

Here we see that Jesus is the offspring of David, yet he is also the root of David, which at appears to show existence before King David. He also claims to be the bright Morning Star and we read in Job how the Morning Stars were present when God created the Earth.

Job 38:6-7
“On what were its bases sunk? Or who laid its cornerstone, When the morning stars sang together And all the sons of God shouted for joy? 

Luke 10:18
He replied, “I saw Satan fall like lightning from heaven.

Comparing Luke 10:18 with Revelation 12:1-10, some say that Satan and his angels fell to the earth before the birth of Christ as a man. If this was the case, then Jesus saw an event that took place before he was born as a man. However, others argue that Satan hasn’t fallen to the Earth yet, or that he has, but Jesus saw this in a vision. Regardless, it certainly doesn’t contradict that Jesus pre-existed.

Micah 5:2
“But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, though you are small among the clans of Judah, out of you will come for me one who will be ruler over Israel, whose origins are from of old, from ancient times.”

The above verse talks about someone who will rule Israel and whose origin is from ancient times. Who but Jesus could fit that description?

John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God/Divine.

John 1:14
The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only,[ 1:14 Or the Only Begotten] who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Clearly, Jesus was with God in the beginning as the Word of God. This places his existence as before all things and thus comes as no surprise that he was there when God created all things.

The Angel of YHWH

We know from certain scriptures that Jesus is Lord of the Sabbath and many assume that Jesus gave the Law of God. We are told in Acts:7:30-39 for instance that an Angel of the Lord appeared to Moses through whom God spoke and this is the same Angel who spoke to Moses on Mount Sinai and passed on the living words (The Law) to Moses.

30 “After forty years had passed, an angel appeared to Moses in the flames of a burning bush in the desert near Mount Sinai.
31 When he saw this, he was amazed at the sight. As he went over to look more closely, he heard the Lord’s voice:
32 ‘I am the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.’Moses trembled with fear and did not dare to look.
33 “Then the Lord said to him, ‘Take off your sandals; the place where you are standing is holy ground.
34 I have indeed seen the oppression of my people in Egypt. I have heard their groaning and have come down to set them free. Now come, I will send you back to Egypt.’
35 “This is the same Moses whom they had rejected with the words, ‘Who made you ruler and judge?’ He was sent to be their ruler and deliverer by God himself, through the angel who appeared to him in the bush.
36 He led them out of Egypt and did wonders and miraculous signs in Egypt, at the Red Sea and for forty years in the desert.
37 “This is that Moses who told the Israelites, ‘God will send you a prophet like me from your own people.’
38 He was in the assembly in the desert, with the angel who spoke to him on Mount Sinai, and with our fathers; and he received living words to pass on to us.
39 “But our fathers refused to obey him. Instead, they rejected him and in their hearts turned back to Egypt.

So is this Angel of the Lord, Jesus? Well it seems possible. Perhaps the correct model to look at is the one mentioned in Revelation 1:1

The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,

Here we can see that the order of the Revelation started with the Originator which is God. He then passed the message to Jesus Christ who in turn sent it to his Angel and then to John. So perhaps it is possible that the angel in Revelation is the same angel mentioned in Acts:7:30-39.

But the Angel of YHWH or Angel of the LORD is described as one like the son of gods.

Daniel 3:24-25
Then Nebuchadnezzar the king was astounded and stood up in haste; he said to his high officials, “Was it not three men we cast bound into the midst of the fire?” They replied to the king, “Certainly, O king.” He said, “Look! I see four men loosed and walking about in the midst of the fire without harm, and the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods!”

The idea that a preincarnate Jesus was this Angel of the LORD is a popular one. We know that this Angel of the LORD is never mentioned while Jesus is walking the earth which supports this idea. But it could also be a coincidence. One connection that can be made with Jesus being this messenger is found in Judges 13:18.

Manoah said to the angel of the LORD, “What is your name, so that when your words come to pass, we may honor you?” But the angel of the LORD said to him, “Why do you ask my name, seeing it is wonderful?”

Now read what Isaiah prophesied in Isaiah 9:6 .

For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

Clearly, Isaiah was speaking of Jesus Christ and note that he was called Wonderful Counselor. Is there a connection here? Perhaps. What we do know is the word ‘angel’ is the same word messenger in the Old Testament, and while it is held that Jesus is not an angel in kind, we know he certainly was a messenger of YHWH and would be fair to say even ‘The Messenger of YHWH’.

So the idea that he may be this angel is not that far fetched. Some vehemently oppose this idea, but they are not aware that both Jesus and John are called angels in the messenger sense.

More to come here……

More proof that Jesus pre-existed

Rev 3:14
And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God.

Moving on we read the following in Philippians 2:5-11
5 Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus:
6 Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,
7 but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.
8 And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to death even death on a cross!
9 Therefore God exalted him to the highest place and gave him the name that is above every name,
10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

Surely the above verses assumes preexistence.  Look at verse 7: ‘but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness’. This verse points out that Jesus humbled himself to become a (or like a) human and also a servant. So this suggests to us that he preexisted in a higher state because to humble oneself is to become lower. If he started life in this humbled state, then it would be incorrect to say that he humbled himself. Further, he “found himself in appearance as a man” is a weird statement to make if he first existed as a human baby.

This verse is often used in support of the trinity doctrine because of the word ‘equal’. But if you are equal to something it means that you are not that thing, rather you are like that thing. This scripture is also very clear about the following: The Father is God and Jesus is Lord and that God exalted Jesus to the highest place.

A closer look at verse 9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: Now I am not sure if Jesus was exalted higher than he was before he came to this world or whether he was exalted to the exact position that he had before. But if we look at John 17:5 again we can see that Jesus asked to return to his former glory.

John 17:5
And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began.

The above verse is clear about Christ’s pre-existence in glory before the world began. Just to prove this is not an isolated scripture here is a similar verse:

John 16:28
I came from the Father and entered the world; now I am leaving the world and going back to the Father.”

The next verse also confirms that Jesus pre-existed in Heaven.

John 3:12-15
12 I have spoken to you of earthly things and you do not believe; how then will you believe if I speak of heavenly things?
13 No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven, the Son of Man.
14 Just as Moses lifted up the snake in the desert, so the Son of Man must be lifted up,
15 that everyone who believes in him may have eternal life.

Ezekiel 8:1-3
1 In the sixth year, in the sixth month on the fifth day, while I was sitting in my house and the elders of Judah were sitting before me, the hand of the Sovereign LORD came upon me there.
2 I looked, and I saw a figure like that of a man. From what appeared to be his waist down he was like fire, and from there up his appearance was as bright as glowing metal.
3 He stretched out what looked like a hand and took me by the hair of my head. The Spirit lifted me up between earth and heaven and in visions of God he took me to Jerusalem, to the entrance to the north gate of the inner court, where the idol that provokes to jealousy stood.

This verse is interesting in the sense that the description is very similar to the description of Jesus Christ in Revelation 1:12-18,

12 I turned around to see the voice that was speaking to me. And when I turned I saw seven golden lampstands,
13 and among the lampstands was someone “like a son of man,” dressed in a robe reaching down to his feet and with a golden sash around his chest.
14 His head and hair were white like wool, as white as snow, and his eyes were like blazing fire.
15 His feet were like bronze glowing in a furnace, and his voice was like the sound of rushing waters.
16 In his right hand he held seven stars, and out of his mouth came a sharp double-edged sword. His face was like the sun shining in all its brilliance.
17 When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. Then he placed his right hand on me and said: “Do not be afraid. I am the First and the Last.
18 I am the Living One; I was dead, and behold I am alive for ever and ever! And I hold the keys of death and Hades.

Have a look at the next verse. 1 Corinthians 11:3 (English-NIV)
Now I want you to realize that the head of every man is Christ, and the head of the woman is man, and the head of Christ is God.

Now the word head in the Greek is ‘kephale’ which can mean head, source or master. Now if we notice the order in a time sense, we have to admit that God is the first as he is the only one who has existed for all eternity with no beginning. We also know from scripture that the man came first and the woman came from the man. So that part is correct if we use a timeline. That just leaves Christ. Did he come between God and Man. I think so, as I believe that all things came from him and this opinion does fit perfectly into this model in a time sense at least. Anyway the word Christ here is ‘Christos’ which means “anointed”. So the anointed is the head of Man.
God > Christ > Man > Woman

If God created all things for his Son and his Son was the channel for that creation to come into being, then we can only assume that Christ existed at this point. As Genesis says: Let us make Man in our image. God was talking to Christ at this point and we know that Christ is the image of God and we are the image of Christ. Therefore the image of the image of God (man) is still the image of God. But Christ is the original and first image and we can only assume again that that image existed before the image of the image. A bit like a mirror that reflects a mirror, the original mirror has to exist in order to reflect the second mirror.

So we know that Christ preexisted before creation and now we will look at some more scriptures that show that he was born before creation itself?

Colossians 1:15-16
15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.
16 For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him.

The above verse is quite clear that ALL things were created by or through Jesus.

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So again, there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus/The Word being there. Only the Father and Son were not made. God has always existed and the Son was born from God before the creation of the universe, before anything was made. The next verse describes clearly who/what was the first of God’s works.

Proverbs 8:22-30
22 “The LORD brought me forth as the first of his works, {[22] Or ; or } {[22] Or ; or } before his deeds of old;
23 I was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
24 When there were no oceans, I was given birth, when there were no springs abounding with water;
25 before the mountains were settled in place, before the hills, I was given birth,
26 before he made the earth or its fields or any of the dust of the world.
27 I was there when he set the heavens in place, when he marked out the horizon on the face of the deep,
28 when he established the clouds above and fixed securely the fountains of the deep,
29 when he gave the sea its boundary so the waters would not overstep his command, and when he marked out the foundations of the earth.
30 Then I was the craftsman at his side. I was filled with delight day after day, rejoicing always in his presence,

This verse is talking about Wisdom, whom many believe is Christ. This scriptures compliments other scriptures that that teach that Jesus was given birth by God and then created all THINGS though him.

So from this verse we can see the following points.

Wisdom was brought forth as the first of Gods works.
Wisdom was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
Wisdom was given birth before creation.
Wisdom was the craftsman at his side and rejoiced in his presence before creation.
Some say that Wisdom isn’t Christ, rather this is just wisdom in a conceptual sense and it is true that wisdom is being spoken of in that way. But from verse 22 onward it changes tempo. With terms like I was given birth, I was the craftsman at his side and I was filled with delight, we have to admit that it seems to be talking about a person. Now have a look at the following verses:

1 Corinthians 1:24 (English-NIV)
but to those whom God has called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God.

1 Corinthians 1:30 (English-NIV)
It is because of him that you are in Christ Jesus, who has become for us wisdom from God–that is, our righteousness, holiness and redemption.

Let’s look at some other concepts that Jesus personifies:

Jesus is the Truth. Yet truth is also a concept.
Jesus is the Way. Yet the way is also a concept.
Jesus is the Life. Yet life can also be a concept.
Now look at the following mystery:

1 Corinthians 2:6-9
6 We do, however, speak a message of wisdom among the mature, but not the wisdom of this age or of the rulers of this age, who are coming to nothing.
7 No, we speak of God’s secret wisdom, a wisdom that has been hidden and that God destined for our glory before time began.
8 None of the rulers of this age understood it, for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.
9 However, as it is written:
“No eye has seen,
no ear has heard,
no mind has conceived
what God has prepared for those who love him”

Ephesians 3:8-10
8 Although I am less than the least of all God’s people, this grace was given me: to preach to the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ,
9 and to make plain to everyone the administration of this mystery, which for ages past was kept hidden in God, who created all things.
10 His intent was that now, through the church, the manifold wisdom of God should be made known to the rulers and authorities in the heavenly realms,

Perhaps another scripture alluding to Jesus being the Wisdom of God.

Finally I leave you with the following OT scripture that suggests that God had a Son before the birth Of Jesus Christ on earth.

Proverbs 30:4
Who has gone up to heaven and come down? Who has gathered up the wind in the hollow of his hands? Who has wrapped up the waters in his cloak? Who has established all the ends of the earth? What is his name, and the name of his son? Tell me if you know!


Discussion

Viewing 20 posts - 2,661 through 2,680 (of 19,165 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • #89602
    gollamudi
    Participant

    Hi 942767, wonderful post my brother. I fully agree with you. I hope Isaiah will also appreciate it.

    #89607
    Lightenup
    Participant

    Hi 94,
    My only purpose regarding our discussion of John 1:1 was not to prove pre-existance to you but to prove that the “word” could not mean idea or plan. It is proven by the way the Greek word for “was” is. It is written in the active voice meaning the subject itself is doing the action of the verb and it is not written in the passive voice which means that the action is being done to the subject.

    If the “word was with God” and the word was merely an idea or plan, it should be written in the passive voice because the action is being done to it. You have admitted that an idea doesn't do the action but the person that has the idea does the action.

    Also. in the last phrase of that verse, “and the word was God” would be written differently if it were an idea. The “idea was God” doesn't make sense at all but if it said the “idea” was God's, apostrophe S, well that makes more sense provided “was” was written as a passive verb and also the word for God was written in the possessive but it is not.

    Alot can be cleared up with knowledge of the construction of the Greek nouns and verbs. We would all probably be in unity and that would probably mean that we were in the millenium.:)

    Love to you 94,
    LU

    #89608
    Lightenup
    Participant

    Quote (942767 @ May 23 2008,19:40)

    Quote (gsilva72 @ May 24 2008,09:55)
    How about John 1:2 He was in the begining with God. :)


    Hi gsilva72:

    My understanding of these scriptures is that Jesus was with God in that he was fore-odained.  God knew that at a specific time in the future he would conceive a Son.


    Hi 94,
    Again “was” written in active voice so it couldn't have been an idea. Sorry.

    LU

    #89609
    Is 1:18
    Participant

    Quote (942767 @ May 24 2008,13:04)
    Hi Brother Isaiah:

    You are way over my head on this kind of discussion.  I just don't believe that God would go to this extreme to conceal that Jesus was a sentient person with Him from the beginning if in fact this is the case


    Brother SDN, God didn't conceal it at all, He revealed it in John 1:1 as well as John 1:3, 17:5; Phil 2:6-8; Cor 8:6, Col 1:21 and many others. The prehuman Yeshua “made all things” SDN, a fore-ordained nonentity can't make a thing.

    Quote
    It is obvious in John 14 Jesus was saying that he was obeying the Word of God that was coming to him from the Father.


    Yes, but on numerous other occasions He said “my words” (” Heaven and earth will pass away, but My words will not pass away” – Matt 24:35). He also said “All that belongs to the Father is mine.” (Matt 16:15) and “I and the Father are one” (John 10:30). Yes, there is a division of authority between the Father and Son, BUT there is also “oneness” between them….

    Quote
    Brother, God has reavealed to the church who Jesus is in Matthew 16 and that is that he is the Christ the Son of the living God.


    I don't dispute this.

    Quote
    Jesus is a man, no, not just any man, but nevertheless a man.  The last Adam.  The man who was perfected through obedience to the Word of God.


    I don't dispute this either.

    Quote
    God made man in His own image and Jesus is the express image of His person.


    I don't think the King James translators did a great job in rendering hypostasis as “person” in Heb 1:3. “Being” or “nature” (NIV and NASB respectively) far better capture the meaning of this word in the context in which it's placed. Yeshua is identical to God the Father in His nature.

    Blessings
    :)

    #89610
    Is 1:18
    Participant

    Quote (Lightenup @ May 24 2008,16:56)
    Hi 94,
    My only purpose regarding our discussion of John 1:1 was not to prove pre-existance to you but to prove that the “word” could not mean idea or plan.  It is proven by the way the Greek word for “was” is.  It is written in the active voice meaning the subject itself is doing the action of the verb and it is not written in the passive voice which means that the action is being done to the subject.

    If the “word was with God” and the word was merely an idea or plan, it should be written in the passive voice because the action is being done to it.  You have admitted  that an idea doesn't do the action but the person that has the idea does the action.

    Also. in the last phrase of that verse, “and the word was God” would be written differently if it were an idea.  The “idea was God” doesn't make sense at all but if it said the “idea” was God's, apostrophe S, well that makes more sense provided “was” was written as a passive verb and also the word for God was written in the possessive but it is not.

    Alot can be cleared up with knowledge of the construction of the Greek nouns and verbs.  We would all probably be in unity and that would probably mean that we were in the millenium.:)

    Love to you 94,
    LU


    The verb “was” (Gr: en) in John 1:1 is the imperfect tense verb for “eimi”. It denotes a continuous action, either forwards or backwards. On this point A T Robertson, probably the world’s foremost Greek grammarian, wrote this

    Was (hn). Three times in this sentence John uses this imperfect of eimi to be which conveys no idea of origin for God or for the Logos, simply continuous existence. Quite a different verb (egeneto, became) appears in verse John 1:14 for the beginning of the Incarnation of the Logos.
    (source)

    So the language used by John makes explicit that whenever the “beginning” was, the logos was already in existence. By using this construction John was making it clear that logos is without a beginning, The Logos is origin-less, He had no beginning, He is time-less. Robertson also made mention of the juxtaposition of the two words used to describe the pre-incarnate existence of the Word and His incarnation is, I think. The Greek word “en” which denotes continuous action of the Logos existing in the past is in contrast to the aorist verb “egeneto” which John used to describing the incarnation (v 14), which happened at a fixed point in time. This contrast in terminology underscores the fact that John was delineating the eternal Logos from the temporal nature of the “things” (or flesh) He created.

    #89619

    Quote (Is 1:18 @ May 24 2008,17:20)

    Quote (Lightenup @ May 24 2008,16:56)
    Hi 94,
    My only purpose regarding our discussion of John 1:1 was not to prove pre-existance to you but to prove that the “word” could not mean idea or plan.  It is proven by the way the Greek word for “was” is.  It is written in the active voice meaning the subject itself is doing the action of the verb and it is not written in the passive voice which means that the action is being done to the subject.

    If the “word was with God” and the word was merely an idea or plan, it should be written in the passive voice because the action is being done to it.  You have admitted  that an idea doesn't do the action but the person that has the idea does the action.

    Also. in the last phrase of that verse, “and the word was God” would be written differently if it were an idea.  The “idea was God” doesn't make sense at all but if it said the “idea” was God's, apostrophe S, well that makes more sense provided “was” was written as a passive verb and also the word for God was written in the possessive but it is not.

    Alot can be cleared up with knowledge of the construction of the Greek nouns and verbs.  We would all probably be in unity and that would probably mean that we were in the millenium.:)

    Love to you 94,
    LU


    The verb “was” (Gr: en) in John 1:1 is the imperfect tense verb for “eimi”. It denotes a continuous action, either forwards or backwards. On this point A T Robertson, probably the world’s foremost Greek grammarian, wrote this

    Was (hn). Three times in this sentence John uses this imperfect of eimi to be which conveys no idea of origin for God or for the Logos, simply continuous existence. Quite a different verb (egeneto, became) appears in verse John 1:14 for the beginning of the Incarnation of the Logos.
    (source)

    So the language used by John makes explicit that whenever the “beginning” was, the logos was already in existence. By using this construction John was making it clear that logos is without a beginning, The Logos is origin-less, He had no beginning, He is time-less. Robertson also made mention of the juxtaposition of the two words used to describe the pre-incarnate existence of the Word and His incarnation is, I think. The Greek word “en” which denotes continuous action of the Logos existing in the past is in contrast to the aorist verb “egeneto” which John used to describing the incarnation (v 14), which happened at a fixed point in time. This contrast in terminology underscores the fact that John was delineating the eternal Logos from the temporal nature of the “things” (or flesh) He created.


    Hi Brother Paul

    Execellent post. There is no scripture anywhere that says the pre-incarnate Yeshua had a beginning.

    Blessings! :)

    #89622
    Is 1:18
    Participant

    Quite right WJ. It's not even intimated.

    #89623
    Admin
    Keymaster

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ May 04 2008,18:54)
    t8

    I messed up and think I deleted this post.

    I hope you can fix it. I couldnt copy it from cache.

    Sorry!

    Keith

    For those reading the entire post is in Ptrs responce. I can piece it back.


    Sorry I didn't see this post before.

    If it is in a response, why not copy the text from there and paste it into the post?

    If it isn't quoted anywhere, then would you like me to find it if it is in a backup? I can't promise anything though. The backups are like spagetti. Everything is tangled and fragmented.

    :)

    #89625
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (Is 1:18 @ May 24 2008,17:11)

    Quote
    Brother, God has reavealed to the church who Jesus is in Matthew 16 and that is that he is the Christ the Son of the living God.


    I don't dispute this.


    By reason of saying that he is God is by definition saying that he is not the son of that God.

    The Father is God and it is taken for granted that the son is of the Father which is the same as of God.

    God is the Father. There is one God, the Father. One Lord, the Lord Jesus Christ.

    John 16:27
    No, the Father himself loves you because you have loved me and have believed that I came from God.

    John 16:30
    Now we can see that you know all things and that you do not even need to have anyone ask you questions. This makes us believe that you came from God.”

    Jesus came from God. He is of God. He is the glory of God. He is the image of invisible God. He is the son of God.

    The word “of” is not to be ignored.

    So he is of the invisible God and he is visible.

    He is not the invisible God of scripture.

    #89629
    Lightenup
    Participant

    Quote (Is 1:18 @ May 24 2008,01:20)

    Quote (Lightenup @ May 24 2008,16:56)
    Hi 94,
    My only purpose regarding our discussion of John 1:1 was not to prove pre-existance to you but to prove that the “word” could not mean idea or plan.  It is proven by the way the Greek word for “was” is.  It is written in the active voice meaning the subject itself is doing the action of the verb and it is not written in the passive voice which means that the action is being done to the subject.

    If the “word was with God” and the word was merely an idea or plan, it should be written in the passive voice because the action is being done to it.  You have admitted  that an idea doesn't do the action but the person that has the idea does the action.

    Also. in the last phrase of that verse, “and the word was God” would be written differently if it were an idea.  The “idea was God” doesn't make sense at all but if it said the “idea” was God's, apostrophe S, well that makes more sense provided “was” was written as a passive verb and also the word for God was written in the possessive but it is not.

    Alot can be cleared up with knowledge of the construction of the Greek nouns and verbs.  We would all probably be in unity and that would probably mean that we were in the millenium.:)

    Love to you 94,
    LU


    The verb “was” (Gr: en) in John 1:1 is the imperfect tense verb for “eimi”. It denotes a continuous action, either forwards or backwards. On this point A T Robertson, probably the world’s foremost Greek grammarian, wrote this

    Was (hn). Three times in this sentence John uses this imperfect of eimi to be which conveys no idea of origin for God or for the Logos, simply continuous existence. Quite a different verb (egeneto, became) appears in verse John 1:14 for the beginning of the Incarnation of the Logos.
    (source)

    So the language used by John makes explicit that whenever the “beginning” was, the logos was already in existence. By using this construction John was making it clear that logos is without a beginning, The Logos is origin-less, He had no beginning, He is time-less. Robertson also made mention of the juxtaposition of the two words used to describe the pre-incarnate existence of the Word and His incarnation is, I think. The Greek word “en” which denotes continuous action of the Logos existing in the past is in contrast to the aorist verb “egeneto” which John used to describing the incarnation (v 14), which happened at a fixed point in time. This contrast in terminology underscores the fact that John was delineating the eternal Logos from the temporal nature of the “things” (or flesh) He created.


    Hello Is 1:18,
    Imperfect
    The imperfect tense generally represents continual or repeated action. Where the present tense might indicate “they are asking,” the imperfect would indicate “they kept on asking.”

    In the case of the verb “to be,” however, the imperfect tense is used as a general past tense and does not carry the connotation of continual or repeated action.

    I copied and pasted this from http://www.studylight.org/isb/view.cgi?number=5713&tool=grk

    That is in direct opposition of what you wrote.

    They can't both be right.

    God bless,
    LU

    #89630
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    TO ALL….Trinitarians would have you believe John was so stupid He didn't Know How to Spell Jesus, so he said (word) instead of Jesus, and Jesus didn't say “the (WORDS) i tell you (AREN'T MINE) “.

    This is what these lying Trinitarians, would have you believe . They present themselves as with superior understanding like they some how know what their talking about, they simply are the blind leading the blind.

    #89631
    Lightenup
    Participant

    Quote (Gene Balthrop @ May 24 2008,13:10)
    TO ALL….Trinitarians would have you believe John was so stupid He didn't Know How to Spell Jesus, so he said (word) instead of Jesus, and Jesus didn't say “the (WORDS) i tell you (AREN'T MINE) “.

    This is what these lying Trinitarians, would have you believe . They present themselves as with superior understanding like they some how know what their talking about, they simply are the blind leading the blind.


    Gene,
    There is a difference between people who are deliberately misleading others and those that are trying to play the cards in their hand to their best advantage and understanding. Who appointed you as judge??? It would behoove you to love the trinitarians and especially those that spend so much time on you trying to shed some light. It is hard to believe that WJ and Isaiah 1:18 even bother.

    We all have a different hand of cards from the same deck. Who knows when that next card played will be the one that changes the outcome of the whole game for everyone to win and be set free with truth. We are all sitting around the table so be a good sport to all the players and you will benefit. Good Grief!

    Also, I do not think that Jesus was in the beginning with God and therefore His name wouldn't be in that passage of John 1:1. The Son of God didn't take on the Jesus role till the second part of the play. Before that He wasn't playing the Jesus role at all. The Son of God that was the spirit of Jesus existed in the first part of the play in other roles, just a change of costumes. IMO and I'm just playing my hand as I understand it.

    If you do not know how to play the game of Greek nouns and verbs then I am sure that it would help you to learn about them instead of making accusations such as “those lying trinitarians” who are trying to learn and explain about such things because they realize their value.

    I have shown that the “word” can not be a plan or idea. Put it to rest! Or at least challenge it with substantial evidence to prove that a plan or idea acts on its own.

    The role of Jesus was predestined to enter into the second half of the play not before. His other roles were played in the first half. I hope you catch my analogy of a play to the Old and New Testament.

    #89635
    942767
    Participant

    Hi Lightenup:

    I guess that I am a little slow to understand, but what action is the Word doing in this context?

    #89636
    942767
    Participant

    Hi Bro. Isaiah:

    You say:

    Quote
    Brother SDN, God didn't conceal it at all, He revealed it in John 1:1 as well as John 1:3, 17:5; Phil 2:6-8; Cor 8:6, Col 1:21 and many others. The prehuman Yeshua “made all things” SDN, a fore-ordained nonentity can't make a thing.

    If the prehuman Yeshua “made all things” then what about the following scriptures?

    Quote
    Gen 1:1 ¶ In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth

    Quote
    Gen 1:31  And God saw every thing that he had made, and, behold, [it was] very good. And the evening and the morning were the sixth day

    Quote
    Hbr 1:1 ¶ God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,

    Hbr 1:2  Hath in these last days spoken unto us by [his] Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;

    And regarding your comments to me here:

    Quote
    It is obvious in John 14 Jesus was saying that he was obeying the Word of God that was coming to him from the Father.

    Yes, but on numerous other occasions He said “my words” (” Heaven and earth will pass away, but My words will not pass away” – Matt 24:35). He also said “All that belongs to the Father is mine.” (Matt 16:15) and “I and the Father are one” (John 10:30). Yes, there is a division of authority between the Father and Son, BUT there is also “oneness” between them….

    Jesus made it quite clear that he did not teach his own thoughts.  Yes, they are one in the spirit.  And we, who are born again Christians should be one in the spirit with them also.

    Quote
    Jhn 17:18  As thou hast sent me into the world, even so have I also sent them into the world.
    Jhn 17:19  And for their sakes I sanctify myself, that they also might be sanctified through the truth.
    Jhn 17:20 ¶ Neither pray I for these alone, but for them also which shall believe on me through their word;  Jhn 17:21  That they all may be one; as thou, Father, [art] in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me.

    God Bless

    #89639
    Is 1:18
    Participant

    Quote (Lightenup @ May 25 2008,01:35)
    Hello Is 1:18,
    Imperfect
    The imperfect tense generally represents continual or repeated action. Where the present tense might indicate “they are asking,” the imperfect would indicate “they kept on asking.”

    In the case of the verb “to be,” however, the imperfect tense is used as a general past tense and does not carry the connotation of continual or repeated action.

    I copied and pasted this from http://www.studylight.org/isb/view.cgi?number=5713&tool=grk

    That is in direct opposition of what you wrote.  

    They can't both be right.

    God bless,
    LU


    Not it isn't. I said an imperfect tense denotes continuous action (quoting A T Robertson, by the way), which is exactly what your source also spells out. Did you misunderstand?

    Blessings
    :)

    #89640
    Is 1:18
    Participant

    Quote (t8 @ May 25 2008,00:01)

    Quote (Is 1:18 @ May 24 2008,17:11)

    Quote
    Brother, God has reavealed to the church who Jesus is in Matthew 16 and that is that he is the Christ the Son of the living God.


    I don't dispute this.


    By reason of saying that he is God is by definition saying that he is not the son of that God.

    The Father is God and it is taken for granted that the son is of the Father which is the same as of God.

    God is the Father. There is one God, the Father. One Lord, the Lord Jesus Christ.

    John 16:27
    No, the Father himself loves you because you have loved me and have believed that I came from God.

    John 16:30
    Now we can see that you know all things and that you do not even need to have anyone ask you questions. This makes us believe that you came from God.”

    Jesus came from God. He is of God. He is the glory of God. He is the image of invisible God. He is the son of God.

    The word “of” is not to be ignored.

    So he is of the invisible God and he is visible.

    He is not the invisible God of scripture.


    I have two questions:

    1. In what sense is Yeshua the Son of God?

    2. If the Father is God (to us) to the exclusion of Yeshua does that also mean Yehsua is Lord (to us) to the exclusion of the Father?

    #89641
    Is 1:18
    Participant

    Quote (942767 @ May 25 2008,08:24)
    Hi Bro. Isaiah:

    You say:

    Quote
    Brother SDN, God didn't conceal it at all, He revealed it in John 1:1 as well as John 1:3, 17:5; Phil 2:6-8; Cor 8:6, Col 1:21 and many others. The prehuman Yeshua “made all things” SDN, a fore-ordained nonentity can't make a thing.

    If the prehuman Yeshua “made all things” then what about the following scriptures?

    Quote
    Gen 1:1 ¶ In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth

    Quote
    Gen 1:31  And God saw every thing that he had made, and, behold, [it was] very good. And the evening and the morning were the sixth day

    Quote
    Hbr 1:1 ¶ God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,

    Hbr 1:2  Hath in these last days spoken unto us by [his] Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;


    In the Genesis narrative a plural noun is used to describe YHWH, namely elohim (the “im” suffix pluralises nouns in he Hebrew language). This certainly leaves room for more than one agency being involved in the creation event. This is further supported by the “let us make man in our image” comment in Gen 1:26 (we are made in the image of God). So IMO there is no contradiction between the Genesis and NT accounts.

    Blessings
    :)

    #89642
    Not3in1
    Participant

    Quote (Is 1:18 @ May 24 2008,17:11)

    Quote (942767 @ May 24 2008,13:04)
    Hi Brother Isaiah:

    You are way over my head on this kind of discussion.  I just don't believe that God would go to this extreme to conceal that Jesus was a sentient person with Him from the beginning if in fact this is the case


    Brother SDN, God didn't conceal it at all, He revealed it in John 1:1 as well as John 1:3, 17:5; Phil 2:6-8; Cor 8:6, Col 1:21 and many others. The prehuman Yeshua “made all things” SDN, a fore-ordained nonentity can't make a thing.

    Quote
    It is obvious in John 14 Jesus was saying that he was obeying the Word of God that was coming to him from the Father.


    Yes, but on numerous other occasions He said “my words” (” Heaven and earth will pass away, but My words will not pass away” – Matt 24:35). He also said “All that belongs to the Father is mine.” (Matt 16:15) and “I and the Father are one” (John 10:30). Yes, there is a division of authority between the Father and Son, BUT there is also “oneness” between them….

    Quote
    Brother, God has reavealed to the church who Jesus is in Matthew 16 and that is that he is the Christ the Son of the living God.


    I don't dispute this.

    Quote
    Jesus is a man, no, not just any man, but nevertheless a man.  The last Adam.  The man who was perfected through obedience to the Word of God.


    I don't dispute this either.

    Quote
    God made man in His own image and Jesus is the express image of His person.


    I don't think the King James translators did a great job in rendering hypostasis as “person” in Heb 1:3. “Being” or “nature” (NIV and NASB respectively) far better capture the meaning of this word in the context in which it's placed. Yeshua is identical to God the Father in His nature.

    Blessings
    :)


    Isaiah,

    I've been taking a rest from actively reading and posting here. But I've been studying preexistence and decided to check in here today for any updates on the topic.

    I have a question regarding the above quote from you.

    If Jesus was born of a women, how can his nature be exactly like God?

    Thanks,
    Mandy

    #89643
    Not3in1
    Participant

    Oh, and I have out of town company coming any minute, so I'll have to check back after the weekend. Thanks.

    #89647
    942767
    Participant

    Quote (Is 1:18 @ May 25 2008,08:43)

    Quote (942767 @ May 25 2008,08:24)
    Hi Bro. Isaiah:

    You say:

    Quote
    Brother SDN, God didn't conceal it at all, He revealed it in John 1:1 as well as John 1:3, 17:5; Phil 2:6-8; Cor 8:6, Col 1:21 and many others. The prehuman Yeshua “made all things” SDN, a fore-ordained nonentity can't make a thing.

    If the prehuman Yeshua “made all things” then what about the following scriptures?

    Quote
    Gen 1:1 ¶ In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth

    Quote
    Gen 1:31  And God saw every thing that he had made, and, behold, [it was] very good. And the evening and the morning were the sixth day

    Quote
    Hbr 1:1 ¶ God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,

    Hbr 1:2  Hath in these last days spoken unto us by [his] Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;


    In the Genesis narrative a plural noun is used to describe YHWH, namely elohim (the “im” suffix pluralises nouns in he Hebrew language). This certainly leaves room for more than one agency being involved in the creation event. This is further supported by the “let us make man in our image” comment in Gen 1:26 (we are made in the image of God). So IMO there is no contradiction between the Genesis and NT accounts.

    Blessings
    :)


    Hi Bro. Isaiah:

    The verse in Hebrews that I quoted states:

    Quote
    Hbr 1:2  Hath in these last days spoken unto us by [his] Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;

    “By whom (speaking about Jesus) also “HE” (GOD) made the worlds.”

    And Verse 1:2 also states the “GOD” spoke to us through His Son.

    The plural for God is used because:

    Quote
    Deu 10:17 For the LORD your God [is] God of gods, and Lord of lords, a great God, a mighty, and a terrible, which regardeth not persons, nor taketh reward:

    And I did not get a response from you relative to the passage of scripture that I quoted about being Jesus being “one” with the Father in the spirit and we being “one” in the spirit with them.

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