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John 17:5 NRSV
So now, Father, glorify me in your own presence with the glory that I had in your presence before the world existed.Who said the above words?
If the BEING and PERSON Jesus Christ said the above words, then it was the BEING and PERSON of Jesus Christ who had glory alongside his God before the world began. BUT…………….
If it was the Word of God speaking through the person Jesus, then:
A. The Word of God is the SON OF God, for it calls God “Father”.
B. The Word of God had it's OWN glory before the world began, meaning that the Word of God was NOT God Himself.
C. The Word of God is a separate ENTITY than God Himself, or it could not have been having its OWN glory IN THE PRESENCE OF God before the world began.
D. The Word of God has its OWN ambitions, for it asks for the return of its OWN past glory.
E. John 1:14 must be worded wrong, because the Word of God didn't actually BECOME the flesh person Jesus, but only came to be IN the flesh person Jesus.
F. Again, the Word of God must be the SON OF God, for the Word who became flesh had the glory of the SON OF God according to 1:14.
I could probably go on, but I think you all get the point. Now……………who is ready to claim A through F with a straight face just to keep their doctrine?
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Feb. 12 2012,15:05) John 17:5 NRSV
So now, Father, glorify me in your own presence with the glory that I had in your presence before the world existed.Who said the above words?
Hi Mike,The NRSV translators.
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (mikeboll64 @ Feb. 12 2012,15:05) John 17:5 NRSV
So now, Father, glorify me in your own presence with the glory that I had in your presence before the world existed.Who said the above words?
If the BEING and PERSON Jesus Christ said the above words, then it was the BEING and PERSON of Jesus Christ who had glory alongside his God before the world began. BUT…………….
If it was the Word of God speaking through the person Jesus, then:
A. The Word of God is the SON OF God, for it calls God “Father”.
B. The Word of God had it's OWN glory before the world began, meaning that the Word of God was NOT God Himself.
C. The Word of God is a separate ENTITY than God Himself, or it could not have been having its OWN glory IN THE PRESENCE OF God before the world began.
D. The Word of God has its OWN ambitions, for it asks for the return of its OWN past glory.
E. John 1:14 must be worded wrong, because the Word of God didn't actually BECOME the flesh person Jesus, but only came to be IN the flesh person Jesus.
F. Again, the Word of God must be the SON OF God, for the Word who became flesh had the glory of the SON OF God according to 1:14.
I could probably go on, but I think you all get the point. Now……………who is ready to claim A through F with a straight face just to keep their doctrine?
Hi Mike,John 17:5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.
A. Huh?
B. The Word of God (God's Spirit in him) is what gave Jesus glory.
C. Rudimentary wordy logic?
D. Spin.
E. The wording still carries the same meaning. (see 2Cor.5:19)
F. More spin.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgNice post, Ed.
Let's take it slower for you, okay?
Ed, WHOEVER asked to be returned to a previous glory in John 17:5 has to be the Son of God, for he called God “Father”.
Now, is the Word of God the SON of God? YES or NO?
Is the Holy Spirit of God the SON of God? YES or NO?
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Feb. 12 2012,15:38) Nice post, Ed. Let's take it slower for you, okay?
(1)Ed, WHOEVER asked to be returned to a previous glory in John 17:5 has to be the Son of God, for he called God “Father”.
(2)Now, is the Word of God the SON of God? YES or NO?
(3)Is the Holy Spirit of God the SON of God? YES or NO?
Hi Mike,1) Jesus is asking his father to return him to himself.
2) Nope.
3) nope.
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgGood Ed, we agree on this. It was the PERSON Jesus Christ who had glory in the presence of his God before the world began, because it was the PERSON Jesus Christ who asked to be returned to that glory.
We are in agreement.
Hi Mike,
Not so fast; perhaps you may not actually be agreeing with me?
It's the fathers glory that Jesus shared with YHVH, not his own.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (mikeboll64 @ Feb. 12 2012,15:38) Nice post, Ed. Let's take it slower for you, okay?
Ed, WHOEVER asked to be returned to a previous glory in John 17:5 has to be the Son of God, for he called God “Father”.
Now, is the Word of God the SON of God? YES or NO?
Is the Holy Spirit of God the SON of God? YES or NO?
Surely not sarcasm??Nick.
In God is his word,was made flesh became his son.
His son was preaching the kingdom of his father.
In Gods word contains the truth(holy spirit).If we have the truth,the holy spirit is in us also.
But that does not mean that we are the holy spirit.
Gods teachings through his son is truth,therefore the holy spirit is in his teachings.At the very end his son will be in God himself,and this is the time when God will be all in all.
We will be in God also and God in us.We will be one,in the one spirit.All is framed by the word of God.wakeup.
Quote (Ed J @ Feb. 11 2012,23:05) Hi Mike, Not so fast; perhaps you may not actually be agreeing with me?
It's the fathers glory that Jesus shared with YHVH, not his own.
I'm okay with the fact you're wrong about the glory for right now, Ed. (The Father shares His glory with no other.)What's important is that you realize the PERSON Jesus is the one who had glory alongisde his God before the world began because the PERSON Jesus is the one who said he did.
Quote (Nick Hassan @ Feb. 12 2012,02:19) Hi MB,
You need to discern the Word from the vessel.
Now they are eternally one.
At what point in time did they become eternally one, Nick?Quote (Wakeup @ Feb. 12 2012,02:52) Nick. In God is his word,was made flesh became his son.
Wakeup,Do you have an answer to the question of this thread?
A. Jesus said those words.
B. The Word said those words through Jesus.
Which one, Wakeup?
Hi MB,
The Spirit will never abandon or forsake anyone.
The sons of God are led by the Spirit of God.Yahshua was first said to be led by the Spirit after his anointing at the Jordan[Lk4.1]
That has nothing to do with the question of this thread, or with the subsequent question I asked you – at least not that I can tell.
Are you saying Jesus and the Word of God became one being at the baptism of Jesus? What scripture tells you this? Or are you leaning upon your own human wisdom and logic?
Quote (Ed J @ Feb. 12 2012,23:05) Hi Mike, Not so fast; perhaps you may not actually be agreeing with me?
It's the fathers glory that Jesus shared with YHVH, not his own.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
MikeEDJ does not believe that Christ his THE WORD of God,
so he will agree to not agree according to his own views
and make his view the truth over scriptures
Quote (Nick Hassan @ Feb. 13 2012,13:41) Hi MB,
The Spirit will never abandon or forsake anyone.
The sons of God are led by the Spirit of God.Yahshua was first said to be led by the Spirit after his anointing at the Jordan[Lk4.1]
NickRo 8:14 For all who are led by the Spirit of God are children of God.
ALL,does not stand for everyone,but for the exception,
Pierre
Quote (terraricca @ Feb. 14 2012,04:30) Quote (Ed J @ Feb. 12 2012,23:05) Hi Mike, Not so fast; perhaps you may not actually be agreeing with me?
It's the fathers glory that Jesus shared with YHVH, not his own.God bless
Ed J
MikeEDJ does not believe that Christ his THE WORD of God,
so he will agree to not agree according to his own views
and make his view the truth over scriptures
Hi Pierre,THAT IS FALSE; I will instead continue to try to convince you of “The Truth”!
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
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