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Quote (Gene Balthrop @ July 14 2007,11:20) isa1:18….> your deception is obvious you can't figure our that the spirit of Christ means the annoting of God that was in Jesus . Christ is chrestos or annointing in all and through all, same as God in all and through all. you have been blinded by trinitarian idologies. Christ means the annoting not the Person Jesus. think about it. gene
2 Corinthians 13:5
5Test yourselves to see if you are in the faith; examine yourselves! Or do you not recognize this about yourselves, that Jesus Christ is in you–unless indeed you fail the test?So your saying that when Paul wrote “Jesus Christ” he wasn't referring to the person…..
Get real Gene….
Im4truth…..They cant get it because God has blinded them
they cant even figure it out the the spirit of Jesus was the anoting which was in him and in us. your just wasting your time with them.don't get descouraged by brain washed trinitarians….gene
Quote (Gene Balthrop @ July 14 2007,11:20) you have been blinded by trinitarian idologies. Christ means the annoting not the Person Jesus.
I think it is you that has been blinded by your unitarian ideologies….Is1:18 Did Jesus not say that the Father and I are one. If Christ has another spirit then the Bible contradicts. But that is not true. There are a lot of Scriptures that have been added. And you have to look back in History who came up with that Doctrine of the trinity. That is why I have said to read “The two Babylons”
Peace Mrs.IM4TruthCan you exegete this verse for us Gene:
John 14:23
23Jesus answered and said to him, “If anyone loves Me, he will keep My word; and My Father will love him, and We will come to him and make Our abode with him.Enquiring minds want to know….
Quote (IM4Truth @ July 14 2007,11:32) Is1:18 Did Jesus not say that the Father and I are one. If Christ has another spirit then the Bible contradicts. But that is not true.
So are you saying that Christ's personal Spirit was the same as the Spirit of God?Isa 1:18… will i see you have narrowed you text down to only one again while allthe rest speak differently. could it be possibly your mistaken. i asure you, you are.
The spirit in Jesus was the annotining or Holy Spirit which was God the Father and it's the same spirit we recieve from God the Father which is God in us. thats why your deception won't work , you have been out classed by God our Father.
and thats the same spirit that was in Jesus as well as us.keep trying but i guarentee you it won't work……gene
Quote (Gene Balthrop @ July 14 2007,11:35) Isa 1:18… will i see you have narrowed you text down to only one again while allthe rest speak differently. could it be possibly your mistaken. i asure you, you are. The spirit in Jesus was the annotining or Holy Spirit which was God the Father and it's the same spirit we recieve from God the Father which is God in us. thats why your deception won't work , you have been out classed by God our Father.
and thats the same spirit that was in Jesus as well as us.keep trying but i guarentee you it won't work……gene
I thought your reasoning was unsound. If you plug “the annoting of God that was in Jesus” into the texts, many of them fail to make sense. And also, wouldn't your meaning for Spirit of Christ (the annoting of God that was in Jesus) be just an awkwand and long winded description for “Holy Spirit”? Which leads us back to this question – why did NT writers use Spirit of Christ and Spirit of God synonymously and interchangably?Quote (Is 1:18 @ July 14 2007,11:32) Can you exegete this verse for us Gene: John 14:23
23Jesus answered and said to him, “If anyone loves Me, he will keep My word; and My Father will love him, and We will come to him and make Our abode with him.Enquiring minds want to know….
Gene, got an answer for us?Quote (Is 1:18 @ July 14 2007,09:01) Quote (Nick Hassan @ July 13 2007,23:26) Quote (Is 1:18 @ July 13 2007,19:15) Quote (Nick Hassan @ July 13 2007,09:14) Hi ,
Here is the trinity circular use of LOGIC in all it's glory“1. In John 20:28 Thomas declared Yeshua to be his Lord and God.
2. A Jewish monotheist has only ONE personal God, namely YHWH.
3. It's therefore implausible to think that Thomas had acquired another God.
4. So Yeshua must be true God.”
So simplistic.
So false.
It's easy to throw around ad hominems in order to avoid the argument. Which point is incorrect, and why?
Hi Is.1.18
It is because it is weakly held together only by LOGIC
not by revealed truth.
Which point is weak?
Hi Is 1.18,
Human logic does not equate to scriptural proof. You need to compare scripture with scripture to assay truth and not produce a patchwork quilt of verses and bind them up in human logic. It insults the Author of cripture to treat the treasures of scripture so badly.Isa 1:18….> it's we because it's the same spirit of the Father , or due think when people recieve Gods holy spirit which is God in them a being that was leading and guiding Jesus that we need another personal spirit of Jesus the man just like me and you to comealong also. Lets see I gess you are a trinity after all, there”s you, God, and Jesus.
Scripture plainly say's if the spirit that was in christ Jesus be in you (IT) will ALSO quicken your mortal bodies,.
It's one God, one spirit or christos in all and through all. Not a multiplicity of personalities as your trinitarian doctrine expound……..think about it if you can…….gene.Quote it's we because it's the same spirit of the Father
Gene,
Why then did Yeshua use plural pronouns in this verse?:John 14:23
23Jesus answered and said to him, “If anyone loves Me, he will keep My word; and My Father will love him, and We will come to him and make Our abode with him.Why?
Why?
Why?
Hi Is 1.18
“”1. In John 20:28 Thomas declared Yeshua to be his Lord and God.”
One view unsupported by other verses and there are many other views of it's meaning. You mean
Thomas says Jesus is his God, and that means he is not following Jesus whose God is his Father?2.” A Jewish monotheist has only ONE personal God, namely YHWH.”
What is a PERSONAL GOD?
Do we all have our own?
The Jews knew their God and in case there was any confusion the one you call Thomas's God
said their God was the Father[Jn8.54]and called the Father the One TRUE God[Jn17]3.” It's therefore implausible to think that Thomas had acquired another God. “
hmmm.
Does one acquire gods?4. “So Yeshua must be true God.”
So Jesus lied?
He said he was the Son of God.Isa 1:18 …..> sure do have an answer, it in the form of a question which will answer your's.
why did Jesus say the word i speak unto you are NOT MINE, but the (WORD”S) of Him who sent Me.
Has the light come on yet. Jesus never accredited the words he spoke to himself. He new very well that its was the FAther in him doing the work.
when will the light ever come on Isa……..gene
Quote (Gene Balthrop @ July 14 2007,12:03) Isa 1:18 …..> sure do have an answer, it in the form of a question which will answer your's. why did Jesus say the word i speak unto you are NOT MINE, but the (WORD”S) of Him who sent Me.
Because Yeshua only spoke the words of YHWH. Know any other men like that Gene?Quote Has the light come on yet. Jesus never accredited the words he spoke to himself. He new very well that its was the FAther in him doing the work.
Was Yeshua just a mindless, empty shell Gene? That's why you are implying here…..Quote (Is 1:18 @ July 14 2007,11:55) Quote it's we because it's the same spirit of the Father
Gene,
Why then did Yeshua use plural pronouns in this verse?:John 14:23
23Jesus answered and said to him, “If anyone loves Me, he will keep My word; and My Father will love him, and We will come to him and make Our abode with him.Why?
Why?
Why?
And I don't see how your question answers this one…Why Gene?
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