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- March 9, 2016 at 8:15 am#810262GeneBalthropParticipant
To all…..John 3:24…. ” Being justified freely by his grace through the “REDEMPTION” that is in Christ Jesus:”,
or is it better written, “Being justified freely by his grace through the “RANSOM” that is in Christ Jesus:”
To me the word RANSOM, expresses it better, so why do you think translators used REDEMPTION instead, because it seems to stress a payment.
What say you?
This is no big deal, just would like to hear some of your views on it.
Peace and love to you all and yours. ……..gene
March 9, 2016 at 8:45 am#810263NickHassanParticipantHi GB,
You mean Rom 3.24?
What do the manuscripts say?
March 9, 2016 at 10:18 am#810280NickHassanParticipantHi GB,
Are we going to go through your dance routine again when you believe something and will do anything to give it substance despite scripture?
March 9, 2016 at 12:10 pm#810299kerwinParticipantGene,
Because it is not speaking of ransoming an individual but rather redeeming them from slavery.
There are both synonyms so I do not see where there is a significant difference.
March 9, 2016 at 12:15 pm#810300GeneBalthropParticipantNICK…..NO, BUT I WOULD APPRECIATE YOU NOT GIVING US YOUR ROUTINE AGAIN, by trying to make this an opertunity for you to charater bash out of this, it’s not a big deal, the words are simmialr, but when i looked up the word used there, strongs concordance gave REDEMPTION, as the last meaning for the word, and the first was RANSOM, i was just wondering why the translator used REDEMPTION, INSTEAD OF RANSOM, and if that would have made any different impact on how some percieve what was being said their. JUST ASKING OK, so go take your meds and com down Nick.
To me the word RANSOM seems to carries with it a more inimate connection to JESUS and also shows that we were being held captive, while the word REDEMPTION, doesn’t seem to give to me that exact impression in the verse. ANYWAY I would like to get some others opinions also.
peace and love to you and yours. ………gene
March 10, 2016 at 3:36 am#810304GeneBalthropParticipantKERWIN…..FRIST OF ALL I WAS MEANING Rom 3:24, not JOHN 3:24, Nick is right on that, sorry for the confusion.
Kerwin..You are right they are both synonyms, but I believe the word RANSOM shows more the idea of us being held captive, which i believe we all were and are now set free, by way of payment a RANSOM, that GOD THE FATHER GAVE, FOR US, and for what purpose, just as it says, ” TO DEMONSTRATE “HIS” RIGHTEOUSNESS”. So RANSOM more demonstrates a payment which GOD THE FATHER gave for the sins of the world. It more clearly represents Jesus as the “LAMB” of GOD, as the price of that payment “HE” (GOD) gave, for the sins of the world, is better illustrated by the way of a RANSOM payment. While REDEMPTION is the end of the matter, RANSOM better expresses the way. IMO
peace and love to you and yours. ……gene
March 10, 2016 at 7:35 am#810305kerwinParticipantGene,
Ransom is usually used in cases when a person is took captive against their will and the payment is asked for there release.
A slave is a forced worker that may or may not be taken against their will but who is considered property. The choice of redeem works to hint at the aspect of the purchase of property.
It is really a choice based on personal preferences of which works better or at least is acceptable.
March 10, 2016 at 1:50 pm#810310GeneBalthropParticipantkerwin, your probably right, it probably doesent make a deifference to most, but to me, i see “us” as beings who are held captive by sin, and the ransom was what had TO BE PAID TO GOD, IN ORDER FOR HIM TO RETAIN AND MAINTAIN “HIS” RIGHTIOUSNESS, AS Paul said, to demonstrate “HIS” RIGHTIOUSNESS I SAY.
NOW THAT BEGS ANOTHER QUESTION, why did GOD GIVE JESUS FOR A SIN OFFERING IN THE FIRST PLACE, couldn’t He just decide to just forgives us, and change our natures as he does anyway, by creating a new heart and mind in us. WHY was Jesus REQUIRED TO DIE FOR US. Could there be another reason for offering JESUS AS A SACRIFICE FOR SIN. THIS IS SPECULATION ON MY PART, but could it be that GOD IS TAKING responsibility FOR ALL THINGS INCLUDING SINS., AFTER ALL HE COULD HAVE JUST PREVENTED IT IN THE BEGINNING RIGHT?, It like God saw a need for us to experience both good and evil, so he made it happen, and perhaps by offering JESUS AS A SACRIFICE for sins HE IS taking full responsibility for all things which includes all good “and” evil.
Paul seems to imply that the sacrifice of JESUS was a deminstration of “GOD’S” rightiousness , SO in what way should we see that?
Peace and love to you and yours. ……..gene
March 10, 2016 at 2:34 pm#810313kerwinParticipantGene,
We do not always have enough evidence to determine the details of why God chooses to do something but he always chooses because of his great love. Some of his choices break his heart but they are still the most loving choice.
I am confident people are given the choice in order to reveal their hearts. Not everyone gets the choice to receive so it is my thoughts on the matter that those serve as agents for those who do not. God had to allow that choice and he chose to do it through Jesus Christ for his reasons.
Jesus is both the prototype and archetype of the gospel which means that is the most loving way to go through setting up the covenant of the Spirit.
The Law exist to teach the awareness of sin and that awareness is necessary in order for the covenant of the Spirit to come into effect.
In short everything comes in its time to reveal righteousness for what it is for who would know righteousness if there was no example of wickedness.
That is a sum of some of my thoughts on the matter.
March 11, 2016 at 12:38 pm#810345GeneBalthropParticipantkerwin…..thanks
Peace and love to you and yours. …….gene
March 11, 2016 at 12:54 pm#810347kerwinParticipantGene,
I here you.
Take care!
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