Preexistence

[Proclaimer]

Sword – Word of God

Revelation 1:16
In his right hand he held seven stars, and out of his mouth came a sharp double-edged sword. His face was like the sun shining in all its brilliance.

Revelation 2:16
Repent therefore! Otherwise, I will soon come to you and will fight against them with the sword of my mouth.

Revelation 19:15
Out of his mouth comes a sharp sword with which to strike down the nations. “He will rule them with an iron scepter.” He treads the winepress of the fury of the wrath of God Almighty.

Revelation 19:21
The rest of them were killed with the sword that came out of the mouth of the rider on the horse, and all the birds gorged themselves on their flesh.

Revelation 19:13
He is dressed in a robe dipped in blood, and his name is the Word of God.

[terraricca]

Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 09 2011,02:59)

Quote (terraricca @ Dec. 08 2011,19:13) edj Quote I believe all of Scripture!   …what I don't believe is the  'spin'  that you put to it. Show me with scriptures plainly that what I have said was not scriptural or not true ; and then and only then what you say could become true ,other wise I say you do not like the truth of God in his written word,and so have a personal problem not with me but with God himself what I recommend you to solve before it is to late Pierre HA Ha ha ha As I said: you believe you view is canon, above trusting in the Scriptures themselves. God bless Ed J (Joshua 22:34) http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

edj

so you can not show me one quote that I have miss quoted in scriptures ? right?

this is good ,I was not talking about my interpretation but you can also use it ,unless i said this is my two cents ,

I would like you show me just like Mike did and I changed my believe on it ,

Pierre

[Ed J]

Quote (t8 @ Dec. 08 2011,19:59)

Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 08 2011,16:55) Hi T8, A) I always appropriate when others given a reason why their view is such. B) Here is one such occasion… “The [Holy]Spirit, which is The Word of God.”  (Eph.6:17) I realize the word “Holy” is not there, is this the type of inference that you mean? C) Correct D) They are parts of God; like your voice, and your spirit are parts of you. God bless Ed J (Joshua 22:34) Edj. No inference from what I can tell. But a good scripture to quote on this subject nevertheless. The sword OF the spirit is not the spirit itself, but something of the spirit. Like Jesus is not God but is the son OF God. It is the sword that is indeed (the) word. Hebrews 4:12 For the word of God is alive and powerful. It is sharper than the sharpest two-edged sword, cutting between soul and spirit, between joint and marrow. Notice that the word of God cuts between the soul and spirit, thus is it fair to assume then that it is neither a soul or spirit? And esus has a sword coming out of his mouth to cut down the enemies of God. The sword that he welds are the words of God.

Hi T8,

It's only fair to assume that it's not our soul nor our spirit.  

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[Ed J]

Quote (t8 @ Dec. 08 2011,20:01)

Sword – Word of God Revelation 1:16 In his right hand he held seven stars, and out of his mouth came a sharp double-edged sword. His face was like the sun shining in all its brilliance. Revelation 2:16 Repent therefore! Otherwise, I will soon come to you and will fight against them with the sword of my mouth. Revelation 19:15 Out of his mouth comes a sharp sword with which to strike down the nations. “He will rule them with an iron scepter.” He treads the winepress of the fury of the wrath of God Almighty. Revelation 19:21 The rest of them were killed with the sword that came out of the mouth of the rider on the horse, and all the birds gorged themselves on their flesh. Revelation 19:13 He is dressed in a robe dipped in blood, and his name is the Word of God.

Hi T8,

“and he had a name written, that no man knew, but he himself.” (Rev 19:12)

                             “the sharp sword” is “The Word”!
                              And the “HolySpirit” is HE and I !

                    What do you suppose “the sharp sword” is in Rev.19:15?
                    Rev.19:15 And out of his mouth goeth a sharp sword, that with it
                    he should smite the nations: and he shall rule them with a rod of iron:
                    and he treadeth the winepress of the fierceness and wrath of Almighty God.

Isaiah 63:3 I have trodden the winepress alone; and of the people there was none with me:
for I will tread them in mine anger, and trample them in my fury; and their blood
shall be sprinkled upon my garments, and I will stain all my raiment.

           But they rebelled, and vexed
           his HolySpirit: therefore he
           was turned to be their enemy,
           and he fought against them. (Isaiah 63:10)

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[GeneBalthrop]

Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 08 2011,17:24)

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 08 2011,09:00) Ed, consider that this is one continuous sentence, strung together with the conjunction “AND”.  So what you are claiming is that John started a sentence about the Word, and without even ending his sentence, he started using pronouns to refer to a subject he hadn't even identified.  That's quite a stretch of the imagination, IMO. peace, mike Hi Mike, Were you not aware that others put in comas and sentence breaks, they were not in the original texts; I hope this helps. John 1:14 (KJV) And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the (word's) glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. The Word of the oath, which was since the law, maketh the Son, who is consecrated for evermore. (Hebrews 7:28)       the glory as of the only begotten of the Father (John 1:14)       compared with the glory which shall be revealed in us. (Romans 8:18) as of: means that Christ's brethren had not been birthed by “The Word” yet; I hope this clarifies it for you. 1Pet.1:23 Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by “The Word” of God, which liveth and abideth for ever. Of his own will begat he us with “The Word” of truth, that we should be a kind of firstfruits of his creatures. (James 1:18) God bless Ed J (Joshua 22:34) http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

ED j………….You have correctly posted this , The Word which was GOD HIMSELF was (IN) the man Jesus, and this is how the word came to (BE) Flesh, (IT) was (IN) Jesus. Jesus himself was NOT that WORD or LOGOS that was (IN) him. GOD and His Word are one and the same and GOD and HIS WORD (ARE) SPIRIT and considers us TEMPLES (IT) can INDWELL. Just as it say, know you not that your bodies (ARE) the temples of the living GOD. That also is the Case of Jesus The anointed ONE>

peace and love to you and yours……………………………………gene

[Ed J]

Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 08 2011,20:44)

Quote (t8 @ Dec. 08 2011,20:01) Sword – Word of God Revelation 1:16 In his right hand he held seven stars, and out of his mouth came a sharp double-edged sword. His face was like the sun shining in all its brilliance. Revelation 2:16 Repent therefore! Otherwise, I will soon come to you and will fight against them with the sword of my mouth. Revelation 19:15 Out of his mouth comes a sharp sword with which to strike down the nations. “He will rule them with an iron scepter.” He treads the winepress of the fury of the wrath of God Almighty. Revelation 19:21 The rest of them were killed with the sword that came out of the mouth of the rider on the horse, and all the birds gorged themselves on their flesh. Revelation 19:13 He is dressed in a robe dipped in blood, and his name is the Word of God. Hi T8, “and he had a name written, that no man knew, but he himself.” (Rev 19:12)                              “the sharp sword” is “The Word”!                               And the “HolySpirit” is HE and I !                     What do you suppose “the sharp sword” is in Rev.19:15?                     Rev.19:15 And out of his mouth goeth a sharp sword, that with it                     he should smite the nations: and he shall rule them with a rod of iron:                     and he treadeth the winepress of the fierceness and wrath of Almighty God. Isaiah 63:3 I have trodden the winepress alone; and of the people there was none with me: for I will tread them in mine anger, and trample them in my fury; and their blood shall be sprinkled upon my garments, and I will stain all my raiment.            But they rebelled, and vexed            his HolySpirit: therefore he            was turned to be their enemy,            and he fought against them. (Isaiah 63:10) God bless Ed J (Joshua 22:34) http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

Hi T8,

Perhaps you're not seeing the connection
between Isaiah 63:2-11 and Rev.11:21.
This comparative chart should help.

                      “The Word” is the “HolySpirit”!    
                        And “HolySpirit” is HE and I !                
                 
Rev. 19:13 He was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood.
Isaiah 63:3 Their blood shall be sprinkled upon my garments

Revelation 19:15 He treadeth the winepress
Isaiah 63:3 I have trodden the winepress alone

Rev.19:13 His name is called The Word of God.
Isaiah 63:11 He that put His HolySpirit within

                     But they rebelled, and vexed
                     his HolySpirit: therefore he
                     was turned to be their enemy,
                     and he fought against them.

Isaiah 63:10 I will tread down the people in mine anger  
          …and I will bring down their strength to the earth.
Revelation 19:15 Out of His mouth goeth (The Word) a sharp sword,
                              that with it He should smite the nations.

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[Ed J]

Hi T8, here is more evidence for you…

                      Ho Logos(91)  =  Spirit(91)

For this cause also thank we God without ceasing, because, when ye “received the word” of God
which ye heard of us, ye received it not as the word of men, but as it is in truth,
“The Word” of God, which effectually worketh also
“in you” that believe. (1Thess.2:13)

For what man knoweth the things of a man, save the spirit of man which is in him? even so the things of God knoweth
no man, but the “Spirit” of God. Now “we have received”, not the spirit of the world, but the
“Spirit” which is “of God”; that we might know the things that are
“freely given to us” of God. (1Cor.2:11-12)

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[Ed J]

Hi T8, here is yet more evidence…

                       Lord: means owner.

YHVH is “The Owner”(The LORD); Jesus is “owner”(Lord)
     The HolySpirit is YHVH. (Lev.11:45/John 6:63)
     The HolySpirit is “The Word”; Jesus “word”(the proof is listed).

This PROOF really is not that difficult to understand… (Matt.18:16)
In English, the significant number (74) is attributed to “JOSHUA”=74 and “Messiah”=74; also
in the following: “JESUS”=74, “Cross”=74, “Gospel”=74, and even “English”=74.
“Jesus Christ” (74×32) also factors 74 in Greek Theomatically:
[Jesus] Ιησους=74(x12), [Christ] Χριστоς=74(x20).
[Son of Man] υιος τον ανθρωπου=74(x40).

“JESUS OF NAZARETH THE KING OF THE JEWS”=373 (John 19:19)
This most popular phrase curiously adds up to the 74th prime number: 373.

John 1:1 was written in Greek.    
The word for “Word” in Greek is: [λογος] Lōgôs
and [λογος] has a “Theomatic” value of 373; and [ [373 is the 74th prime number] ]

“The Word” from the Greek is: [ο λογος] Hō Lōgôs
[ο λογος] has a “Theomatic” value of 443; and [ [443 is the 86th prime number] ].
Here is a chart for you to see the “Bible Truth” that I refer to! …

           English        ↔    Hebrew       ↔    Greek
     “Word of God”  ↔      “God”         ↔ “Hō Lōgôs”
“Word of God”(86) =   (אלהים](86]     = [ο λογος](86)th Prime
         YHVH(63)      = ĔL-ō-Hêêm(63) = The Bible(63)

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[Ed J]

Quote (Gene Balthrop @ Dec. 09 2011,00:49)

Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 08 2011,17:24) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 08 2011,09:00) Ed, consider that this is one continuous sentence, strung together with the conjunction “AND”.  So what you are claiming is that John started a sentence about the Word, and without even ending his sentence, he started using pronouns to refer to a subject he hadn't even identified.  That's quite a stretch of the imagination, IMO. peace, mike Hi Mike, Were you not aware that others put in comas and sentence breaks, they were not in the original texts; I hope this helps. John 1:14 (KJV) And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the (word's) glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. The Word of the oath, which was since the law, maketh the Son, who is consecrated for evermore. (Hebrews 7:28)       the glory as of the only begotten of the Father (John 1:14)       compared with the glory which shall be revealed in us. (Romans 8:18) as of: means that Christ's brethren had not been birthed by “The Word” yet; I hope this clarifies it for you. 1Pet.1:23 Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by “The Word” of God, which liveth and abideth for ever. Of his own will begat he us with “The Word” of truth, that we should be a kind of firstfruits of his creatures. (James 1:18) God bless Ed J (Joshua 22:34) http://www.holycitybiblecode.org ED j………….You have correctly posted this , The Word which was GOD HIMSELF was (IN) the man Jesus, and this is how the word came to (BE) Flesh, (IT) was (IN) Jesus. Jesus himself was NOT that WORD or LOGOS that was (IN) him. GOD and His Word are one and the same and GOD and HIS WORD (ARE) SPIRIT and considers us TEMPLES (IT) can INDWELL.  Just as it say, know you not that your bodies (ARE) the temples of the living GOD. That also is the Case of Jesus The anointed ONE> peace and love to you and yours……………………………………gene

Hi Gene,

Explaining it to them is not good enough,
they MUST see the evidence for themselves.

Your brother
in Christ, Jesus.
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[terraricca]

Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 09 2011,08:30)

Hi T8, here is yet more evidence…                        Lord: means owner. YHVH is “The Owner”(The LORD); Jesus is “owner”(Lord)      The HolySpirit is YHVH. (Lev.11:45/John 6:63)      The HolySpirit is “The Word”; Jesus “word”(the proof is listed). This PROOF really is not that difficult to understand… (Matt.18:16) In English, the significant number (74) is attributed to “JOSHUA”=74 and “Messiah”=74; also in the following: “JESUS”=74, “Cross”=74, “Gospel”=74, and even “English”=74. “Jesus Christ” (74×32) also factors 74 in Greek Theomatically: [Jesus] Ιησους=74(x12), [Christ] Χριστоς=74(x20). [Son of Man] υιος τον ανθρωπου=74(x40). “JESUS OF NAZARETH THE KING OF THE JEWS”=373 (John 19:19) This most popular phrase curiously adds up to the 74th prime number: 373. John 1:1 was written in Greek.     The word for “Word” in Greek is: [λογος] Lōgôs and [λογος] has a “Theomatic” value of 373; and [ [373 is the 74th prime number] ] “The Word” from the Greek is: [ο λογος] Hō Lōgôs [ο λογος] has a “Theomatic” value of 443; and [ [443 is the 86th prime number] ]. Here is a chart for you to see the “Bible Truth” that I refer to! …            English        ↔    Hebrew       ↔    Greek      “Word of God”  ↔      “God”         ↔ “Hō Lōgôs” “Word of God”(86) =   (אלהים](86]     = [ο λογος](86)th Prime          YHVH(63)      = ĔL-ō-Hêêm(63) = The Bible(63) God bless Ed J (Joshua 22:34) http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

edj

if you can show anyone that own anything or his a owner(i mean more than temporary ownership) before God ,you would impress me greatly

Pierre

[mikeboll64]

Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 08 2011,00:05)

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 08 2011,08:13) Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 06 2011,17:39) 1) “The Word's” glory is exemplified in his only begotten son. Okay Ed, Let's follow this thought through.  YOU think that the Word is the Holy Spirit, which is God Himself, right? Why would the Word/Holy Spirit/God Himself have the glory of an only begotten OF God? Because the Word is what became flesh; and the Word is what had the glory of God's only begotten. You try to do what Gene does with 1:14.  You PRETEND that it says, “The Word CAME TO BE IN SOMEONE WHO WAS FLESH“.  And if 1:14 actually said that, you might have a point.  But 1:14 doesn't say that, Ed.  Instead, it tells us that the Word himself BECAME flesh – not CAME TO BE IN flesh. peace, mike Quote Let's follow this thought through.  YOU think that the Word is the Holy Spirit, Quote which is God Himself, right? Hi Mike, Let's focus on one part of this at a time; OK? Quote (adjusted) Why would the Word/Holy Spirit have the glory as of an only begotten OF God? Because God's glory then can be seen in the physical world; compare…       the glory as of the only begotten of the Father (John 1:14)       compared with the glory which shall be revealed in us. (Romans 8:18) God bless Ed J

Ed,

First of all…………NO!  Since you DO think that the Word IS the Holy Spirit which IS God Himself, then there's no need to separate anything.

My question stands:  Why would God Himself have the glory of the only begotten OF God?

Also, your answer………

Quote

Because God's glory then can be seen in the physical world; compare…

………doesn't make a lick of sense.  If it was GOD'S GLORY, then why would they not have seen a glory as of GOD?  Why the glory as of an only begotten OF God?  

[mikeboll64]

Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 08 2011,00:23)

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 08 2011,09:00) Show me where Christ is SPECIFICALLY mentioned in verse 14. Hi Mike, John 1:14 (KJV) And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the (word's) glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

Ed,

You made MY point for me.  By your bolded words, you have clarified that you understand “the only begotten of the Father” is JESUS.

Now, why in the world would the “Holy Spirit/God Himself” have the glory of Jesus?  

Work it backwards, Ed.  The one who had the glory as of an only begotten is the one who made his dwelling among us.  And the one who made his dwelling among us is the one who became flesh.  And the one who became flesh is “The Word”.

So if JESUS is the one who had the glory as of the only begotten from the Father, then JESUS is the one who made his dwelling among us.  And if JESUS is the one who made his dwelling among us, then JESUS is the one who became flesh.  And if JESUS is the one who became flesh, then JESUS is “The Word”.

Ed, why would the Word's glory be the glory of God's only begotten Son?  Why would God's Holy Spirit, which you think is God Himself, have the glory of the only begotten Son OF God?

[mikeboll64]

Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 08 2011,00:24)

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 08 2011,09:00) Ed, consider that this is one continuous sentence, strung together with the conjunction “AND”.  So what you are claiming is that John started a sentence about the Word, and without even ending his sentence, he started using pronouns to refer to a subject he hadn't even identified.  That's quite a stretch of the imagination, IMO. peace, mike Hi Mike, Were you not aware that others put in comas and sentence breaks, they were not in the original texts; I hope this helps. John 1:14 (KJV) And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the (word's) glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

Right you are, Ed. So let's write it without the punctuation:

THE WORD BECAME FLESH AND MADE HIS DWELLING AMONG US AND WE HAVE SEEN HIS GLORY THE GLORY OF THE ONLY BEGOTTEN FROM THE FATHER FULL OF GRACE AND TRUTH

Notice how it is all one sentence strung together by two conjuntions………..just like I said. I didn't mention any puncutation in that post to you, did I?

So please don't divert the topic…………….instead just address my point about how illogical it would have been for John to switch subjects in the middle of a sentence, using pronouns to refer to a new subject that he hadn't even yet mentioned.

[mikeboll64]

Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 08 2011,08:37)

Hi Gene, Explaining it to them is not good enough, they MUST see the evidence for themselves.

And we've been waiting for that “evidence” for a long time, Ed. When will you show it to us?

[terraricca]

Mike

eddy most of the time as half truth and so is stuck to answer the other half if asked

Pierre

[Frank4YAHWEH]

WHO IS THE WORD?
(John 1:1)

In John 1:1 the writer is very plain in telling us who the 'word' was. He says the word was God. Now we must find out who God is and we will then know who the word is. Let's see who John says God is. Let's go to v.18 of this same chapter. John tells us that God is the Father, not Jesus the only begotten son. Now if we can believe John that God is the Father let's examine the Scripture back to v.1. We find the word 'God' in v.13 and John said God was the Father. In v.12, we find the word 'God,' and keeping this in context with v. 18, John has said God is the Father, not the son. Now let's go back to v.6. Here we find the word 'God'. Again staying in the context of John 1:18, John has said that God is the Father, not the son.Now let's go to v.2. We find the word 'God' again. Staying in context with John 1:18. John tells us God is the Father, not the son Jesus. Now last of all, let's go to v.1 where we find God two times. Again staying in context with v.18, we find John telling us that God is the Father ,not the son. Since John says God is the Father then the 'word' was God the Father. not Jesus the son. Believest thou this? Since God is made up of His 'word', the 'word' can be with God and be God – not another person. According to John there is only one person mentioned in John 1:1. That one person is God the Father, the Almighty.

In John 1:14, this same 'word' that was God the Father (because the word was in the Father) produced His son Jesus. The 'word' in John 1:14 is not Jesus. The 'word', God the Father, produced Jesus. The word (in God the Father) 'made' flesh or an earthly fleshly tabernacle for Jesus to dwell in. This was not a new thing because the same 'word' in God the Father had produced a fleshly tabernacle for Adam, for Eve, for monkeys, for giraffes, for elephants, and etc. This same thing is shown in 1 Cor. 15:39 where Paul said “all flesh is not the same flesh but there is one kind of flesh for men, another flesh of beats, another of fishes and another of birds. The 'word' with and in God the Father made or produced all of those kinds of flesh and later produced a fleshly body for Jesus.

A deeper understanding of this is that he word or doctrine in God the Father produced the flesh [word or doctrine] in Jesus Christ's mind. We find Jesus' flesh being his word in John 6:51 and 63. We have enclosed an article on John 1:1-18 with lines drawn on it so you can better understand that the 'word' in John 1:1 is God the Father, not Jesus the son.

One other point on John 1:1 is found in John 20:31. “But these are written, that ye might believe Jesus is the Christ, the son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.” This is John's reason for writing this whole book of John. His reason was to prove that Jesus was the son of God and not that Jesus was God. One is completely out of context when saying that John 1:1 is saying Jesus was God. That is the opposite in John's purpose for writing this book of John. Let's stay in context throughout this whole book of John by understanding the three reasons that John give for writing this whole book. 1. That Jesus is the Christ. 2. That Jesus is the son of God. 3. That we might have life by believing what he wrote.

Eddie Baker
Rt. 2, Box 137
Moberly, MO 65270
Ph # 816 263 9709

Yahchanan [John] 1:18 – No man has seen Yahweh at any time; the only begotten son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he has declared [him] (A.K.J.V. – Edited and with Yahweh's Name Restored).

Webmaster's Comment:

Father Yahweh's word is just that, Father Yahweh's word. Father Yahweh's word is not a separate being apart from Himself. Yahshua is not his and our Father Yahweh's word, but the spokesman of his and our Father Yahweh's word in this last time period as Hebrews 1:1-2 makes perfectly clear. This is why his name/title is called “The Word of Yahweh” in Revelation. Note that this does not say that Yahshua “IS” or “WAS” the word of Yahweh! Nowhere in Scripture does it ever teach that Yahshua “IS” or “WAS” the word of Yahweh or that Yahshua “IS” “God”!

Many are deceived into believing that the “word” (that has been deliberately CAPITALIZED on and PERSONIFIED in translation) spoken of in Yahchanan [John] 1:1 is literally Father Yahweh's word as a separate being apart from Himself that pre-existed as His son Yahshua. This was done to confuse one into believing in a “Triune God”.

Note John 1:1 in the following translations which does not give personification of Father Yahweh's word as a separate being apart from Himself:

1. “All things were made by it” (Tyndale, 1534)

http://www.bl.uk/onlinegallery/sacredtexts/images/zoomify/tyndalezoom.html to see John 1:1 in Tyndale New Testament.

2. “The worde … All things were made by the same” (Coverdale, 1535)
3. “All things were made by it and without it nothing was made” (Matthews’ Bible, 1537)
4. “All things were made by it and without it was made nothing that was made” (The Great Bible, 1539)
5. “All things were made by it” (Taverner NT, 1540)
6. “All things were made by it”(Whittingham, 1557)
7. “All things were made by it” (The Geneva Bible, 1560)
8. “All things were made by it” (Bishops’ Bible, 1568)
9. “All things were made by it” (Tomson NT, 1607)
10. “Nor can anything be produced that has been made without it [Reason]” (John LeClerc, 1701)
11. “The word … through the same all things were made” (Mortimer, 1761)
12. “In the beginning was Wisdom … All things were made by it” (Wakefield NT, 1791)
13. “The Word … All things were made by it” (Alexander Campbell, founder of the Church of Christ, 1826)
14. “The Word … All things were formed by it” (Dickinson, A New and Corrected Version of the NT, 1833)
15. “All things were made by it” (Barnard, 1847)
16. “Through it [the logos] everything was done” (Wilson, Emphatic Diaglott, 1864)

In the beginning was the LOGOS, and the LOGOS was with GOD, and the LOGOS was God. This was in the Beginning with GOD. Through it every thing was done; and without it not even one thing was done, which has been done.

17. “All things through it arose into being” (Folsom, 1869)
18. “All things were made through it” (Sharpe, Revision of the Authorized English Version, 1898)
19. “All things were made by the Love thought” (Goddard, 1916)
20. “All things came into being in this God-conception and apart from it came not anything into being that came into being” (Overbury, 1925)
21. “All came into being through it” (Knoch, 1926)
22. “The word … the living expression of the Father’s thought” (Blount, Half Hours with John’sGospel, 1930)
23. “The word was god” (C.C. Torrey, The Four Gospels, 1933)
24. “Through the divine reason all things came into being” (Wade, The Documents of the NT Translated, 1934)
25. “Without it nothing created sprang into existence” (Johannes Greber, 1937)
26. “It was in the beginning with God, by its activity all things came into being” (Martin Dibelius, The Message of Jesus Christ, translated by F.C. Grant, 1939)
27. “Through its agency all things came into being and apart from it has not one thing come to be” (William Temple, Archbishop of Canterbury, Readings from St. John’s Gospel, 1939)
28. “The energizing mind was in exist
ence from the very beginning” (Crofts, The Four Gospels, 1949)
29. “First there was the Thought and the Thought was in God … He, him” (Hoare, Translation from the Greek, 1949)
30. “In the beginning God expressed Himself … That personal expression, that word … He” (J.B. Philips, NT in Modern English, 1958)
31. “All was done through it” (Tomanek, 1958)
32. “The Word was the life principle [in creation]” (William Barclay, NT, 1969)
33. “This same idea was at home with God when life began … He” (Jordan, Cottonpatch Version, 1970)
34. “All things became what they are through the Word” (Dale, NT, 1973)
35. “Within the Word was life” (Edington, 1976)
36. “It was his last werd. Ony it come first” (Gospels in Scouse, 1977)
37. “By it everything had being, and without it nothing had being” (Schonfield, The Original NT, 1985)
38. “All things were made through the Word” (Inclusive Language Lectionary, 1986)
39. “In the beginning was the Plan of Yahweh. All things were done according to it” (Hawkins, Book of Yahweh, 1987)
40. “All things happened through it” (Gaus, Unvarnished NT, 1991)
41. “In the beginning was the divine word and wisdom … everything came to be by means of it” (Robert Miller, The Complete Gospels, Annotated Scholars’ Version, 1992

Clearly Yahshua is the spokesman of Father Yahweh's word in this last time period!

http://www.bible.cc/john/12-49.htm

http://www.bible.cc/hebrews/1-2.htm

SOURCESOURCE

[mikeboll64]

Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Dec. 09 2011,12:50)

Webmaster's Comment: Father Yahweh's word is just that, Father Yahweh's word. Father Yahweh's word is not a separate being apart from Himself.

If the Father's word cannot possibly be APART FROM the Father, then it would be pretty senseless of John to specify that the word was WITH the Father.

It would be like me saying, “Frank went to the store, and his head was WITH him”.

[Frank4YAHWEH]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 10 2011,06:01)

Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ Dec. 09 2011,12:50) Webmaster's Comment:     Father Yahweh's word is just that, Father Yahweh's word. Father Yahweh's word is not a separate being apart from Himself. If the Father's word cannot possibly be APART FROM the Father, then it would be pretty senseless of John to specify that the word was WITH the Father. It would be like me saying, “Frank went to the store, and his head was WITH him”.

Mike,

Here you have clearly shown a prime example on how you love to twist the words of others as you also do the Scripture:

I said “Father Yahweh's word is not A SEPARATE BEING apart from Himself.”

I did not say that Father Yahweh's word was apart from Him. Father Yahweh's word is most definitely WITH HIM!

Did Yahshua Create Or Pre-exist His Birth?

“Jesus IS God!”?

[mikeboll64]

Frank,

Is the Father's word EVER apart from Him?  Is His word EVER separated from Him?

Also, I'll be expecting to see you post the scripture I twisted, and how I “twisted” it. Please put your money where your mouth is.

[Frank4YAHWEH]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 10 2011,07:32)

Frank, Is the Father's word EVER apart from Him?  Is His word EVER separated from Him?   Also, I'll be expecting to see you post the scripture I twisted, and how I “twisted” it.  Please put your money where your mouth is.

Mike,

Would not Father Yahweh's word literally being separated from Him render Him speechless?

Money? You want money from me now?

[Author]

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